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Pharmacology Summer '22 > Essential Anti-infectives, STIs, drug classes, and abx guide > Flashcards

Essential Anti-infectives, STIs, drug classes, and abx guide Flashcards

1
Q

Examples of PCNs

A

PCNs are bactericidal
Examples
Ampicillin, Amoxicillin, PCN G, Naficillin, Piperacillin-tazobactam

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2
Q

Examples of Beta lactamase inhibitors that are combined with PCNs

A

Clavulanic acid
Sulbactam
Tazobactam

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3
Q

First line treatment for Syphilis

A

PCN G 2.4 millions units IM x 1

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4
Q

Two treatment options for Syphilis in those with a PCN allergy

A

Doxycycline 100mg BID x 14 days
or
Tetracycline 500mg QID

hint* both are tetracyclines

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5
Q

Latent Syphilis medication management

A

PNC G 2.4 million units IM weekly x 3 weeks

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6
Q

MRSA is resistant to all drugs in these classes

A

PCNs and Cephalosporins

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7
Q

1st generation Cephalosporins

A

Cefazolin

Cephalexin

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8
Q

2nd Generation Cephalosporins

A

Cefuroxime (Ceftin)

Cefotetan

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9
Q

3rd generation Cephalosporins

A 
Ceftazidime 
Cefdinir 
Cefpodoxime 
Cefixime 
Cefotaxime 
Ceftriaxone
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10
Q

4th generation Cephalosporin

A

Cefepime

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11
Q

5th generation Cephalosporin

A

Ceftaroline

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12
Q

Gonorrhea treatment options both IM and PO

A

Ceftriaxone 250mg IM x1
or
Cefixime 400mg PO x1

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13
Q

Gonorrhea is resistant to this drug class

A

fluoroquinolones

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14
Q

Chlamydia

A

Azithromycin 1G PO x1
or
Doxycycline 100mg BID x 7 days

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15
Q

Chancroid

A 
Azithromycin 1G PO x1 
or 
Ceftriaxone 250mg IM 
or 
Ciprofloxacin 500mg PO BID x3 days 
or 
Erythromycin 500mg PO TID x 7 days
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16
Q

Granuloma Inguinale
and
Lymphogranuloma venereum

A

Doxycycline 100mg BID x 3 weeks

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17
Q

pregnant Lymphogranuloma venereum

A

Erythromycin

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18
Q

Bacterial Vaginosis

A 
Metronidazole 500mg PO BID x 7 days 
or 
Metronidazole gel once daily x 5 days 
or 
Clindamycin cream x 7 days
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19
Q

Vulvovaginal candidiasis can be treated with this class

A

azoles

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20
Q

Genital Herpes

A

Acyclovir
Famciclovir
Valacyclovir

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21
Q

HPV genital warts

A

Podofilox 0.5%
or
Imiquimod 5% cream

provide
cryotherapy, cryoprobe, resin, acid

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22
Q

Trichomoniasis

A 
Metronidazole 2G PO x1 
or 
Tinidazole 2G PO x1 
also 
Metronidazole 500mg BID x 7 days
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23
Q

Patients on Metronidazole should avoid ____

A

ETOH

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24
Q

Genital lice

A

Permethrin 1% lotion, shampoo

reapplied in seven days if evidence of lice

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25
Q

Scabies

A

Permethrin 5%
or
Lindane

Ivermectin if failure of topical medication

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26
Q

PID

A 
Ceftriaxone 250mg IM 
and 
Doxycycline 100mg BID x 14 days 
and 
Metronidazole 500mg BID x 14 days
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27
Q

Cytolytic vaginosis

A

intravaginal sodium bicarb

twice weekly in last month of cycle

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28
Q

Ceftriaxone 250mg IM x1 useful for treatment in

A

part of a multidrug regime for PID also including Flagyl and Doxy
1st line treatment for Gonorrhea
an option for treatment of chancroids

PID
Gonorrhea
chancroids

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29
Q

Azithromycin 1G PO x1

A

Chlamydia

Chancroid

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30
Q

Examples of Carbapenems

A

Imipenem-cilastatin
Meropenem
Ertapenem
Doripenem

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31
Q

Example of Monobactam

A

Aztreonam (septicemia)

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32
Q

In order to avoid the ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity of the aminoglycosides or the 3rd generation Cephalosporins, ______ (drug class) such as _____ may be used

A

Monobactams

Aztreonam

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33
Q

C. Diff
1st
2nd
3rd line treatments

A

Metronidazole
Vancomycin
Fidaxomicin or Rifaximin

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34
Q

Macrolides Examples

A

Erythromycin
Azithromycin
Clarithromycin
Fidaxomicin

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35
Q

Azithromycin causes arrythmias when given with this 1st generation antipsychotic

A

Pimozide

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36
Q

Lincosamide example

A

Clindamycin

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37
Q

Clindamycin is notable for causing this ADR

A

pseudomembranous colitis

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38
Q

This class of drug (give example) should be given no more than 7-10 days due to oto and nephrotoxicity

A

aminoglycosides (Gentamicin)

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39
Q

Linezolid is a ____ (drug class)

A

Oxazolidinone

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40
Q

MRSA treatment

A

Bactrim, Clindamycin, Doxycycline

Linezolid, Vancomycin

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41
Q

Tetracycline examples

A

Doxycycline
Tetracycline
Minocycline

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42
Q

Tetracyclines are 1st line treatments in

A 
RMSF
Chlamydia trachomatis 
Syphilis 
Lyme 
H. Pylori
Severe acne 
animal bites
anthrax prophylaxis
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43
Q

_______ (drug name) is the 1st line of treatment for H. Pylori

A

Clarithromycin (Biaxim)

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44
Q

Some notable ADRs of tetracyclines include

A

yellow teeth
do not give in pregnant lactation or children <8
hepatic and renal toxicity
photosensitivity

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45
Q

When taking tetracyclines, it is important to ____

A

take them without milk, antacids etc

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46
Q

UTI by E. Coli, Proteus and Klebsiella are treated with this drug class

A

Sulfonamide

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47
Q

When managing a patient on long term sulfonamides, it is important to monitor their ____

A

CBC

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48
Q

Pts with a G6PD deficiency should avoid this drug class

A

sulfonamides

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49
Q

Trimethoprim leads to several adverse effects such as

A 
hyperkalemia 
birth defects 
pancytopenia 2/2 folate deficiency 
kernicterus 
photosensitivity 
decreased effect of contraceptives 
hypoglycemia
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50
Q

After prescribed this drug, the provider instructed the pt to drink at least 3L of water daily

A

Trimethoprim

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51
Q

This urinary antiseptic is indicated in ESBL

A

nitrofurantoin

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52
Q

This urinary antiseptic can cause harmless orange urine, but must be discontinued if the patient develops yellowing skin

A

Phenazopyridine

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53
Q

Examples of Fluoroquinolones

A

Ciprofloxacin, Levofloxacin, Moxifloxacin

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54
Q

This drug class is contraindicated in those with myasthenia gravis

A

fluoroquinolones

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55
Q

An example of the class of antifungals called polyene is

A

amphotericin B

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56
Q

An example of an azole (antifungal) is

A

fluconazole

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57
Q

An example of an Echinocandin (antifungal) is

A

Caspofungin

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58
Q

An example of a pyrimidine analog (antifungal) is

A

Flucytosine (Ancoban)

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59
Q

A misc. antifungal is

A

Griseofulvin-tinea capitis

60
Q

This class of antifungal medication is contraindicated in HF

A

azoles

61
Q

This antifungal medication can lower your potassium

A

amphotericin B

62
Q

Metronidazole works against

A

bacteria and protozoa

63
Q

Chloroquine works against

A

malaria

64
Q

This drug works against helminthiasis

A

Mebendazole

65
Q

When taking this drug, it is essential to take Vit B6 (Pyridoxine) to avoid neuropathy

A

Isoniazid

66
Q

1st line treatment in TB

2nd line

A

Isoniazid, Rifampin, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol

Levofloxacin, Moxifloxacin

67
Q

When treating a patient with concurrent Rifampin, Ethambutol and Pyrazinamide it is essential to monitor

A

LFTs

68
Q

Acyclovir can treat

A

Herpes Simplex
Varicella Zoster
Cytomegalovirus

69
Q

Retinitis by Cytomegalovirus is treated with

A

Ganciclovir

>10% leukopenia, thrombocytopenia

70
Q

RSV is treated with

A

Ribavirin (teratogenic)

71
Q

Ribavirin is used to treat

A

RSV

72
Q

Also this drug can cause liver and kidney toxicity as well as pancreatitis, it is used to treat Hepatitis

A

Lamivudine

73
Q

HIV antiretroviral____ causes this adverse effect

A

Zidovudine (Retrovir)
bone marrow suppression
low RBC 2-4 weeks
low WBC 6-8 weeks

74
Q

Lamivudine is used to treat

A

Hepatitis

75
Q

Zidovudine is used to treat

A

HIV

76
Q

E. Coli is resistant to ___ (drug)

A

Bactrim

77
Q

Febrile UTI treatment

A

Ceftriaxone IV x 10 days

78
Q

Gonococcal conjunctivitis treatment

A

IM Ceftriaxone

79
Q

Erythromycin ointment is used to

A

prevent gonococcal conjunctivitis after birth
treat bacterial conjunctivitis-dacryostenosis
treat blepharitis

80
Q

Chlamydial conjunctivitis is treat with either ____ or ___

A

systemic erythromycin
or
high dose Augmentin

81
Q

When treating otitis externa is it important to assess the tympanic membrane bc

A

no gtt if perforated

82
Q

Malignant otitis externa is treated with

A

parenteral abx, an aminoglycoside, carbenicillin 4-6 weeks and sx

83
Q

These bacteria form nitrites in urine

A

E. Coli, Klebsiella and Proteus

84
Q

PNA in healthy adults with no risk factors is treated with

A

Macrolide (Azithromycin, Clarithromycin, Erythromycin)
if allergic
Doxycycline

85
Q

CAP in adults with comorbidities < 60

A

Fluoroquinolones (ie Levaquin)

B lactam plus macrolide

Cefuroxime, Cefpodoxime

IV Ceftriaxone followed by PO Cefpodoxime

or B lactam plus Doxycycline

86
Q

Adult CAP w. comorbidities > 60

A

Ceftriaxone 1G daily IV or IM

Levofloxacin 500mg IV daily

87
Q

CAP in pregnancy

A

macrolide

88
Q

CAP in pregnancy with recent abx use

A

Amoxicillin

Ceftriaxone

89
Q

CAP in pregnancy with recent abx, PCN allergy

A

Clindamycin or Macrolide

90
Q

children <5 with bacterial PNA

A

Amoxicillin

Ceftriaxone

91
Q

Children < 5 bacterial PNA with PCN allergy

A

Clindamycin or Macrolide

92
Q

Chlamydial PNA in infant

A

Azithromycin

Erythromycin

93
Q

Children >5 PNA

A

macrolide

94
Q

Sinusitis

A

1st line Amoxicillin

or adults high dose Augmentin

95
Q

Sinusitis in children w. PCN allergy

A

Cefuroxime (2nd), Cefpodoxime (3rd), Cefdinir (3rd)

96
Q

Sinusitis in adults w. PCN allergy

A

Doxycycline or respiratory fluoroquinolone (Levaquin

97
Q

In sinusitis, do NOT treat with

A

macrolides or Bactrim

98
Q

Pharyngitis

A

PCN V or Amoxicillin

Keflex

99
Q

Pharyngitis w. PCN allergy

A

Clindamycin or Azithromycin

100
Q

AOM

A

1st Amoxicillin
2nd Augmenting
or
Ceftriaxone

101
Q

AOM w. PCN allergy

A

Cefuroxime

Cefdinir
Cefpodoxime
Ceftriaxone

102
Q

AOM fx to treat 48-72 hrs after Amoxicillin or other 1st line

A

Clindamycin plus 3rd gen Cephalosporin

103
Q

Animal bites

A

Augmentin or Doxycycline

104
Q

Ticks

A

Doxy

105
Q

Non purulent Cellulits

A

Cephalexin or Cefadroxil (both 1st gen cephalosporin)

106
Q

purulent cellulitis

A

I+D, and MRSA coverage

107
Q

DM ulcers

A

Keflex or Doxy

108
Q

DM ulcers with suspected MRSA (two options)

A

Keflex and Bactrim
or
Doxy and Bactrim

109
Q

Folliculitis

A

Topical Mupirocin
or
Topical Clindamycin

110
Q

Impetigo

A

Topical Mupirocin
or
MRSA tx if severe

111
Q

Shingles

A

Acyclovir

112
Q

Bell’s palsy

A

Acyclovir and steroid

113
Q

Lice

A

Permethrin or Ivermectin PO

114
Q

Scabies

A

Permethrin or Ivermectin PO

115
Q

Tinea versicolor

A

Selenium (topical) or Ketoconazole

116
Q

Pinworms

A

Albendazole, Mebendazole

117
Q

Mastitis

A

Keflex or Augmentin

118
Q

Preseptal cellulitis

A

Clindamycin
or
Cephalexin and Bactrim

119
Q

Trimethoprim can _____ potassium levels

A

increase

120
Q

Amphotericin B can ____ potassium levels

A

decrease

121
Q

Otitis externa

A

fluoroquinolone gtts

122
Q

Otitis media

A

Amoxicillin or Augmentin if recent abx

123
Q

Acute sinusits

A

Augmentin or Doxy

124
Q

Thrush throat

A

Nystatin or Fluconazole PO

125
Q

Strep throat

A

Amoxicillin

126
Q

Strep throat w. PCN allergy

A

Cephalexin or

Azithromycin

127
Q

Peritonsillar abscess

A

Augmentin
or
Clindamycin

128
Q

Candida

A

Nystatin cream

129
Q

Uncomplicated UTI

A

Nitrofurantoin or BActrim

130
Q

Complicated UTI

A

Cephalexin or Cefpodoxime
or
Azithromycin

131
Q

UTI peds

A

Cephalexin (Keflex) or Cefdinir (Omnicef)

1st gen, 3rd gen respectively

132
Q

Pyelonephritis

A

Cephalexin or Bactrim

133
Q

Prostatitis

A

Ceftriaxone

134
Q

Diverticulitis three options

A 
Augmentin 
or 
Flagyl plus Cipro 
or 
Flagyl plus Levaquin

PCN, or Flagyl and Fluoroquinolone

135
Q

COPD

A

Azithromycin
Doxycycline
Levaquin

136
Q

Adult PNA (healthy)

A

Zithro
or
Doxy

137
Q

Atypical pediatric PNA

A

Zithro or Doxy

138
Q

Pediatric bacterial PNA

A

Amoxicillin or Augmentin

139
Q

Infectious diarrhea (only treat in recent travel, <6 months, bloody)

A 
Azithromycin 
or 
Levaquin 
or 
Ciprofloxacin
140
Q

<3, dental prevention

A

Keflex, or Amoxicillin

141
Q

<3, dental prevention with PCN allergy

A

Clindamycin

142
Q

MRSA

A

Bactrim, Clindamycin, Doxycycline

Vancomycin, Linezolide

143
Q

Avoid ETOH until 3 days after completion of

A

Fluoroquinolones (Moxifloxacin), Metronidazole, Cephalosporins

144
Q

This class of drugs causes QT prolongation, can interacts with statins to cause cardiomyopathy

A

macrolides

145
Q

When infused rapidly, this drug can cause cardiac arrest

A

Clindamycin

Pharmacology Summer '22 (9 decks)

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