Pilots Cafe Flashcards

1
Q

When is an instrument rating required?

A
  • When acting as PIC under IFR or in weather
    conditions less than prescribed for VFR.
  • When carrying passengers for compensation
    or hire on cross-country flights in excess of
    50 NM or at night.
  • For flight in Class A airspace
  • For Special VFR between sunset and sunrise
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2
Q

What is the minimum aeronautical experience required for the instrument rating?

A
  • 50 hours X-Country PIC time
  • 40 hours actual or simulated instrument time
    ▷ Of which, 15 hours with CFII.
    □ Including one X-Country flight of:
    □ 250 NM along airways or by directed ATC
    routing.
    □ An instrument approach at each airport.
    □ 3 different kinds of approaches using
    navigation systems.
    □ With a filed IFR flight plan.
    □ 3 hours instrument flight training in last 2 calendar
    months prior to practical test
  • Use of approved full flight simulator or FTD, if trained by
    authorized instructor:
    ▷ Max. 30 hours if instrument time completed under part
    142
    ▷ Max 20 hours if not completed under 142
  • Use of FAA approved Aviation Training Device, if trained
    by an authorized instructor:
    ▷ Max 10 hours of instrument time if basic ATD
    ▷ Max 20 hours of instrument time if advanced ATD
  • No more than 20 hours of total instrument time can be
    credited in a full flight simulator, FTD or ATD, except the
    30 hours exception under part 142 mentioned above.
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3
Q

What is the VFR recency of experience required?

A
  • Flight review every 24 months
  • 3 TOLs in the previous 90 days
  • If carrying passengers at night, those TOLs must be from a period of 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise to a full stop
    (The takeoffs and landings may be accomplished in a
    FFS or FTD if it is approved for landings and used in a
    part 142 training center.)
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4
Q

What is the recency of experience requirements? (under IFR in weather conditions less than VFR)

A

“6 HITS”
Within 6 calendar months preceding the month of
flight:
■ 6 instrument approaches.
■ Holding procedures & tasks.
■ Intercepting & Tracking courses through the use of
navigational electronic systems.
■ The above can be completed in a FFS, ATD, or FTD
provided the device represents the category of
aircraft for the instrument rating privileges to be
maintained and the pilot performs the tasks and
iterations in simulated instrument conditions. A flight
instructor is not needed.

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5
Q

No “6 HITS” logged looking back six months?
a. Safety pilot requirements?
b. Reg?

A

You have an additional 6 months to regain currency by
performing the “6 HITS” with a safety pilot (under
simulated conditions), an instructor or examiner.

a. Holds at least a private pilot certificate with the
appropriate category and class.
▷ Have adequate vision forward and to each side of
the aircraft.
▷ Aircraft must have a dual control system.

b. 61.57(c)

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6
Q

More than 6 months since IFR current?

A

An Instrument Proficiency Check (IPC) is required.
Administered by a CFII, examiner, or other approved
person. Guidelines are in the ACS.
■ Some IPC tasks, but not all, can be conducted in a FTD
or ATD. (See ACS)
- To meet recent instrument experience requirements, the
following information must be recorded in the person’s
logbook:
■ Location & type of each instrument approach
accomplished, and
■ The name of the safety pilot, if required.

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7
Q

Is there an IFR recency of experience exemption?

A

Yes, a PIC who is actively employed by a part 121 or 135 operator is exempt from the IFR recency of experience requirements of part 61.57 when operating under part 91, 121 or 135 (as applicable) for that operator as long as he complies with recency of experience requirements applicable for that operation.

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8
Q

What are the requirements of use of full flight sim, FTD, or ATD for acquiring instrument aeronautical experience?

A

For training towards a certificate or rating, an authorized instructor is present to observe and signs the person’s logbook to verify the time and content of the session.
■ For IFR recency requirements, log:
▷ Training device, time and content

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9
Q

What are the requirements of logging instrument approach procedures?

A
  1. You must operate the aircraft, FFS, ATD or FTD solely by reference to instruments.
    ▷ A flight instructor may log an IAP conducted by the student in actual IMC.
  2. Be established on each required segment of the IAP down to its published minimums.
    ▷ The initial (starting at the IAF), intermediate and final approach segments are required for logging the approach, unless:
    ▷ When radar vectored to final by ATC. (In simulated IMC, vectors from the safety pilot are also accepted).
  3. If conducted in simulated IMC in an aircraft, or in a FFS, ATD or FTD, simulated conditions must continue down to MDA or DA.
  4. In an aircraft, flight must be in actual or simulated IMC.
  5. In an aircraft, if conditions change from actual IMC to VMC during the final approach segment, you can still log the approach.
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10
Q

What is the “DECIDE” model for decision making?

A

■ D - Detect that a change has occurred.
■ E - Estimate the need to counter the change.
■ C - Choose a desirable outcome.
■ I - Identify solutions.
■ D - Do the necessary actions.
■ E - Evaluate the effects of the actions

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11
Q

Taxi Briefing?

A

■ A - Assigned / planned runway.
■ R - Route.
■ C - Crossings and hold short instructions.
■ H - Hot spots & hazards (e.g., NOTAMs, closed
taxiways/runways, surface condition).

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12
Q

What are the requirements of an IFR flight plan?

A

■ No person may operate an aircraft in controlled
airspace under IFR unless that person has:
▷ Filed an IFR flight plan; and
▷ Received an appropriate ATC clearance.
■ It is legal to fly IFR in uncontrolled airspace (class G)
without a flight plan or clearance. However, once airborne,
you must remain in uncontrolled airspace until you file a
flight plan and get an ATC clearance to enter the controlled
airspace.

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13
Q

How to file an IFR flight plan?

A

▷ FSS
□ by phone (1-800-WX-BRIEF)
□ over the radio (GCO/RCO)
□ In person.
▷ Online
□ www.1800wxbrief.com (Leido)
□ www.fltplan.com (Garmin)
▷ EFB (e.g., Foreflight)
▷ With ATC (over radio, or phone if no other means available)
□ Pop-up IFR clearances let pilots transition from VFR to
IFR, even without a previously filed flight plan
(required by §91.173(a)), under ATC authorization.
□ While filing a flight plan (with FSS) is preferred, pop-ups
allow to quickly get the flight into the system. (i.e, when
weather is deteriorating fast during VFR). They are
subject to ATC workload and not guaranteed.
□ You must be at or above the minimum IFR altitude, or
climb to it under VFR.

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14
Q

How long in advance do you need to file an IFR flight plan?

A

File at least 30 minutes prior to estimated departure. Nonscheduled flights above FL230 should be filed at least 4 hours before est. departure time.

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15
Q

How do you cancel an IFR flight plan?

A

▷ Towered airports - automatically canceled by ATC upon
landing.
▷ Non-towered airports - Pilot must contact ATC / FSS to
cancel (by radio or phone)
▷ Can cancel anytime in flight if out of IMC and out of
class A airspace

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16
Q

What are the IFR minimum fuel requirements?

A

Enough fuel to the destination airport, plus:
- To the most distant alternate, plus:
- 45 min at normal cruise speed

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17
Q

When is a destination alternate required?

A

0-1-2-3 rule
- There are 0 IAPs available at the destination, or
- For at least 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA:
- Ceiling is forecasted to be less than 2000’ above airport
elevation; and
- Visibility is forecasted to be less than 3 SM.

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18
Q

What are the minimum weather conditions required at an airport to list it as an alternate?

A

The alternate airport minima published in the
procedure charts, or, if none:
■ Precision approach:
600 ft ceiling and 2 SM visibility.
■ Non-precision approach:
800 ft ceiling and 2 SM visibility.
■ No instrument approach available at the
alternate?
- Ceiling & visibility must allow descent from MEA,
approach and landing under VFR.

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19
Q

What are some GPS considerations for filing an alternate?

A
  • Equipped with a non-WAAS GPS? You can flight
    plan based on GPS approaches at either the
    destination or the alternate, but not at both.
  • WAAS Without baro-VNAV? May base the flight
    plan on use of LNAV approaches at both the
    destination and alternate.
  • WAAS with baro-VNAV? May base the flight plan
    on use of LNAV/VNAV or RNP 0.3 at both the
    destination and the alternate.
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20
Q

IFR CRUISING ALTITUDES

A

– In uncontrolled airspace
Based on magnetic course:
- Below FL290
0º-179º ODD thousands (below 18,000’)
or Flight Levels (at or above FL180)
180º-359º EVEN thousands (below 18,000’) or Flight
Levels (at or above FL180)
- Above FL290 (in non-RVSM)
0º-179º Flight Levels at 4,000’ increments starting at
FL290 (e.g., FL 290, 330, 370)
180º-359º Flight Levels at 4,000’ increments starting at
FL310 (e.g., FL 310, 350, 390)
- Above FL290-FL410 (in RVSM)
0º-179º Odd Flight Levels at 2,000’ intervals starting at
FL290 (e.g., FL 290, 310, 330)
180º-359º Even Flight Levels at 2,000’ intervals starting
at FL300 (e.g., FL 300, 320, 340)

– In controlled airspace
IFR Cruising altitudes are as assigned by ATC.

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21
Q

IFR TAKEOFF MINIMUMS

A

No T/O minimums mandated for part 91 operations.

Part
121, 125, 129, 135:
■ Prescribed T/O minimums for the runway, or, if none:
■ 1-2 engines airplanes: 1 SM visibility
■ More than 2 engines: ½ SM visibility
- Upside down triangle with T inside: Non-Standard TO mins / Departure Procedures.
- Triangle with A inside: Non-Standard IFR alternate minimums exist.
- Triangle with A inside + NA: Alternate minimums not authorized due to
unmonitored facility or the absence of weather
reporting service.

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22
Q

Departure procedures (DP) ensure obstacle clearance, provided:
a. FPNM to Feet-Per-Minute conversion:

A

The airplane crossed the departure end of the
runway at least 35 ft AGL,
▷ reaches 400 ft AGL before turning, AND
▷ climbs at least 200 Feet per NM (FPNM), or as
published otherwise on the chart.

a. FPM = FPNM X Groundspeed / 60

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23
Q

What are two types of DPs?

A
  1. Obstacle Departure Procedure (ODP)
    □ Provides only obstacle clearance.
    □ Printed either textually or graphically.
    □ Graphic ODPs are titled “(OBSTACLE).”
  2. Standard Instrument Departure (SID)
    □ In addition to obstacle clearance it reduces
    pilot and controller workload by simplifying
    ATC clearances and minimizing radio
    communications.
    □ May depict special radio failure procedures.
    □ SIDs are always printed graphically.
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24
Q

What are the types of DPs, depending on equipment required:
a. Are you required to accept a SID?

A

Non-RNAV DP - for use by aircraft equipped with
ground-based navigation (i.e., VOR, DME, NDB).
▷ RNAV DP - for aircraft equipped with RNAV
equipment (e.g., GPS, VOR/DME, DME/DME).
Require at least RNAV 1 performance. Identified with
the word “RNAV” in the title.
▷ RADAR DP - ATC radar vectors to an ATS route,
NAVAID, or fix are used after departure. RADAR
DPs are annotated “RADAR REQUIRED.”

a. No, but you must remark “No SIDs” in flight plan

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25
Q

What is a transition route?

A

Connects a SID to the enroute structure

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26
Q

What are diverse departure procedures?

A

■ All US airports with a published IAP but with no
published DP meet the Diverse Airport criteria
■ This criteria requires that an airport has been
evaluated for no obstacles within 200 ft altitude/NM
up to a minimum IFR altitude.
■ Diverse Airport Departures provide obstacle clearance when a DP is not published.
■ Turns are allowed only after reaching 400 ft AGL.
■ A Diverse Vector Area (DVA) allows ATC to provide
radar vectors instead of an ODP, while meeting the
diverse departure criteria. DVA information is found in
the US terminal procedures publication. It includes a
statement that initial headings are provided by ATC and
any applicable climb gradients.

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27
Q

What is a visual climb over airport (VCOA)?

A

■ A departure option for IFR aircraft in VMC.
■ The pilot visually conducts climbing turns over the
airport up to the published “climb to” altitude, from
which he proceeds to the instrument portion of the
departure.
■ Designed to avoid obstacles beyond 3 SM from the
departure end of the runway (DER), as an alternative to
complying with climb gradients greater than the
standard 200 ft/NM.
■ Advise ATC as early as possible prior to departure of
the intent to fly a VCOA.
■ Published in the “Take-Off Minimums and (Obstacle)
Departure Procedures” section of the TP.
■ May appear as an option on graphic ODPs

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28
Q

What is a CRAFT clearance?

A
  • Clearance limit
  • Route
  • Altitude
  • Frequency
  • Transponder
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29
Q

What is a standard terminal arrival (STAR)?

a. Must you accept a STAR?

A

Serves as a transition between the enroute structure
and a point from which an approach to landing can
be made.
■ Transition routes connect enroute fixes to the basic
STAR procedure.
■ Usually named according to the fix at which the
basic procedure begins.

a. As with a SID, you can state “NO STARs” in the
remarks section of the flight plan, to avoid getting a
clearance containing a STAR.

■ RNAV STARs require RNAV 1 performance.

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30
Q

Minimum IFR altitudes:
Except for takeoff or landing, or otherwise authorized by the FAA, no person may operate an aircraft under IFR below:

A

▷ Minimum altitudes prescribed for the flown segment, or if none:
▷ Mountainous areas: 2,000 ft above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 NM from the course.
▷ Non-mountainous areas: 1,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 4 NM from the course.

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31
Q

IFR Altitude Definitions:
■ DA / H
■ MAA
■ MCA
■ MDA / H
■ MEA
■ MOCA
■ MORA
■ MRA
■ MTA
■ MVA
■ OROCA

A

■ DA / H - Decision Altitude / Height: the Altitude (MSL) / Height (above runway threshold), on an instrument approach procedure at which the pilot must decide whether to continue the approach or go around.
■ MAA - Maximum Authorized Altitude. Annotated “MAA-17000” (17,000ft as an example) on IFR charts.
■ MCA - Minimum Crossing Altitude. The lowest altitude at certain fixes that an airplane must cross when flying in the direction of a higher MEA.
■ MDA / H - Minimum Descent Altitude / Height: The lowest Altitude (MSL) / Height (above runway threshold) to which descent is authorized on a non-precision approach until the pilot sees the visual references required for landing.
■ MEA - Minimum Enroute Altitude: The lowest published altitude between radio fixes which assures acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstacle clearance requirements. An MEA gap establishes an area of loss in navigational coverage and annotated “MEA GAP” on IFR charts.
■ MOCA - Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude: Provides obstacle clearance and navigation coverage only up to 22 NM of the VOR.
▷ If both an MEA and a MOCA are prescribed for a particular route segment, a person may operate an
aircraft lower than the MEA down to, but not below the MOCA, provided the applicable navigation signals are available. For aircraft using VOR for navigation, this applies only when the aircraft is within 22 NM of the VOR.
■ MORA - Minimum Off Route Altitude (Jeppesen):
▷ Route MORA provides obstruction clearance within 10NM to either side of airway centerlines and within a 10NM radius at the ends of airways.
▷ Grid MORA provide obstruction clearance within a latitude / longitude grid block.
■ MRA - Minimum Reception Altitude. The lowest altitude on an airway segment where intersection can be determined using radio navigational aids.
■ MTA - Minimum Turning Altitude: Provides vertical and lateral obstacle clearance in turns over certain fixes. Annotated with the MCA X icon and a note describing the restriction.
■ MVA - Minimum Vectoring Altitude: The lowest altitude at which an IFR aircraft will be vectored by a radar controller, except as otherwise authorized for radar approaches, departures, and missed approaches. MVAs may be lower than the minimum altitudes depicted on aeronautical charts, such as MEAs or MOCAs.
■ OROCA - Off Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude: Provides obstruction clearance with a 1,000 ft buffer in non-mountainous terrain areas and 2,000 ft in mountainous areas. OROCA may not provide navigation or communication signal coverage.

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32
Q

Pitot blockages
b. Ram air inlet clogged and drain hole open?
c. Both air inlet and drain hole are clogged?

A

a. Airspeed drops to zero.
b. The airspeed indicator will act as an altimeter, and will no longer be reliable.

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33
Q

Static port blockages
a. Airspeed indicator
b. Altimeter
c. VSI
d. Alternate Static Source

A

a. Indicates correctly only at the blockage altitude.
▷ Higher altitudes → airspeed indicates lower than it should.
▷ Lower altitudes → Indicates higher than it should.
b. Will freeze on the altitude where it was blocked.
c. Freezes on zero
d. A lower static pressure is measured
▷ Airspeed indicator – indicate a faster speed than it should.
▷ Altimeter – indicate higher than it should.
▷ VSI – momentarily show a climb.

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34
Q

MINIMUM EQUIPMENT REQUIRED FOR FLIGHT

What is the minimum equipment required for flight in IFR?

A

For IFR day: all VFR day equipment + GRABCARD
For IFR night: all VFR day + VFR night + GRABCARD
“GRAB CARD” –
G - Generator / alternator.
R - Radios. Two-way radio communication & navigational equipment
suitable for the route to be flown.
A - Altimeter (sensitive, adjustable for barometric pressure)
B - Ball (slip-skid indicator).
C - Clock. Shows hours, minutes and seconds with sweep-second
pointer or digital representation. Installed as part of aircraft
equipment.
A - Attitude indicator.
R - Rate-of-turn indicator.
D - Directional gyro (heading indicator).

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35
Q

What is the process for operating with inoperative items?

A
  • If aircraft has an MEL, follow it. If not:
  • VFR day/night, IFR day/night required? KOEL or manufacturer equipment list? AD?
  • If none of the above, Flying is permitted, provided:
    ■ Inoperative equipment is removed (affecting weight &
    balance), or
    ■ deactivated and placarded “Inoperative.”
    ■ Pilot/mechanic determines no hazard from inop. item
  • If on one of the above, flight is not permitted without a special flight permit.
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36
Q

What are the maximum errors for VOR Receiver Checks for each type of check?
▷ VOT
▷ Repair Station
▷ VOR ground checkpoint
▷ VOR airborne checkpoint
▷ Dual VOR cross-check
▷ Above a prominent ground
landmark on a selected radial
at least 20 NM from a VOR,
flying at a “reasonable low
altitude”

A

▷ VOT ±4º
▷ Repair Station ±4º
▷ VOR ground checkpoint ±4º
▷ VOR airborne checkpoint ±6º
▷ Dual VOR cross-check ±4º
▷ Above a prominent ground landmark ±6º

37
Q

What must be required on a VOR check sign-off?

A

DEPS -
- Date
- Error
- Place
- Signature

38
Q

What are some VOR limitations?

A

■ Cone of confusion
■ Reverse sensing (if used incorrectly)
■ Requires line-of-sight between aircraft and station.

39
Q

What are the standard VOR service volumes?

A

Terminal - 1000-12000ft within 25 NM
Low - 1000-18000ft within 40 NM
High
- 1000-14500ft within 40 NM
- 14500-18000ft within 100 NM
- 18000-45000ft within 130 NM
- 45000-60000ft within 100 NM

40
Q

How does a DME work?

A

Normally tuned automatically with a paired VHF station (VOR/LOC).
■ The Airborne DME unit transmits an interrogation
signal.
■ The ground DME facility receives and replies to the
interrogation.
■ Airborne unit calculates the slant range distance to
the station based on the reply time.
■ Due to slant range error, when flying overhead the
station, DME indicates greater than zero.
■ Slant range error is negligible at 1 NM DME station
per every 1000ft height. For example, at 5000 ft, slant
range error is negligible when further than 5 NM of
the station

41
Q

DME service volumes?

A

DME low (DL)
- 12900-18000ft within 130 NM
DME high (DH)
- 12900-45000ft within 130 NM
- 14500-60000ft within 100 NM

*ATH - above transmitter height

42
Q

What is an NDB?
a. What is a compass locator?

A
  • Non directional beacon
  • Low to medium frequency band.
    ■ ADF (Automatic Direction Finder) in aircraft points
    towards the NDB.
    ■ Magnetic Bearing = Magnetic Heading + Relative
    Bearing

a. A low-powered NDB (at least 25 Watts and 15NM range)
installed at the OM or the MM on some ILS approaches.

43
Q

What are NDB service volume ranges?

A

Compass Locator 15 NM
Medium High (MH) 25 NM
High (H) 50 NM (or less, see NOTAM or Chart Supplement)
High High (HH) 75 NM

44
Q

Localizer frequency, width and coverage range?

A
  • 90 (left) and 150 Hz (right) signals are carried over the VHF frequency and used by the receiver to interpret the aircraft’s lateral position.
    ■ Width: Between 3°-6° so that the width at the threshold would be 700 feet. Usually 5° total width. (2.5 full deflection to each side, 4 times more sensitive than a VOR).
    ■ Coverage range: 35° to each side of the centerline for the first 10NM and 10° up to 18NM from the antenna and up to an altitude of 4500’.
45
Q

Glide slope
■ Frequencies
■ Width
■ Range
■ Slope
■ Errors

A

■ Frequencies: 90 and 150 Hz signals carried
over the UHF frequency and directed above and under the slope.
■ Width: 1.4º (full deflection is 0.7º either direction).
■ Range: typically up to 10 NM.
■ Slope: typically 3°.
■ Errors: False glide slope above normal glide slope

46
Q

Marker beacons
- Outer marker
- Middle marker
- Inner marker
- Back course marker

A

■ Outer marker: 4-7 miles out. Indicate the position at which the aircraft should intercept the GS at the appropriate interception altitude ±50ft. BLUE. “- - -“
■ Middle marker: ~3500ft from the runway. Indicates the approximate point where the GS meets the decision height. Usually 200ft above the touchdown zone elevation. AMBER. “. - . -”
■ Inner marker: between the MM and runway threshold. Indicates the point where the glide slope meets the DH on a CAT II ILS approach. WHITE. “. . .”
■ Back course marker: Indicates the FAF on selected back course approaches. Not part of the ILS approach.
WHITE. “.. ..”

47
Q

What is the purpose of approach lighting systems (ALS)?
■ ALS extends from the landing threshold into the approach area up to:

A

■ Provides basic visible means to transition between instrument-guided flight into a visual approach.
▷ 2,400-3,000 feet for precision instrument runways, and
▷ 1,400-1,500 feet for non-precision instrument runways.

48
Q

ILS Categories, Lowest Visibilities and Lowest DH

A

CAT I - 2,400’ or 1,800’ - 200’
CAT II - 1,200’ - 100’
CAT IIIa - >700’ - <100’ or no DH
CAT IIIb 1- 50’-700’ - <50’ or no DH
CAT IIIc - 0’ - No DH

49
Q

What is RNAV?
a. What are some different types?
b. What are two different RNAV routes based on altitude?
c. What is MRB?

A

A method of navigation allowing straight line navigation along the desired route, rather than overflying ground-based waypoints.
a. Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS AKA GPS), VOR/DME, DME/DME, RNAV VNAV, BARO-VNAV
b. RNAV Q (FL180-FL450), RNAV T (1200 AGL-18000 MSL) and are designated as RNAV 2 unless otherwise charted as RNAV 1.
c. Magnetic Relative Bearing - the published bearing between two waypoints on an RNAV route.

50
Q

How many GPS satellites are required for 2D position? 3D? For RAIM?
a. What is RAIM?
b. What kind of navigation does GPS use?

A

3 satellites for 2D, 4 for 3D, 5 for RAIM (Or 4 + an altimeter input - baro-aided RAIM), 6 for eliminating a corrupt satellite signal (Or 5 + altimeter input)
a. Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring - a function of GPS that monitors the integrity of the satellite signals.
b. Great circle navigation

51
Q

Can a GPS substitute for an ADF on an NDB approach with “GPS” in the title?
a. Can it in other types of approaches?

A

No, if it has GPS in the title, a GPS can’t substitute for an ADF
a. Yes, in other approaches it can.

52
Q

What do differential GPS (DGPS) systems do?
a. What are 2 types of DGPS?

A

They improve the accuracy of GPS by measuring errors received by reference stations at known geographical locations and then broadcasting those errors to supported GPS receivers.
a. Satellite based Augmentation System (SBAS) and Ground Based Augmentation System (GBAS)

53
Q

What specifically do we call SBAS?
a. How does it work?

A

Wide Area Augmentation System (WAAS)
a. Ground stations (Wide area reference stations and wide area master stations) measure GPS errors and produce correction signals. These corrections are then broadcasted back to the satellite segment from which they are bounced to aircraft GPS WAAS receivers to improve accuracy, integrity, and availability monitoring for GPS navigation.

54
Q

What is GBAS (formally called LAAS)?
a. What kind of approaches does it allow for?

A

Errors are broadcasted via VHF to GBAS enabled receivers. More accurate than WAAS, but covers a smaller geographical area.
a. Allows for category 1 approaches and above to GLS (GBAS landing system) minimums.

55
Q

What is RNP?
a. What does it mean when the title of the approach has RNAV (RNP)?

A

Required Navigation Performance. It is a statement of navigation equipment and service performance. It is RNAV with navigation monitoring and alerting.
a. They require special FAA authorization for the crew, aircraft and operation.

56
Q

What are some RNP approach minima and equipment?

A
  • GLS DA minima using GBAS
  • LP MDA or LPV DA minima require RNP achieved by WAAS
  • LNAV / VNAV DA achieved by VNAV-approved WAAS, or baro-VNAV systems
  • LNAV MDA achieved by a basic, unaugmented IFR approved GPS
57
Q

What is PBN?
a. What is the difference between PBN and RNP?
b. What are the different flight segment contexts of RNP?

A

Performance based navigation. It is a general basis for equipment standards in terms of accuracy, integrity, continuity, availability, and functionality for specific operation contexts (final approach, enroute, missed approach)
a. RNP is a statement of PBN for the flight segment and aircraft capability. RAIM and WAAS provide this capability.
b. 1) Enroute - RNP 2.0 - 2 NM accuracy 95% of the flight time
2) Terminal and Departure - RNP 1.0 - 1 NM accuracy 95% of the flight time
3) Final Approach - RNP 0.3 - 0.3 NM accuracy 95% of the flight time
4) Advanced RNP (A-RNP) - a higher RNP standard mandatory for RNP AR

58
Q

What are the basic attitude instrument flying skills?
a. What are the common errors?

A
  • Cross check
  • Instrument interpretation
  • Aircraft control
    a. Fixation
  • Omission
  • Emphasis
59
Q

What are 2 methods of attitude instrument flying?

A

Control and Performance Method and Primary and Supporting Method

60
Q

Describe the Control and Performance method of attitude instrument flying.

A

Divides the cockpit panel into control instruments and performance instruments. First, set the control instruments, then monitor the performance instruments.
Control
- Power - tachometer or manifold pressure gauge
- Attitude - attitude indicator
Performance
- Pitch - altimeter, VSI, ASI
- Bank - heading indicator, turn coordinator, magnetic compass

61
Q

Describe the Primary and Supporting method of attitude instrument flying?

A

It divides the cockpit panel into pitch, bank, and power instruments. For a given maneuver, primary instruments provide the most essential information for pitch, bank, and power while supporting instruments back up and supplement the information presented by the primary instruments.
Pitch
- Attitude indicator, altimeter, ASI, VSI
Bank
- Attitude indicator, heading indicator, magnetic compass, turn coordinator
Power
- ASI, tachometer/manifold pressure gauge

62
Q

What are the required reports under IFR?
a. Reg?

A

MARVELOUS VFR C500
- Missed approach
- Airspeed change +-10 knots, or >5% of filed TAS, whichever is greater
- Reaching a holding fix (report time and altitude)
- VFR on top when an altitude change will be made
- ETA change +-2 min from filed (+-3 min in North Atlantic)
- Leaving a holding fix inbound
- Outer marker (or fix in lieu of it) - non radar environments only
- Unforecasted weather (91.183)
- Safety of flight (91.183)
- Vacating an altitude
- Final approach fix - non radar environment only
- Radio/nav/approach equipment failure
- Compulsory reporting points (filled in points on IFR charts)
- 500 - unable to climb/descend 500 FPM

a. 91.183 and AIM 5-3-2 and 5-3-3

63
Q

What are the required position report items in a non radar environment?

A

IPTANES
- ID
- Position
- Time
- Altitude
- Next fix
- ETA of next fix
- Supplemental info

64
Q

What are the uncharted holding clearance items?
a. The charted holding clearance items?

A
  • Direction of hold (N, W, S, E, etc.)
  • Holding fix
  • Radial, course, airway, route on which to hold
  • Leg length in miles or minutes
  • Direction of turns
  • EFC time
    a. Holding fix
  • Direction of hold
  • EFC
65
Q

How far ahead of the holding fix should you start the speed reduction?
a. What are the 5 T’s of holds?
b. All hold turns should be…?

A

3 minutes
a. 1) Turn
2) Twist
3) Time
4) Throttle
5) Talk
b. Standard rate (3 degrees/sec), 30 degree bank, 25 degree bank if using a flight director - whichever uses the least bank angle.

66
Q

Is hold timing based on the inbound leg or outbound leg?
a. Based on holding altitude, what is the mandatory time/distance of the hold leg?
b. What are the holding speed restrictions based on holding altitude?
c. What do you need to report to ATC when crossing the holding fix?

A

Inbound leg
a. At or below 14500 MSL - 1 minute
Above 14500 MSL - 1.5 minutes
The outbound leg should be the specified distance from the fix
b. 6000 MSL or below - 200 kn
6001 - 14000 - 230 kn
14001 and above - 265 kn
*May be limited to 175 kn on some instrument approaches
c. Callsign, over fix at altitude and time

67
Q

What procedure should be followed with lost comms in VFR?
a. In IFR?

A

Continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable.
a. Select the route and altitude based on AVE F MEA.
- Assigned route
- Vectored (fly to fix, route, airway being vectored to)
- Expected
- Filed
- Minimum IFR altitude*
- Expected (“Expect 6000 10 min after departure)*
- Assigned*
* fly the highest of the 3

68
Q

What is the procedure for leaving the clearance limit under lost comms?

A
  • If the clearance limit is a fix for which an IAP begins - start descent and approach as close as possible to the EFC or ETA.
  • If it isn’t a fix for which an IAP begins - at EFC or clearance limit, proceed to a fix from which an IAP begins and start the approach.
69
Q

What is the purpose of a procedure turn?
a. What is the max speed?
b. When should you NOT fly a procedure turn?

A

Course reversal, descent from IAF, inbound course interception
a. 200 kn
b. SHARP TT
- Straight in clearance
- Holding in lieu of a PT
- Arc (DME)
- Radar vectors to final
- no PT on chart
- Timed approach from a holding fix
- Teardrop course reversal

70
Q

What are the precision approach types?

A

ILS - Instrument Landing System
GLS - GBAS Landing System
MLS - Microwave Landing System
PAR - Precision Approach Radar
TLS - Transponder Landing System

71
Q

What are the non precision approach types?

A

VOR
NDB - Non Directional Beacon
RNAV / RNP to LNAV or LP minimums
LOC - Localizer
LDA - Localizer type Directional Aid - identical to a localizer, but not aligned with the runway
SDF - Simplified Directional Facility - Similar to a LOC, but with a 6 or 12 degree width. May or may not be aligned with the runway
ASR - Approach Surveillance Radar

72
Q

What are the precision-like approaches?

A
  • RNAV / GNSS (LNAV+VNAV and LPV minimums)
  • LDA with glide slope
73
Q

When can you descend to the next instrument approach segment?

A

When cleared for the approach and established on a segment of the published approach or route.

74
Q

What is a contact approach?

A
  • Same as a visual approach, but you don’t need the airport in sight
  • It is requested by the pilot in lieu of an IAP. ATC cannot initiate these.
  • Must have at least 1SM visibility and remain clear of clouds until landing
  • Only at airports with IAPs
  • Pilot assumes responsibility of obstruction clearance
75
Q

What is a visual approach?

A
  • It can be initiated by the pilot or ATC
  • Requires 1000’ ceilings and 3SM visibility
  • Pilot must have airport in sight or preceding traffic, in which the pilot is responsible for maintaining visual separation.
76
Q

When would you initiate a missed approach?

A
  • When you arrive at MAP or DA with insufficient visual reference to the runway environment (91.175)
  • When a safe approach is not possible
  • When instructed to do so by ATC
77
Q

When can you descend from MDA/DA?

A
  • The aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descend to landing on the intended runway can be made at a normal descent rate using normal maneuvers.
  • The flight visibility (or the enhanced flight visibility, if equipped) is not less than the visibility prescribed in the standard instrument approach being used.
  • At least one of the following visual references for the intended runway is distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot:
  • Approach lighting system’s red terminating bars or red side row bars
  • VASI/PAPI
  • REIL
  • Runway, runway lights, runway markings
  • Threshold, threshold lights, threshold markings
  • Touchdown zone, touchdown zone lights, touchdown zone markings
78
Q

What is a visual descent point (VDP)?

A

A defined point on the final approach course of a non precision straight in approach from which a normal descent from MDA to the runway touchdown point may begin, provided adequate visual reference is established.
- Identified by a V on the descent profile
- You cannot descent below MDA prior to reaching the VDP

79
Q

How do you calculate VDP?

A

In distance:
VDP (in NM from threshold) = MDH / 300
Example:
MDH = 600’
VDP = 600 / 300 = 2 NM from threshold

In time:
VDP (in seconds to subtract from the time between the FAF and MAP) = MDH / 10
Example:
MDH = 500’
FAF to MAP = 4 min
VDP = 500 / 10 = 50 sec to subtract from FAF to MAP
VDP = 4 min - 50 sec = 3:10 from FAF

80
Q

What is visual descent angle?

A

A computed glide path from the FAF to the runway’s TCH published for non precision approaches. Typically 3 degrees.
- Does not provide obstacle clearance below MDA in the visual segment
- VDAs are advisory only, pilots must still comply with all published altitudes on the procedure.

81
Q

How do you find out the descent rate for a 3 degree glide path?

A

Ground speed * 10 / 2
Example:
Ground speed = 80 knots
Vertical speed (FPM) = 80 * 10 = 800 / 2 = 400 FPM

82
Q

How do you calculate descent gradient?
a. How do you calculate vertical speed via descent gradient?
b. How do you calculate top of descent via descent angle?

A

Descent gradient (%) = tan(descent angle) * 100
Example:
- 2 degrees descent angle = 3.5% gradient
- 3 degrees descent angle = 5.2% gradient
- 4 degrees descent angle = 7% gradient
- 5 degrees descent angle = 8.7% gradient

a. VS = GS * descent gradient (%)
Example:
GS = 380 knots
Pilot selects 4 degree slope
VS = 380 * 7 = 2660 FPM

b. TOD = altitude to lose / (descent angle * 100)
Example:
Altitude to lose = 11000’
Descent angle = 4 degrees
TOD = 11000 / (4 * 100) = 11000 / 400 = 27.5 NM

83
Q

Other areas to study from private:
- Airspace
- Special Use Airspace
- VFR weather minimums
- Airspeed restrictions
- Weather
- Aeromedical factors
- SVFR
- LIFR/IFR/MVFR/VFR weather minimums (box)
- IMSAFE, PAVE
- Personal docs required
- Aircraft required docs
- Aircraft required inspections
- NWKRAFT
- Flight instruments
- Types of altitude and airspeed
- V-speeds
- Magnetic compass errors - VDMONA
- LRUs
- Systems
- ATOMATOFLAMES, FLAPS

A
84
Q

How do you calculate angle of bank for a standard rate turn?

A

Knots (TAS) / 10 * 1.5
Example:
100 KTAS
Bank angle = 100 / 10 * 1.5 = 10 * 1.5 = 15 degrees

85
Q

What are the aircraft approach category speeds?
a. How do you calculate what approach category your plane is in?

A

Category A = <90 knots
Category B = 91-120 knots
Category C = 121-140 knots
Category D = 141-165 knots
Category E = >165 knots

a. 1.3 * stall speed in landing configuration

86
Q

What are the RVR (ft) to visibility (SM) conversions?

A

1600’ = 1/4 SM
2400’ = 1/2 SM
3200’ = 5/8 SM
4000’ = 3/4 SM
4500’ = 7/8 SM
5000’ = 1 SM
6000’ = 1 1/4 SM

87
Q

What are the components of the ILS system?

A

GLAM
- Glideslope
- Localizer
- Approach lighting system
- Marker beacons

88
Q

What is required in an instrument proficiency check (IPC)?

A
  • Air traffic clearances and procedures
  • Flight by reference to instruments
  • Navigation systems
  • Instrument approach procedures
  • Emergency operations
  • Post flight procedures
  • In an airplane or flight sim appropriate for the category and class of aircraft to be flown
  • By an examiner, CFII, or company check pilot
89
Q

What climb gradient is required when crossing a fix which has a higher MEA on the next route segment if no MCA is listed?

A
  • Below 5000’ - 150ft/nm
  • 5000-10000 - 120 ft/nm
  • 10000 and above - 100 ft/nm