Gram Positive Bacilli Flashcards

1
Q

Characterize (4): Bacillus spp.

A
  1. Gram (-) rods in chains
  2. Protein capsule
  3. Obligate aerobe
  4. Spores
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Name 2 different presentation of B. Anthracis infection

A
  1. Back Eschar

2. Pulmonary anthrax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe the composition of B. Anthracis’ capsule

A

Poly D-glutamate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Name 2 toxins secreted by B. Anthracis

A
  1. Edema toxin
  2. Lethal toxin

(PA + EF = Edema toxin) (PA + LF = Lethal toxin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

MOA: Edema Factor

A

Increases cAMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

MOA: Lethal factor

A

Cleaves MAP kinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of B. Anthracis’ toxin is responsible for the black eschar

A

Lethal factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What animal is associated with pulmonary anthrax?

A

Sheep

Inhalation of spores found on wool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe the symptoms of pulmonary anthrax

A
  1. Pulmonary hemorrhage

2. Widened mediastinum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Treatment (2): anthrax

A
  1. Flouroquinolones

2. Doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the biggest association with bacillus cereus?

A

Food poisoning from reheated fried rice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Characterize (3): Clostridium tetani

A
  1. Gram (+) rods
  2. Obligate anaerobe
  3. Spores
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Name 2 locations C. Tetani is found:

A
  1. Soil

2. Rusted metals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Name 2 classic symptoms of tetanus:

A
  1. Risus sardonicus

2. Opisthotonus (exaggerated arching of back)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

MOA: tetanus toxin

A

Retrograde transport of toxin —> cleaves SNARE proteins —> inhibits exocytosis of GABA/Glycine —> GABA and Glycine release from Renshaw cells is inhibited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What specific type of neuron does tetanus toxin affect?

A

Renshaw neuron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What type of vaccine is the tetanus vaccine?

A

Toxoid vaccine (antibodies form to the toxin not the bacteria)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Characterize (3): Clostridium botulinum

A
  1. Gram (+) rod
  2. Spores
  3. Obligate anaerobe
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How is botulism most commonly transmitted?

A

Improper canning of food

Ingestion of preformed toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What type of nerves does the botulism toxin target ?

A

Cholinergic

Only affects PNS because it cannot cross the BBB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Describe the paralysis of botulism poisoning

A

DESCENDING paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is a common presenting symptom of botulism poisoning?

A

Ptosis/Diplopia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Name 2 toxins which cleave SNARE proteins:

A
  1. Tetanus

2. Botulism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the etiology of “floppy baby Syndrome”?

A

Botulism toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What food is most associated with infantile botulism poisoning?

A

Honey

26
Q

Explain why adults do not get botulism poisoning from honey?

A

Only SPORES are present

Cannot outcompete endogenous GI flora, unlike infants

27
Q

Name 2 common predisposing factors to developing C. Difficile

A
  1. Clindamycin

2. Poor hand washing

28
Q

MOA: C. Difficile exotoxin A

A

Damage brush border —> watery diarrhea

29
Q

MOA: C. Difficile Exotoxin B

A

Inhibits actin depolarization —> Pseudomembrane

30
Q

How do you diagnose C. Difficile infection?

A

Assay to detect toxin in stool

31
Q

Characterize (3): C. Difficile

A
  1. Gram +
  2. Obligate anaerobe
  3. Spore former
32
Q

Treatment for C. Difficile

A
  1. Metronidazole
  2. Oral Vancomycin
    (Rectal vancomycin is also an option)
33
Q

Explain the relationship between motorcycle accidents and C. Perfringens infections

A

Spores found in soil inoculate the wound

34
Q

Name 2 situations which predispose to infections with C. Perfringens

A
  1. Military wounds

2. Motorcycle accidents

35
Q

Name 2 different presentations of C. Perfringens infection

A
  1. Gas gangrene

2. Watery diarrhea

36
Q

What toxin is responsible for tissue damage in gas gangrene?

A

Alpha toxin

37
Q

MOA: alpha -toxin (C. Perfringens)

A

Cleaves phospholipid —> damages cell membranes

38
Q

How could C. Perfringens cause anemia

A

Alpha toxin causes RBC lysis

39
Q

What bacteria forms a double zone of hemolysis on blood agar?

A

C. Perfringens

40
Q

Name an anaerobic bacteria which is also hemolytic

A

C. Perfringens

41
Q

Treatment for C. Perfringens:

A

Penicillin G

Often with Clindamycin + surgically exposing infection to O2

42
Q

What is the only organism which can cause food poisoning in adults via ingestion of spores?

A

C. Perfringens

43
Q

Characterize (2): Corynebacterium diphtheriae

A
  1. Gram + club shaped

2. Metachromatic granules

44
Q

Which organism has metachromatic granules which stain with aniline dye?

A

C. Diphtheriae

45
Q

MOA: Diphtheriae toxin

A

Ribosylation of EF2 —> inhibition of protein synthesis

46
Q

Name 2 bacteria that can cause pseudomembrane formation

A
  1. C. Difficile

2. C. Diphtheriae

47
Q

Name 2 signs/ symptoms of C. Diphtheriae infection:

A
  1. Oropharyngeal pseudomembrane

2. Bull’s neck lymphadenopathy

48
Q

ROT: C. Diphtheriae

A

Respiratory droplets

49
Q

Name 2 consequences of diphtheria toxin reaching the systemic circulation

A
  1. Cardiotoxicity
    -myocarditis
    -arrhythmia
    -heart block
  2. Paralysis
    (Paralysis starts in the posterior oropharynx)
50
Q

Name. Agars used to culture C. Diphtheriae

A
  1. Tellurite’s

2. Loeffler’s

51
Q

What is Elek’s test used for?

A

Determine if a strain of C. Diphtheriae is toxin producing

52
Q

What type of vaccine is used against C. Diphtheriae?

A

Toxoid vaccine

53
Q

Characterize (3): Listeria monocytogenes

A
  1. Gram + rod
  2. Motile
  3. Catalase +
54
Q

Hemolysis: Listeria

A

Beta hemolytic

55
Q

Describe the intracellular motility of Listeria

A

Actin rockets

ActIN for INtracellular

56
Q

Name 2 bacteria which thrive in cold temperatures

A
  1. Listeria monocytogenes

2. Y. Enterocolitica

57
Q

ROT: Listeria Monocytogenes

A
  1. Soft cheeses and dairy
  2. Transplacentally
  3. Vaginally
58
Q

Who is Listeria monocytogenes most associated with?

A

Pregnant women

59
Q

Who gets meningitis from Listeria ?

A
  1. Neonates

2. Elderly

60
Q

Treatment for listeria

A

Ampicillin

61
Q

Describe the extracellular motility of Listeria

A

Tumbling motility

62
Q

Treatment for listeria

A

Ampicillin

Meningitis in elderly: Ceftriaxone + Vancomycin + Ampicillin