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CompTIA Network+ N10-008 > NET+ Acronyms - Review > Flashcards

NET+ Acronyms - Review Flashcards

1
Q

AAAA?

A

Authentication, Authorization, Accounting, Auditing

  • used to control and track access within a Network.
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2
Q

ACL?

A

Access Control List

  • rules/permissions that specifies what an authenticated user may do on a shared resource.
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3
Q

AES?

A

Advanced Encryption Standard

  • specification for the encryption of electronic data
  • is a symmetric Key Encryption and is not used for Key Exchanges but for Key Encryption.
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4
Q

AH?

A

Authentication Header

  • provides data origin authentication, data integrity, and replay protection
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5
Q

AP?

A

Access Point

  • device that creates a Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN) that you can connect to.
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6
Q

APC?

A

Angled Physical Contact

  • Fiber connector ends that are more rounded an the PC finish giving greater contact between the glass surfaces.
  • Minimizes back reflection.
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7
Q

APIPA?

A

Automatic Private IP Addressing

  • a feature of Windows-based OS that automatically assign an IP address to itself when there’s no DHCP Server available to perform that function.
  • Range: 169.254.0.1 to 169.254.255.254
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8
Q

APT?

A

Advanced Persistent Threat

  • a type of threat actor that can obtain, maintain, and diversify access to Network Systems using exploits and malware.
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9
Q

ARP?

A

Address Resolution Protocol

  • for mapping a dynamic IP address to a physical machine address (MAC) in a Local Area Network (LAN).
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10
Q

AUP?

A

Acceptable Use Policy

  • a document stipulating constraints and practices that a user must agree to for access to a corporate Network, the Internet, or other corporate resources
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11
Q

BGP?

A

Border Gateway Protocol

  • Standardized Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP) designed to exchange routing and reachability information among Autonomous systems (AS) on the Internet.
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12
Q

BNC?

A

British Naval Connector
Bayonet Neill–Concelman

  • connector that features two bayonet lugs on the female connector, mating is fully achieved with a quarter turn of the coupling nut.
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13
Q

BYOD?

A

Bring Your Own Device

  • lets employees use their existing portable devices at work.
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14
Q

CAM?

A

Content Addressable Memory (Table)

  • special type of computer memory used in certain very-high speed searching applications.
  • also known as associative memory or associative storage
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15
Q

CAN?

A

Campus Area Network

  • network installed in a medium-sized space spanning multiple buildings
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16
Q

CARP?

A

Common Address Redundancy Protocol

  • is an open standard that creats a redundancy group to share an IP Address
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17
Q

CDMA?

A

Code Division Multiple Access

  • early cellular telephone technology that used a spread spectrum form of transmission that was totally incompatible with GSM TDMA.
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18
Q

CIA?

A

Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability

  • 3 goals that are widely considered the foundations of the IT Security trade.
  • known as the CIA triad
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19
Q

CIDR?

A

Classless Inter-Domain Routing

  • basis of allocating and routing classless addresses, not restricting subnet masks to /8, /16, or /24, which classful addressing did.
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20
Q

CLI?

A

Command Line Interface

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21
Q

CNAME?

A

CNAME

  • A DNS record acts like an alias and holds a Frequently Qualified Domain Name (FQDN), not an IP address.
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22
Q

CoS?

A

Class of Service

  • implements packet tagging in a LAN.
  • tags the different types of traffic, such as video streaming or VoIP.
  • the tag is a value between 0 and 8, with 0 being the highest priority
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23
Q

CPU?

A

Central Processing Unit

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24
Q

CRC?

A

Cyclic Redundancy Check

  • a mathematical method used to check for errors in long streams of transmitted data with high accuracy.
  • found in the Frame Check Sequence (FCS)
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25
Q

CSMA/CA?

A

Carrier-Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance

  • Access method used only on Wireless Networks.
  • they first listen for traffic, if the transmitting host does not hear any traffic, it will transmit its frame.
  • it will then listen for an acknowledgement frame from the receiving host before it sends.
  • if the transmitting host does not hear the acknowledgement, it will wait for a randomly determined period of time and try again.
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26
Q

CSMA/CD?

A

Carrier-Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection

  • obsolete access method that Ethernet systems used in wired LAN technologies, enabling frames of data to flow through the network and ultimately reach address locations.
  • hosts first listened to hear if there was any data on the wire.
  • if there was none, the hosts sent out data.
  • if a collision occurred, then both hosts waited for a randomly determined time period before retransmitting the data.
  • Full-Duplex Ethernet made CSMA/CD obsolete.
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27
Q

CSU?

A

Channel Service Unit

  • piece of equipment that connects a T-carrier leased line from the telephone company to a customer’s equipment.
  • also known as Data Service Unit (DSU)
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28
Q

CVE?

A

Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures

  • a database that many vulnerability scanners use to find software that needs to be updated or replaced.
  • is an element of the Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP) that provides a standard nomenclature for describing security flaws or vulnerabilities.
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29
Q

CWDM?

A

Coarse Wavelength Division Multiplexing

  • relies on multiple wavelengths of light to carry a fast signal over long distances.
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30
Q

DaaS?

A

Desktop as a Service

  • cloud computing service that enables a user or organization to virtualize user workstations and manage them as flexibly as other cloud resources.
  • virtualized desktop
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31
Q

dB?

A

Decibel

  • a unit of measurement for signal loss in Networking
  • applies to both electrical signals in copper and light signals in fiber cables.
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32
Q

DDoS?

A

Distributed Denial-of-Service

  • multicomputer assault on a Network resource that attempts, with sheer overwhelming quantity of requests, to prevent regular users from receiving services (denial) from the resource.
  • can be used to crash systems
  • usually executed using botnets consisting of compromised systems referred to as zombies
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33
Q

DHCP?

A

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol

  • automatically assigns an IP address whenever a computer connects to the Network.
  • UDP Port 67 & 68
  • Dynamic/Pooled = Leased Times
  • DHCP Reservations are assigned by MAC Address through the DHCP Server
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34
Q

DLP?

A

Data Loss Prevention

  • can mean alot of things, from redundant hardware and backups, to access levels to data.
  • DLP policy takes into consideration many of these factors and helps minimize the risk of loss or theft of essential company data.
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35
Q

DNS?

A

Domain Name Service

  • resolves Frequently Qualified Domain Names (FQDN) to IP addresses
  • TCP/UDP Port 53
  • TCP = for large transfers
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36
Q

DoS?

A

Denial-of-Service

  • is a targeted attack on a server or servers that provides some form of service on the Internet with the goal of making the service unable to process any incoming requests.
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37
Q

DSL?

A

Digital Subscriber Line

  • fully digital dedicated (no phone number) connection.
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38
Q

DSU?

A

Data Service Unit

  • piece of equipment that connects a T-carrier leased line from the telephone company to a customer’s equipment.
  • also known as Channel Service Unit (CSU)
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39
Q

DWDM?

A

Dense Wavelength Division Multiplexing

  • enables an individual single-mode fiber to carry multiple signals by giving each signal a different wavelength.
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40
Q

EAP?

A

Extensible Authentication Protocol

  • developed to create a single standard to allow two devices to authenticate.

EAP-PSK (Pre-Shared Key):
- Nothing more than a shared secret code over AES encryption. Easily the most popular form of Authentication used in Wireless Networks.

EAP-TLS

  • EAP with Transport Layer Security, defines the use of a RADIUS Server as well as mutual authentication, requiring certificates on both the server and every client.
  • Very robust, but the client-side certificate requirement is an administrative challenge.
  • Only used in Wireless

EAP-TTLS
- Tunneled TLS, can use a single server-side certificate, common for more secure Wireless Networks.

EAP-MS-CHAPv2

  • Commonly known as Protected EAP (PEAP), uses a password function and is encrypted with TLS.
  • The most common implementation of EAP

EAP-MD5

  • Uses MD5 hashes for transfer of authentication credentials.
  • Weak and the least used of all the versions of EAP.

LEAP

  • Lightweight EAP
  • Used almost exclusively by Cisco wireless products.
  • Combination of MS-CHAP authentication between a Wireless Client and a RADIUS Server

EAP-FAST

  • Flexible Authentication via Secure Tunneling
  • Cisco’s replacement for LEAP.
  • All current OS support EAP-FAST with the right software installed.
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41
Q

EIA?

A

Electronic Industries Association

  • ceased operations in 2011 but groups like Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA) maintain the structured cabling standards.
  • TIA/EIA 568A (Green+White and Green in the first 2 slots.)
  • TIA/EIA 568B (Orange+White and Orange in the first 2 slots.)
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42
Q

EIGRP?

A

Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol

  • Cisco proprietary
  • has aspects of both distance vector and link state protocols, known as a Hybrid.
  • advanced distance vector protocol
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43
Q

EIRP?

A

Effective Isotropic Radiated Power

  • measures the relative signal strength coming out of a directional antenna, comparing the “strong” end signal with an omnidirectional antenna.
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44
Q

ESP?

A

Encapsulating Security Payload

  • encrypts the TCP segment, thus providing confidentiality as well as integrity and authentication.
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45
Q

EUI?

A

Extended Unique Identifier

  • Just another name for MAC Addresses.
  • Originally the IEEE called MAC Addresses MAC-48, which simply meant that the MAC Address is 48 Bits.
  • EUI is the current term for this naming/numbering space (EUI-48)
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46
Q

FCoE?

A

Fiber Channel over Ethernet

  • New development for Fiber Channel, makes Fiber more flexible within a local wired network, log-distance FC is still clumsy without expensive cabling and hardware.
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47
Q

FHRP?

A

First Hop Redundancy Protocol

  • method of ensuring high data availability by taking multiple routers and grouping them into a virtual router with a single virtual IP address that clients use as a default gateway.
  • Common FHRP Protocols: Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) and Cisco’s proprietary Hot Standby Router Protocol (HSRP) and Gateway Load Balancing Protocol (GLBP).
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48
Q

FTP?

A

File Transfer Protocol

  • TCP Port 20 = Active Mode/Data
  • TCP Port 21 = Control Process
  • SFTP = Secure File Transfer Protocol
  • TFTP = Trivial File Transfer Protocol
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49
Q

GBIC?

A

Gigabit Interface Converter

  • standard for modular ports in Gigabit Ethernet Switches and other hardware.
  • swappable modules to help convert cabling types
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50
Q

GRE?

A

Generic Routing Encapsulation

  • Cisco-developed, paired with IPsec for encryption.
  • GRE can be used to make point-to-point tunnel connections that carry all sorts of traffic over Layer 3, including multicast and IPv6 traffic.
  • multipoint GRE (mGRE) protocol for dynamically configured tunnels and tunnels to go to multiple destinations.
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51
Q

GSM?

A

Global System for Mobile Communications

  • standard developed by the European Telecommunications Standards Institute (ETSI) to describe the protocols for second-generation (2G) digital cellular networks used by mobile devices such as mobile phones and tablets.
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52
Q

HA?

A

High Availability

  • term used to describe techniques for keeping datacenter infrastructure up and running and handling potential disasters
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53
Q

HDMI?

A

High-Definition Multimedia Interface

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54
Q

HSRP?

A

Hot Standby Router Protocol

  • is a Cisco standard similar to Common Address Redundancy Protocol (CARP)
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55
Q

HTTP?

A

Hypertext Transfer Protocol

  • TCP Port 80
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56
Q

HTTPS?

A

Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (Over SSL/TLS)

  • TCP Port 443 over TLS/SSL Encryption
  • TLS = Transport Layer Security
  • SSL = Secure Socket Layer
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57
Q

HVAC?

A

Heating, Ventilation, and Air Conditioning

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58
Q

IaaS?

A

Infrastructure as a Service

  • Large-scale global infrastructure providers like AWS enable you to set up and tear down infrastructure, building blocks, On-Demand.
  • Charges what you use.
  • Bottom layer of the Service Levels cake.
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59
Q

ICMP?

A

Internet Control Message Protocol

  • works at Layer 3 (Network)
  • handles low-level housekeeping tasks such as host unreachable messages and router advertisements.
  • ping utility works by sending a single ICMP message called an echo request to an IP address you specify
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60
Q

ICS?

A

Industrial Control System

  • controls machines with sensors and actuators connected to an ICS server for the purpose of Control and Monitoring.
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61
Q

IDF?

A

Intermediate Distribution Frame

  • where all the horizontal runs from all the work areas come together.
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62
Q

IDS?

A

Intrusion Detection System

  • an application (often running on a dedicated IDS Box) that inspects packets, looking for active intrusions.
  • functions inside a network
  • knows how to find attacks that a firewall might miss, such as viruses, illegal logon attempts, and other well-known attacks.
  • can discover internal threats
  • promiscuous mode - inspects a copy of every packet on a network
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63
Q

IGMP?

A

Internet Group Management Protocol

  • enables routers to communicate with hosts and switches to determine a “group” membership
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64
Q

IMAP?

A

Internet Message Access Protocol

  • Receives Email and also has Management Features included in it.
  • TCP Port 143
  • TCP Port 993 over TLS Encryption
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65
Q

IoT?

A

Internet of Things

  • describes the huge variety of devices you can access and control via the Internet (dicounting personal computers, routers, and servers) and devices that connect directly to Internet Resources.
  • Smart Devices
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66
Q

IP?

A

Internet Protocol

  • is the primary logical addressing protocol for TCP/IP.
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67
Q

IPAM?

A

Internet Protocol (IP) Address Management

  • refers to a method of IP scanning, IP addressing tracking, and managing the information associated with a network’s Internet Protocol address space and IPAM system.
  • IPAM simplifies and automates the administration of many tasks involved in IP space management, including writing DNS records and configuring DHCP settings.
  • additional functionality, such as controlling reservations in DHCP as well as other data aggregation and reporting capability
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68
Q

IPSec?

A

Internet Protocol Security

  • an authentication and encryption protocol suite that works at the Network (Layer 3) layer of the OSI Model
  • Encryptions the IP Packet by encapsulating the inner packet.
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69
Q

IPv4?

A

Internet Protocol version 4

  • 4 values ranging from 0 to 255, separated by 3 periods.
  • each of the 4 sections are known as octets
  • 32 bit address
  • ex: 192.168.1.1
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70
Q

IPv6?

A

Internet Protocol version 6

  • Created to eventually replace IPv4
  • Solves the problem that IPv4 ran out of addresses a long time ago.
  • 128 bit address
  • uses link local addresing for communicating on local networks
  • doesn’t use octets like IPv4
  • colon separates 8 quartets or hextets.
  • hexadecimal between 0 and f
  • ex: 2001:0DB8:0000:0000:0800:200C:00CF:1234
  • Shorthand ex: 2001:DB8::800:200C:CF:1234
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71
Q

ISAKMP?

A

Internet Security Association Key Management Protocol

  • used in IPSec, which is commonly used in securing the Key Exchange during the establishment of a Client-to-Server VPN connection.
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72
Q

iSCSI?

A

Internet Small Computer System Interface

  • is built on top of TCP/IP, enabling devices that use the SCSI protocol to communicate across existing networks using cheap, readily available hardware.
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73
Q

IS-IS?

A

Intermediate System to Intermediate System

  • Intermediate System to Intermediate System is a routing protocol designed to move information efficiently within a computer network, a group of physically connected computers or similar devices.
  • It accomplishes this by determining the best route for data through a packet switching network.
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74
Q

ISP?

A

Internet Service Provider

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75
Q

LACP?

A

Link Aggregation Control Protocol

  • controls how multiple network devices send and receive data as a single connection.
  • IEEE Standard 802.3ad
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76
Q

LAN?

A

Local Area Network

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77
Q

LC?

A

Local Connector

  • LC connector
  • very popular, particularly in the US, many fiber experts consider the LC-type connector to be the predominant fiber connector.
  • “Little Connector”
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78
Q

LDAP?

A

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol

  • For accessing and maintaining distributed Directory information services over an Internet Protocol Network.
  • TCP Port 389, Standard LDAP
  • TCP Port 663 over SSL Encryption, Nonstandard LDAP
79
Q

LDAPS?

A

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol Secure

  • For accessing and maintaining distributed Directory information services over an Internet Protocol Network.
  • TCP Port 663 over SSL Encryption, Nonstandard LDAP
  • TCP Port 389, Standard LDAP
80
Q

LED?

A

Light-Emitting Diode

  • Solid-state device that emits photons at luminous freequencies when current is applied
  • Link Lights - LED Status Indicators
  • Fiber Optic Cable that uses LEDs is known as Multimode Fiber (MMF)
81
Q

LTE?

A

Long-Term Evolution

  • true 4G technology, feature speeds of up to 300 Mbps download and 75 Mbps upload.
  • use SIM cards
82
Q

MAC?

A

Media Access Control
Medium Access Control

  • 48 bit Physical Address burned into every Network Interface Card (NIC)
83
Q

MAN?

A

Metropolitan Area Network

  • multiple computers connected via cabling, radio leased phone lines, or infrared that are within the same city.
84
Q

MDF?

A

Main Distribution Frame

  • The room in a building that stores the demarc, telephone cross-connects, and LAN cross connects.
85
Q

MDI-X?

A

Medium Dependent Interface Crossover

  • the technical term for an uplink port and the auto-sensing feature of ports in modern switches
86
Q

mGRE?

A

Multipoint Generic Routing Encapsulation

  • for dynamically configured tunnels and tunnels to go to multiple destinations
87
Q

MIB?

A

Management Information Base

  • categorizes the data that can be queried and subsequently analyzed in Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
  • is a collection of definitions which define the properties of the managed object within the device to be managed (such as a router, switch, etc.).
88
Q

MIMO?

A

Multiple Input, Multiple Output

  • enables devices to make multiple simultaneous connections called streams.
  • 802.11n requires all handheld devices to use multiple antennas to implement
89
Q

MU-MIMO?

A

Multiuser-Multiple Input, Multiple Output

  • gives a Wireless Access Point (WAP) the capability to transmit to multiple users simultaneously.
  • 802.11ac uses MU-MIMO
90
Q

MOU?

A

Memorandum of Understanding

  • a document that defines an agreement between two parties in situations where a legal contract wouldn’t be appropriate.
  • defines the duties the parties commit to perform for each other and a time frame to complete.
  • common between companies that have only occasional business relations with each other.
91
Q

MPLS?

A

Multiprotocol Label Switching

  • a router feature that labels certain data to use a desired connection.
  • it works with any type of packet switching (even ethernet) to force certain types of data to use a certain path.
  • routing technique in telecommunications Networks that directs data from one node to the next based on short path labels rather than long Network Addresses, thus avoiding complex lookups in a Routing Table and speeding traffic flows.
92
Q

MTBF?

A

Mean Time Between Failure

  • the amount of time between one failure to the next
  • applies to hardware typically
  • represents the manufacturer’s best guess regarding how much time will pass between major failures
  • assumes that more than one failure will occur, which means the component will be repaired rather than replaced.
93
Q

MT-RJ?

A

Mechanical Transfer-Registered Jack

  • are always duplex, meaning both the send and receive cables are attached
  • gained popularity with Cisco and is still common
94
Q

MTTR?

A

Mean Time To Repair

  • the amount of time from failure to repair
  • includes time to replace components, repair parts, and restore the system to its fully functional state
95
Q

MTU?

A

Maximum Transmission Unit

  • specifies the largest size of a data unit in a communications protocol, such as Ethernet
96
Q

MX?

A

Mail Exchange

  • Also known as MX Record
  • determines where to send mail
97
Q

NAC?

A

Network Access Control

  • defines a newer series of protection applications that combine the features of what traditionally was done by separate applications.
  • usually prevents computers lacking anti-malware and patches from accessing the network.
  • also create policies that define what individual systems can do on the network, including network access, segregation of portions of the network, etc.
98
Q

NAS?

A

Network Attached Storage

  • dedicated file server used in many networks
  • refers to a generally much smaller dedicated network appliance with two, four, six, or eight hard disk drives configured into some sort of storage array.
99
Q

NAT?

A

Network Address Translation

  • hides the LAN side of an IP Address so it’s not broadcast on the public side of the Internet.
  • extended the useful life of IPv4 Addressing on the internet for many years.
100
Q

NDA?

A

Non-Disclosure Agreement

  • a legal document that prohibits the signer from disclosing any company secrets learned as part of his or her job.
101
Q

NFV?

A

Network Function Virtualization

  • is a network architecture, not an actual feature that you can implement.
  • the first and biggest piece of NFV architecture is the Network Function Virtualization Infrastructure (NFVI).
102
Q

NGFW?

A

Next-Generation Firewall

  • functions at multiple layers of the OSI model to tackle traffic no traditional firewall can filter alone.
103
Q

NIC?

A

Network Interface Card

104
Q

NS?

A

Name Server

  • often called DNS Servers
  • Resolvers query Name Servers with a name to get its associated IP Address
  • Name Servers hold the actual name and IP DNS records in a kind of database called a Zone.
  • Also known as NS Record
105
Q

NTP?

A

Network Time Protocol

  • Network Time synchronization between Network devices/services.
  • computers need to use the same time so services like Kerberos authentication work properly.
  • UDP Port 123
106
Q

OID?

A

Object Identifier

  • uniquely number individual data pieces within a Management Information Base (MIB)
  • All part of the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
107
Q

OSI?

A

Open Systems Interconnection

  • This is the OSI Model
  • 7 Layers
  • essential for network techs for diagnosing problems and provides common language techs use to describe specific network functions.
  1. Physical
  2. Data Link
  3. Network
  4. Transport
  5. Session
  6. Presentation
  7. Application
108
Q

OSPF?

A

Open Shortest Path First

  • is the most commonly used Interior Gateway Protocol (IGP) in the world
  • most large enterprises use OSPF on their internal networks.
  • converges dramatically faster and is much more efficient than Routing Internet Protocol (RIP).
  • Dynamic Routing Protocol
109
Q

OTDR?

A

Optical Time Domain Reflectometer

  • in FIBER - determines continuity and, if there’s a break, will tell you exactly how far down the cable to look for the break.
  • OPTICAL = Fiber
  • TDR = Time Domain Reflectometer = Copper Cable
110
Q

PaaS?

A

Platform as a Service

  • gives you some form of infrastructure, but the true purpose is in the platform it provides
  • a complete deployment and management system to handle every aspect of meeting some goal
  • Middle Service Model Cake Layer
  • Typically for developers
  • Heroku an early PaaS Provider
111
Q

PAN?

A

Personal Area Network

  • Connected Bluetooth devices create a PAN
112
Q

PAT?

A

Port Address Translation

  • uses port numbers to map traffic from specific machines in the network
113
Q

PDU?

A

Power Distribution Unit

  • rack mounted set of outlets for devices installed in the rack
114
Q

PoE?

A

Power over Ethernet

  • Usually found with Wireless Access Points (WAPs) and it means that the power for the WAP to function is provided through the same Ethernet Cable it’s connected to.
  • 802.3af was the original PoE Standard
  • 802.3at or PoE+
  • 802.3bt or PoE++ or 4PPoE
115
Q

POP3?

A

Post Office Protocol version 3

  • For Receiving Email from Email Servers
  • Plain simple Email Receiving
  • TCP Port 110
  • TCP Port 995 over TLS Encryption
116
Q

PPTP?

A

Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol

  • an obsolete method for implementing Virtual Private Networks (VPN)
  • many well known security issues
  • can use MS-CHAPv1 or MS-CHAPv2 for authentication but it’s not a safe option either.
  • PPTP is fast because it doesn’t deal with encryption
117
Q

PSK?

A

Pre-Shared Key

  • nothing more than a shared secret code that’s stored on both the Wireless Access Point and the Wireless Client, encrypted using the powerful AES encryption
  • Found in EAP-PSK and WPA2-PSK/WPA2-Personal and other encryption techniques.
118
Q

PTR?

A

Pointer Record

  • reverses the functions of A or AAAA records.
  • found only in reverse lookup zones
  • they use an IP address for their names and hold the Frequently Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) of a host at that address.
  • PTR Record, is also “a domain name pointer” or “pointer PTR”.
119
Q

QoS?

A

Quality of Servce

  • policies that prioritize traffice based on certain rules and priorities
  • these rules control how much bandwith a protocol, PC, user, VLAN, or IP address may use.
  • also uses the Class of Service (CoS) tag to determine which traffic gets priority, but QoS does NOT implement the tags.
  • Layer 3 technology
120
Q

QSFP?

A

Quad Small Form-Factor Pluggable

  • takes 4 Small Form Factor Pluggables (SFP+) transceivers and squash them into a single, wider transceiver.
121
Q

RA?

A

Router Advertisements

  • contain important information about routers available on a local network.
  • routers announce their presence peridically, but they’ll also send router advertisement in response to a router solicitation.
  • router advertisements are sent to all-nodes multicast address or, in certain circumstances, to a unicast address
  • carry not only the MAC and link-local address of the router but also information about how hosts on the network should get a global unicast address.
122
Q

RADIUS?

A

Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service

  • created to support ISPs with hundreds if not thousands of modems in hundreds of computers to connect to a single central database.
  • consists of three devices: the RADIUS Server that has access to a database of usernames and passwords, a number of Network Access Servers (NAS) that control the modems, and a group of systems that dial into the Network.
123
Q

RAID?

A

Redundant Array of Inexpensive (Independent) Disks

  • a way to create a fault-tolerant storage system.
  • has 6 levels (Level 0 - Level 5)
124
Q

RCP?

A

Remote Copy Protocol

  • command used in Unix systems to remotely copy one or more files between machines.
125
Q

RDP?

A

Remote Desktop Protocol

  • Desktop share from a Remote Location
  • TCP Port 3389
126
Q

RF?

A

Radio Frequency

  • enables special devices that use RF to communicate with each other wirelessly
  • RFID Chips/Cards
  • RFI = Radio Frequency Interference: big problem for wireless networks, slowdowns.
127
Q

RFC?

A

Request for Comment

  • used to define just about everything involving computer networking.
128
Q

RG?

A

Radio Guide

  • coax cables have RG ratings.
  • these ratings were developed to provide a quick reference for the different types of coax.
129
Q

RIP?

A

Routing Information Protocol

  • the granddaddy of all distance vector routing protocols.
  • RIP, RIPv1, RIPv2
  • RIP prevents routing loops by implementing a limit on the number of hops allowed in a path from source to destination.
  • The largest number of hops allowed for RIP is 15, which limits the size of networks that RIP can support.
  • UDP PORT/s 520 (Messages) and 521 (Updates)
130
Q

RJ?

A

Registered Jack

  • Telephones = RJ-11 Connectors
  • Current Wired Networks = RJ-45 Connectors
131
Q

RTO?

A

Recovery Time Objective

  • sets an upper limit to how long the organization can tolerate an outage before full functionality must be restored
132
Q

RTP?

A

Realtime Transfer Protocol

  • Used for Unified Communications Transport in Real Time
  • Provides for improved streaming audio/video delivery over the Internet.
  • Often used in audio/video delivery of real-time data requiring QoS and tight sequencing.
133
Q

RPO?

A

Recovery Point Objective

  • sets an upper limit to how much lost data the organization can tolerate if it must restore from a backup, effectively dictating how frequently backups must be taken.
134
Q

RSH?

A

Remote Shell

  • enables you to execute a single command on a remote machine without having to log into the remote machine.
135
Q

RSSI?

A

Received Signal Strength Indication

  • scales that show the signal between a WAP and a receiver
  • every manufacturer uses different RSSI numbers but they usually show as “how many bars” you have
136
Q

RTSP?

A

Real Time Streaming Protocol

  • is an application-level network protocol designed for multiplexing and packetizing multimedia transport streams over a suitable transport protocol.
137
Q

SaaS?

A

Software as a Service

  • sits at the top layer of the Service Model Cake, replacing applications once distributed and licensed via physical media with subscriptions to equivalent applications from online servers.
138
Q

SAN?

A

Storage Area Network

  • a network that connects individual systems to a centralized bank of mass storage
139
Q

SC?

A

Standard Connector/Subscriber Connector

  • today, it is called a Physical Contact (PC) connector.
  • these connectors replace that older flat-surface connector that left a little gap between the connection points due to imperfections in the glass.
140
Q

SCADA?

A

Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition

  • SCADA is a system that is a subset of a Industrial Control System (ICS)
  • designed for large-scale, distribution processes such as power grids, pipelines, and railroads.
  • must function with the idea that remote devices may or may not have ongoing communication with the central control.
141
Q

SCP?

A

Secure Copy Protocol

  • Securely transfering computer files between a local host and a remote host or between two remote hosts through SSH.
142
Q

SDN?

A

Software-Defined Network

  • cuts the control layer of individual devices out of the picture and lets an all knowing program
143
Q

SDWAN?

A

Software-Defined Wide Area Network

  • enables traffic over the Internet that incorporates a lot of the features of Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS), with efficient addressing and routing for alot of traffic.
  • maintains high security as well.
  • relies on virtualization technologies
144
Q

SFP?

A

Small Form-Factor Pluggable

  • hot-swappable like the Gigabit Interface Converter (GBIC) transceivers, they take up alot less space and support all the same networking standards.
145
Q

SFTP?

A

Secure File Transfer Protocol

  • Uses a SSH session to Transfer Files
  • TCP Port 22 (SSH)
146
Q

SIEM?

A

Security Information and Event Management

  • industry-standard term for monitoring and managing a network via various SIEM solutions
  • mashup of two processes: Security Event Management (SEM) and Security Information Management (SIM)
147
Q

SIP?

A

Session Initiation Protocol

  • Setup and manage Voice over IP (VoIP) sessions
  • can be used with video conf, instant messaging, file transfer, etc.
  • VoIP Signaling
  • TCP Ports 5060 & 5061
148
Q

SLA?

A

Service Level Agreement

  • a document between a Customer and a Service Provider that defines the Scope, Quality, and terms of the service to be provided.
149
Q

SLAAC?

A

Stateless Address Auto-Configuration

  • enables network clients to figure out their own address
  • used with IPv6
  • leans on the neighbor-discovery process (NDP)
150
Q

SMB?

A

Server Message Block

  • Microsoft Windows
  • File Sharing, Printer Sharing
  • Also called CIFS (Common Internet File System)
  • Direct communication over TCP without the NetBIOS Transport.
  • TCP Port 445
151
Q

SMTP?

A

Simple Mail Transfer Protocol

  • Server to Server Email Transfers
  • SENDS email
  • TCP Port 25
  • TCP Port 587 over TLS Encryption (Transport Layer Security)
152
Q

SNMP?

A

Simple Network Management Protocol

  • Gathers statistics from Network Devices
  • Version 1 = “In the Clear” = No Encryption
  • Version 2 = Still “In the Clear” = No Encryption, but allowed Bulk Transfers
  • Version 3 = Encrypted, allows Authentication, and Message Integrity
  • UDP Port 161
  • UDP Port 162 = SNMP Traps, alerts and notifications from SNMP managed Network devices.
153
Q

SOA?

A

Start of Authority

  • DNS Record Type
  • SOA Record “Marks the start of a zone of authority.”
  • Every DNS zone requires an SOA Record that defines the primary name server in charge of the zone.
154
Q

SOHO?

A

Small Office Home Office

155
Q

SOX?

A

Sarbanes-Oxley

  • Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002
  • is a law the US Congress passed on July 30th 2002 to help protect investors from fraudulent financial reporting by corporations.
  • created strict new rules for accountants, auditors, and corporate officers and imposed more stringent recordkeeping requirements.
  • also added new criminal penalties for violating securities laws.
156
Q

SQL?

A

Structured Query Language

157
Q

SRV?

A

Service Record

  • DNS Record
  • SRV Records have a different look than most other DNS records. The basic format of an SRV record = _service._proto.name
  • is specifying the location of services
158
Q

SSD?

A

Solid State Drive

159
Q

SSH?

A

Secure Shell

  • Looks and acts like Telnet, but it’s Secure
  • Encrypted Connections/Communication Sessions
  • TCP Port 22
160
Q

SSID?

A

Service Set Identifier

  • sometimes called a Network Name for Wireless Networks
  • 32 bit identification string that’s inserted into the header of each frame processed by a Wireless Access Point (WAP)
  • Every WIFI device must share the same SSID to communicate in a single network
161
Q

SSL?

A

Secure Sockets Layer

  • uses encryption to set up a secure private connection
  • requires a server with a certificate
  • when a client requests access to a SSL secured server, the server sends to the client a copy of the certificate. The client checks the certificate and if the certificate checks out, the server is authenticated and the client negotiates a symmetric-key cipher for use in the session.
162
Q

SSO?

A

Single Sign-On

163
Q

ST?

A

Straight Tip or Snap Twist

  • For fiber bayonet connectors.
  • used primarily with 2.5 mm, single-mode Fiber
  • uses a push-on, then twist-to-lock mechanical connection (stick and twist)
164
Q

STP?

A

Spanning Tree Protocol

  • eliminates the problem of accidental Switching Loops
  • using special STP frames known as Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDUs), switches communicate with other switches to prevent loops from happening
  • is a Layer 2 Protocol on the OSI Model that runs on Bridges and Switches to ensure that you do not create loops when you have REDUNDANT paths in your Network.
  • IEEE Standard 802.1D
165
Q

SYSLOG?

A

System Log

  • two most common performance monitoring tools are Windows Performance Monitor (perfmon.exe) and systelog (found in macOS and Linux.)
  • Standard for Message Logging
  • UDP Port 514
166
Q

TACACS+?

A

Terminal Access Controller Access Control System Plus

  • very similar to RADIUS in function
  • TCP Port 49 by default and separates authorization, authenitcation, and accounting into different parts.
  • uses PAP, CHAP, and MD5 but can also use Kerberos as part of the Authentication scheme.
167
Q

TCP?

A

Transmission Control Protocol

  • Connection-Oriented
  • Standard that defines how to establish and maintain a Network conversation by which applications can exchange data.
  • Transport (Layer 4) of the OSI Model
168
Q

TFTP?

A

Trivial File Transfer Protocol

  • very simple file transfer
  • no authentication
  • not used in Production Systems
  • Transferring non-mission critical stuff
  • UDP Port 69
169
Q

TIA/EIA?

A

Telecommunications Industry Association/Electronic Industries Alliance

  • defines the industry termination standard for correct crimping of four-pair Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP).
  • 2 Standards = TIA/EIA 568A & TIA/EIA 568B
  • 568A = Green in the first 2 slots.
  • 568B = Orange in the first 2 slots.
170
Q

TKIP?

A

Temporal Key Integrity Protocol

  • dynamic encryption Key Generation
  • keys are issued on a per-user and per-session basis
  • uses RC4 for cipher initialization, hence it is also known as TKIP-RC4.
  • TKIP is 128-bit encryption that seemed unbreakable when first introduced but was hacked within 4 years.
171
Q

TLS?

A

Transport Layer Security

  • the latest version of Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) encryption
  • techs use TLS and SSL terms interchangeably
  • uses encryption to set up a secure private connection
172
Q

TX/RX?

A

Transmit and Receive

  • when both ends of a ethernet cable don’t match the TIA/EIA 568A or 568B standard and they’re reversed, creating a Crossover Cable
173
Q

UDP?

A

User Datagram Protocol

  • Connection-less
  • Does not detect whether both applications have finished their back-and-fourth communication.
  • Transport (Layer 4) of the OSI Model
174
Q

UPC?

A

Ultra-Physical Contact

  • are polished extensively for a superior finish.
  • reduce signal loss significantly over PC connectors
175
Q

UPS?

A

Uninterruptible Power Supply

  • provides backup power, battery backup
  • acts as an inverter, stores power as direct current in its battery, then inverts that power to alternating current when needed
  • acts as a power monitoring tool so it can report problems when there’s any fluctuation in the electrical supply
  • can provide security from power spikes and sags
  • enable you to shut down in an orderly fashion
176
Q

URL?

A

Uniform Resource Locator

  • an address that defines the type and the location of a resource on the Internet.
177
Q

USB?

A

Universal Serial Bus

178
Q

UTP?

A

Unshielded Twisted Pair

179
Q

VIP?

A

Virtual Internet Protocol

  • addresses that clients use as a default gateway provided by a virtual router
180
Q

VLAN?

A

Virtual Local Area Network

  • a common feature among managed Switches that enables a single switch to support multiple Layer 2 Broadcast Domains and provide isolation between hosts on different VLANs.
  • critical for modern network performance and security
  • IEEE Standard 802.1Q
181
Q

VLSM?

A

Variable Length Subnet Mask

  • allows greater flexibility in the creation of Sub-Networks, overcoming strict rules of A, B, and C Classes.
  • this Subnet design uses more than one mask in the same network which means more than one mask is used for different subnets of a single class A, B, or C Network.
182
Q

VM?

A

Virtual Machine

  • a virtual computer accessed through a class of programs called a Hypervisor or Virtual Machine Monitor (VMM).
  • runs inside your actual operating system, essentially enabling you to run two or more operating systems at once
183
Q

VNC?

A

Virtual Network Computing

  • a remote access program and protocol
184
Q

VNIC?

A

Virtual Network Interface Card

  • software-based NIC that functions identically to a physical NIC and uses a software connection to pass traffic from the real NIC to the virtual one
185
Q

VoIP?

A

Voice over Internet Protocol

  • using an IP network to conduct voice calls
186
Q

VPC?

A

Virtual Private Cloud

  • the logical division of a service providers public cloud multitenant architecture to support private cloud computing.
  • enables an enterprise to achieve the benefits of private cloud - such as more granular control over virtual networks and an isolated environment for sensitive workloads - while still taking advantage of public cloud resources.
  • Features Agility, Security, Affordability, and Availability.
187
Q

VPN?

A

Virtual Private Network

  • using encrypted tunnels between a computer or a remote network and a private network through the Internet
188
Q

VRRP?

A

Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol

  • VRRP and Hot Standby Router Protocol (HSRP) are examples of active-passive high availability in that only one router is active at a time.
  • All routers are passive until the active router fails
189
Q

WAN?

A

Wide Area Network

  • a geographically dispersed network created by linking various computers and LANs over long distances, generally using leased phone lines
190
Q

WAP?

A

Wireless Access Point

  • connects wireless network nodes to wireless or wired networks
  • many WAPs are combination devices that act as high-speed hubs, switches, bridges, and routers, all rolled into one
191
Q

WDM?

A

Wavelength Division Multiplexing

  • manufacturer’s developed this technology to rely on to differentiate wave signals on a single fiber, creating single strand fiber transmission.
192
Q

WLAN?

A

Wireless Local Area Network

  • a complete wireless network infrastructure serving a single physical locale under a single administration
193
Q

WPA?

A

WIFI Protected Access

  • wireless security protocol that addresses weaknesses and acts as an upgrade to WEP.
  • offers security enhancements such as dyamic encryption key generation, an encryption key integrity check feature, user authentication through the industry standard Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP), and other advanced features that WEP lacked.
  • WPA replaced by WPA2

CompTIA Network+ N10-008 (32 decks)

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