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zPromotion Card Archive > Traing Bulletins 20-01 to 22-01 > Flashcards

Traing Bulletins 20-01 to 22-01 Flashcards

1
Q

The purpose of this Training Bulletin is to explain California _______; which became effective on January 1. 2020; and provide direction regarding police officer use of force in response to resistance and proper force documentation. (TB 20-01 I)

A

Assembly Bill 392

TB 20-01 CALIFORNIA ASSEMBLY BILL 392

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2
Q

The bill amends California Penal Code sections ________ and ________; which address the use of force by peace officers in California. The bill states that deadly force is justified when the officer reasonably believes; based on the totality of the circumstances; that deadly force is necessary to defend against an imminent threat of death or great bodily injury to the officer or to another person; or to apprehend a fleeing person for a felony that threatened or resulted in death or serious bodily injury; if the officer reasonably believes that person will cause death or serious bodily injury to another unless that person is immediately apprehended. (TB 20-01 II)

A
  1. 835a
  2. 196

TB 20-01 CALIFORNIA ASSEMBLY BILL 392

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3
Q

_______ is defined as: Is about to occur or take place very soon. When based on the totality of the circumstances; a reasonable officer in the same situation would believe that a person has the present ability; opportunity; and apparent intent to immediately cause death or serious bodily injury to the peace officer or another person. An imminent harm is not merely a fear of future harm; no matter how great the fear and no matter how great the likelihood of the harm; but is one that; from appearances; must be instantly confronted and addressed. (TB 20-01 III)

A

Imminent

TB 20-01 CALIFORNIA ASSEMBLY BILL 392

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4
Q

_______ is defined as: All facts known to the peace officer at the time; including the conduct of the officer and the subject leading up to the use of deadly force. (TB 20-01 III)

A

Totality of the Circumstances

TB 20-01 CALIFORNIA ASSEMBLY BILL 392

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5
Q

Penal Code Section 835a(a)(1) was amended to the following: The Legislature further finds and declares that every person has a right to be free from _______ by officers acting under _______. (TB 20-01 IV)

A
  1. excessive use of force
  2. color of law

TB 20-01 CALIFORNIA ASSEMBLY BILL 392

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6
Q

Penal Code Section 835a(a)(2) was amended to the following: As set forth below; it is the intent of the Legislature that peace officers use deadly force only when necessary in defense of human life. In determining whether deadly force is _______; officers shall evaluate each situation in light of the particular circumstances of each case and shall use other ________ if reasonably safe and feasible to an objectively reasonable officer. (TB 20-01 IV)

A
  1. necessary
  2. available resources and techniques

TB 20-01 CALIFORNIA ASSEMBLY BILL 392

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7
Q

Penal Code Section 835a(a)(2) was amended to the following: As set forth below; it is the intent of the Legislature that peace officers use deadly force only when necessary in defense of human life. In determining whether deadly force is _______; officers shall evaluate each situation in light of the particular circumstances of each case and shall use other _______ if reasonably safe and feasible to an objectively reasonable officer. (TB 20-01 IV)

A
  1. necessary
  2. available resources and techniques

TB 20-01 CALIFORNIA ASSEMBLY BILL 392

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8
Q

Penal Code Section 835a(a)(5) was amended to the following: It is estimated that individuals with disabilities are involved in between ________ and ________of all fatal encounters with law enforcement. (TB 20-01 IV)

A
  1. one-third
  2. one-half

TB 20-01 CALIFORNIA ASSEMBLY BILL 392

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9
Q

Penal Code Section 835a(B)(2) was amended to the following: A peace officer shall not use deadly force against a person based on the danger that person poses to_________; if an objectively reasonable officer would believe the person does not pose an imminent threat of death or serious bodily injury to _______. (TB 20-01 IV)

A
  1. themselves
  2. the peace officer or to another person

TB 20-01 CALIFORNIA ASSEMBLY BILL 392

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10
Q

_______ and _______ will be weighed and considered heavily in all aspects of deadly force cases.(TB 20-01 V)

A
  1. Pre-planning
  2. de-escalation

TB 20-01 CALIFORNIA ASSEMBLY BILL 392

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11
Q

The San Diego Police Department contracts with the _______ of the San Diego County Sheriff’s Department to conduct property/firearms follow-up for persons taken for 5150 W&I evaluations. (TB 20-02 II)

A
  1. Property Investigations Unit (PIU)

TB 20-02 COUNTY OF SAN DIEGO – LAW ENFORCEMENT TRANSPORT SHEET

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12
Q

The Racial and Identity Profiling Act (RIPA) requires the collection and submission of data to the Attorney General and is mandated for the following: ALL ____________; ____________ ; _____________ ; ______________ ; ____________. (TB 20-03 I)

A
  1. stops
  2. detentions
  3. searches
  4. including consensual searches
  5. along with interactions that result in force being used

TB 20-03 RIPA DATA COLLECTION UPDATE

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13
Q

Effective July 1. 2018. the _______; otherwise known as “RIPA” or _______; required all sworn members of the Department to collect data mandated under the law’s provisions. (TB 20-03 III)

A
  1. Racial and Identity Profiling Act of 2015
  2. AB 953

TB 20-03 RIPA DATA COLLECTION UPDATE

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14
Q

Senate Bill 22 was approved by the Governor on October 8. 2019; and became effective on January 1. 2020. The bill modifies Penal Code sections 680; 680.3 and 13823.14; known in California as the _______. (TB 20-06 I)

A

“Sexual Assault Victims’ DNA Bill of Rights.”

TB 20-06 SEXUAL ASSAULT EVIDENCE KIT TESTING (Commonly known as SART Kits) – Penal Code 680

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15
Q

(1) A law enforcement agency shall do one of the following for any sexual assault forensic evidence received by the law enforcement agency on or after January 1. 2016: (A) Submit sexual assault forensic evidence to the crime lab within _______ after it is booked into evidence. (B) Ensure that a rapid turnaround DNA program is in place to submit forensic evidence collected from the victim of a sexual assault directly from the medical facility where the victim is examined to the crime lab within _______ after the evidence is obtained from the victim. (TB 20-06 I)

A
  1. 20 days
  2. five (5) days

TB 20-06 SEXUAL ASSAULT EVIDENCE KIT TESTING (Commonly known as SART Kits) – Penal Code 680

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16
Q

(2) The crime lab shall do one of the following for any sexual assault forensic evidence received by the crime lab on or after January 1. 2016:(A) Process sexual assault forensic evidence; create DNA profiles when able; and upload qualifying DNA profiles into CODIS as soon as practically possible; but no later than _______ after initially receiving the evidence.(B) Transmit the sexual assault forensic evidence to another crime lab as soon as practically possible; but no later than _______ after initially receiving the evidence; for processing of the evidence for the presence of DNA. If a DNA profile is created; the transmitting crime lab shall upload the profile into CODIS as soon as practically possible; but no longer than _______ after being notified about the presence of DNA. (Emphasis added). (TB 20-06 I)

A
  1. 120 days
  2. 30 days
  3. 30 days

TB 20-06 SEXUAL ASSAULT EVIDENCE KIT TESTING (Commonly known as SART Kits) – Penal Code 680

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17
Q

If the crime case did not result in the collection of a SART kit; but there was any other sexual assault forensic evidence collected; a representative sample item _______ be submitted to the crime laboratory within _______ of it being booked into evidence in an effort to detect the foreign DNA of the perpetrator. (TB 20-06 IIC)

A
  1. SHALL
  2. 20 days

TB 20-06 SEXUAL ASSAULT EVIDENCE KIT TESTING (Commonly known as SART Kits) – Penal Code 680

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18
Q

Regarding the Isaiah Project; Inc. v. City of San Diego: Abatements will not be conducted between _______ and _______. (TB 20-08 IIA2)

A
  1. 9:00 p.m.
  2. 5:30 a.m.

TB 20-08 ABATEMENT OPERATIONS

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19
Q

Regarding the Isaiah Project; Inc. v. City of San Diego: ESD will post notices in the area to be abated from a minimum of _______; or at least _______ in advance if storage space is not available; prior to the beginning of the abatement process so that individuals may remove their belongings. (TB 20-08 IIB2)

A
  1. 3 hours
  2. 72 hours

TB 20-08 ABATEMENT OPERATIONS

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20
Q

When assisting ESD during a waste abatement involving homeless personal property if the structure or tent is closed; and the officers are unable to clearly determine whether the structure is occupied; the officers shall do the following:(TB 20-08 IIIC4)

A
  1. call out to the potential occupants; identify themselves as San Diego Police Officers; and announce their purpose.
  2. If no response after identifying and announcing their purpose; the officers shall open the structure or tent; announcing themselves as San Diego Police Officers while doing so.
  3. The officers will visually inspect the interior of the structure or tent for occupants.
  4. When the officers conclude the structure or tent is unoccupied; they will inform ESD personnel.

TB 20-08 ABATEMENT OPERATIONS

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21
Q

In January 2020; _______ of the Field Interviews were received via hard copy; _______ came from NetRMS and _______ came from the mobile application. (TB 20-09 II)

A
  1. 50%
  2. 26%
  3. 24%

TB 20-09 USE OF ARJIS EQUERY FOR LOCATING FIELD INTERVIEWS

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22
Q

All events must be cleared with a final disposition code. If it is determined the alarm activation occurred for some reason other than an emergency situation; the event should be cleared with a “_______;” indicating the report was unfounded. This includes; but is not limited to; alarm operator error; employees or vendors without the proper code; faulty equipment; wandering pets; and air blowing from open windows or heating/air conditioning systems. (TB 20-10 IIIID)

A

U

TB 20-10 RESPONDING TO RESIDENTIAL AND COMMERCIAL BURGLARY ALARMS

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23
Q

For the first through _______ false alarms in a _______ period; a notice of violation will be issued and a fine will be assessed. For the _______ false alarm; the alarm system permit will be revoked. (TB 20-10 V)

A

a. fifth
b. twelve-month
c. sixth

TB 20-10 RESPONDING TO RESIDENTIAL AND COMMERCIAL BURGLARY ALARMS

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24
Q

California Penal Code Section 1534 requires a search warrant to be executed within _______ after the date of issuance. A search warrant is required prior to examination of mobile devices such as cell phones and tablets. In order to provide the crime laboratory with sufficient time to initiate examination of mobile devices; all search warrants must be submitted immediately after they are obtained; along with the lab request submitted through LabLynx. (TB 20-11 III)

A

10 days

TB 20-11 FORENSIC EXAMINATION REQUIRMENTS FOR MOBILE DEVICES

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25
Q

On vehicles equipped with the standard three point belt; once the three point belt has been placed on the suspect; what should the officer do next? (TB 20-14 IIIA1)

A

The officer shall then pull the shoulder portion of the belt out until it is fully extended.
The officer should hear a “click” from the seatbelt retractor.
The shoulder portion will then be allowed to retract across the suspect’s chest until there is no slack and it will not loosen; preventing excessive movement by the suspect.
Any seatbelt not in use shall be latched and stored in the same manner; preventing the unused seatbelt from extending.

TB 20-14 SEATBELT RESPONSIBILITY OF TRANSPORTING OFFICERS

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26
Q

Senate Bill 203; effective _______; changed the age requirement for the pre-Miranda counseling procedures for juveniles. (TB 20-15 II)

A
  1. January 1. 2021

TB 20-15 JUVENILE PRE-MIRANDA COUNSELING PROCEDURES

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27
Q

What objective factors should be considered when determining when a juvenile is in police custody? (TB 20-15 II)

A
  1. Handcuffs/in the back seat of a patrol vehicle.
  2. Heightened police presence and pressure.
  3. Length of the detention.

TB 20-15 JUVENILE PRE-MIRANDA COUNSELING PROCEDURES

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28
Q

Effective January 1. 2021. Welfare and Institutions Code section 625.6. requires that _______ to a custodial interrogation; and ________ the waiver of Miranda rights; a youth _______ shall consult with legal counsel in person; by phone or video conference. The consultation _______ be waived. (TB 20-15 II)

A
  1. PRIOR
  2. BEFORE
  3. 17 years of age or younger
  4. cannot

TB 20-15 JUVENILE PRE-MIRANDA COUNSELING PROCEDURES

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29
Q

If the officer _______ to question a juvenile in custody; the officer will _______ read the juvenile the Miranda Admonishment statement; as required by Welfare and Institutions Code section 625; and Department Procedure 3.08. (TB 20-15 IIIA2)

A
  1. DOES NOT intend
  2. ONLY

TB 20-15 JUVENILE PRE-MIRANDA COUNSELING PROCEDURES

30
Q

Under the imminent public safety exception; Department members may bypass the pre-Miranda counseling only if BOTH of the following criteria are met: (TB 20-15 IIIBa)

A
  1. The officer who questioned the juvenile reasonably believed the information he or she sought was necessary to protect life or property from an imminent threat.
  2. The officer’s questions were limited to those questions that were reasonably necessary to obtain that information.

TB 20-15 JUVENILE PRE-MIRANDA COUNSELING PROCEDURES

31
Q

Conversations between a juvenile and an attorney from the Public Defender’s Office; or any attorney; for the purposes of meeting the SB 203 requirements; are attorney-client privileged; and; as such; are considered confidential communication. These conversations; whether in _______; _______; or _______; shall not be audibly monitored or recorded in any manner. (TB 20-15 IIIC)

A
  1. person
  2. by telephone
  3. by video conference

TB 20-15 JUVENILE PRE-MIRANDA COUNSELING PROCEDURES

32
Q

The Panasonic CF-33; CF-20; FZ-M1; and Havis vehicle docking stations are leased through Panasonic for a _______ term. At the end of the lease; all equipment must be returned to Panasonic in working order. If there is missing or damaged equipment; the Department will have to absorb the cost. (TB 21-01 II)

A

Three-year

TB 21-01 PANASONIC CF-33 VEHICLE DOCKING AND NETWORK CART STORING

33
Q

If the victim answers yes to any of the first _______ questions; the vehicle _______ be considered stolen. The investigating officer must contact their _______for guidance. (TB 21-02 III)

A
  1. four
  2. may not
  3. respective divisional auto theft detective or area investigative unit supervisor

TB 21-02 USE OF THE NEW STANDARDIZED AUTO THEFT REPORTINGADDENDUM

34
Q

When the vehicle is recovered; Teletype will include as part of its message in the Stolen Vehicle System that the on-call _______ is to be notified. (TB 21-03 IIIB)

A

Robbery sergeant

TB 21-03 REPORTING OF CARJACKING

35
Q

Effective July 1. 2021. any inquiry for information; other than criminal history information; submitted through CLETS shall include _______. (TB 21-04 II)

A

A reason for the initiation of the inquiry

TB 21-04 CALIFORNIA ASSEMBLY BILL 1747 (GOVERNMENT CODE 15160)

36
Q

To comply with the new requirement; beginning on July 1. 2021; users shall select the code that accurately reflects the reason for the inquiry for every transaction submitted to CLETS:____ = Criminal Justice____ = Immigration Enforcement____ = Investigate Violations of Title 8. section 1325 of the United States Code (TB 21-04 III)

A
  1. C
  2. I
  3. U

TB 21-04 CALIFORNIA ASSEMBLY BILL 1747 (GOVERNMENT CODE 15160)

37
Q

In accordance with DP 1.26. Access and Release of Criminal Records; and DP 6.18. Adult Undocumented Persons; inquiries shall be restricted to criminal justice purposes. Queries _______ be initiated for immigration enforcement or to investigate violations of Title 8. section 1325 of the United States Code. (TB 21-04 III)

A

shall not

TB 21-04 CALIFORNIA ASSEMBLY BILL 1747 (GOVERNMENT CODE 15160)

38
Q

When a person responds in the affirmative to an officer’s request for permission to search; specifically any word(s) that reasonably indicates the person is agreeing to the specific request. _______ may be verbal or written. (TB 21-05 IVA)

A

Expressed Consent

TB 21-05 CONSENT SEARCHES

39
Q

When a person’s actions or responses effectively communicate permission to search; for example an individual handing an officer his or her car keys after the officer requests to search the vehicle. A failure to object to a search or a request to search does not constitute _______. (TB 21-05 IVB)

A

Implied Consent

TB 21-05 CONSENT SEARCHES

40
Q

LEGAL PARAMETERS OF A CONSENT SEARCH Consensual searches involve the following legal concepts: (TB 21-05 V)

A
  1. Consent must be given; either expressly or impliedly; by the subject.
  2. Consent must be given freely and voluntarily.
  3. Scope of consent.
  4. Intensity of search.
  5. Duration of the search

TB 21-05 CONSENT SEARCHES

41
Q

When obtaining verbal consent from a person to search; the entire interaction _______ be captured on Body Worn Cameras (BWC). (TB 21-05 VIA1)

A

shall

TB 21-05 CONSENT SEARCHES

42
Q

If a person’s actions indicate implied consent; the officer shall do the following: (TB 21-05 VIA3)

A

confirm the consent verbally and ensure the confirmation is captured on BWC.

TB 21-05 CONSENT SEARCHES

43
Q

private citizens who conduct undercover online operations intended to “catch” potential predators who target minors to entice them to illegal sex acts are defined as what? (TB 21-06 I)

A

Cyber-vigilantes

TB 21-06 RESPONSE TO CYBER-VIGILANTES

44
Q

If the alleged cyber-vigilante suspect IS present with the reporting party what following steps should the responding officer complete. (TB 21-06 IV1)

A
  1. Complete a miscellaneous report.
  2. If PC exists; seize any and all devices used by both the alleged suspect and the reporting party as evidence. Do not search the contents of the devices.
  3. DO NOT make a probable cause arrest.
  4. Advise the reporting party that law enforcement does not condone cyber- vigilantism.

TB 21-06 RESPONSE TO CYBER-VIGILANTES

45
Q

If the collision is preventable; the _______ will determine the category of the collision. (Category 1; 2; 3; or 4) (TB 21-07 IV)

A
  1. Fleet Safety Sergeant

TB 21-07 IMPLEMENTATION OF THE NEW ADMINISTRATION REGULATION 75.12 AND DISCIPLINE MATRIX

46
Q

The New Discipline Matrix for Public Safety Departments for vehicle collisions will include preventable collisions occurring in the last continuous _______period (LC**P) a change from the previous ________ period. (TB 21-07 IV)

A
  1. five-year
  2. three-year

TB 21-07 IMPLEMENTATION OF THE NEW ADMINISTRATION REGULATION 75.12 AND DISCIPLINE MATRIX

47
Q

If the employee disagrees with the initial finding and intends to file an appeal; all disciplinary action shall be stayed until the completion of the employee appeal process. The employee shall submit a written appeal to the designated Traffic Division Lieutenant within _______ days from the date he or she was served with the CD-1555. (TB 21-07 IVA1)

A

15 calendar

TB 21-07 IMPLEMENTATION OF THE NEW ADMINISTRATION REGULATION 75.12 AND DISCIPLINE MATRIX

48
Q

The Traffic Lieutenant will complete a report of the finding and forward it to the employee via the chain of command within _______ of the date received. (TB 21-07 IVA1)

A

30 days

TB 21-07 IMPLEMENTATION OF THE NEW ADMINISTRATION REGULATION 75.12 AND DISCIPLINE MATRIX

49
Q

If the employee disagrees with the Lieutenant’s decision; the employee must request; in writing; a hearing and review of the collision by the Collision Review Committee (CRC). This request must be made within _______ days of the receipt of the Lieutenant’s report and should be made through the _______. The CRC is an evidentiary hearing. (TB 21-07 IVA2)

A
  1. 15 calendar
  2. Fleet Safety Sergeant

TB 21-07 IMPLEMENTATION OF THE NEW ADMINISTRATION REGULATION 75.12 AND DISCIPLINE MATRIX

50
Q

The Collision Review Committee (CRC) will consist of: (TB 21-07 IVA3)

A
  1. Assistant Chief over Traffic Division (CRC chairperson)
  2. Captain over Traffic Division
  3. Emergency Vehicle Operations Center (EVOC) Core Instructor.

TB 21-07 IMPLEMENTATION OF THE NEW ADMINISTRATION REGULATION 75.12 AND DISCIPLINE MATRIX

51
Q

Prior to this change; the Crime Lab required _______ any evidence in which the evidence item itself may be completely utilized during lab processing; preventing further testing of that item in the future. (TB 21-09 III)

A

“permission to consume”

TB 21-09 LABORATORY CONSUMPTION GUIDELINES

52
Q

Consumption is defined as: (TB 21-09 IV)

A

Any evidence in which the evidence item itself may be completely utilized during lab processing; preventing further testing of that item in the future.

TB 21-09 LABORATORY CONSUMPTION GUIDELINES

53
Q

Effective Monday December 20th. 2021; the SDPD Crime Lab will _______ to consume items of evidence from investigative units; alleviating this process for both the Crime Lab and investigative units. Instead; if no prosecuting attorney is assigned; permission to consume items of evidence will be assumed when a work request is received by the lab. (TB 21-09 V)

A

no longer seek permission

TB 21-09 LABORATORY CONSUMPTION GUIDELINES

54
Q

Journalists and News Media: refers to a duly authorized representative of any _______. (TB 21-10 IV)

A
  1. news service
  2. online news service
  3. newspaper
  4. radio
  5. television station
  6. network

TB 21-10 IMPLEMENTATION OF SENATE BILL 98 RELATING TO MEDIA RELATIONS AT FIRST AMENDMENT ACTIVITIES

55
Q

A duly authorized representative of any news service; online news service; newspaper; or radio or television station or network _______enter the closed areas described in this section. (TB 21-10 V)

A

May

TB 21-10 IMPLEMENTATION OF SENATE BILL 98 RELATING TO MEDIA RELATIONS AT FIRST AMENDMENT ACTIVITIES

56
Q

In the absence of these credentials; identification may also be determined if: (TB 21-10 VIA)

A
  1. The person is readily known as a member of a news organization
  2. Possesses substantial news equipment
  3. Letters of assignment on media letterhead
  4. Credentials from school news publications.

TB 21-10 IMPLEMENTATION OF SENATE BILL 98 RELATING TO MEDIA RELATIONS AT FIRST AMENDMENT ACTIVITIES

57
Q

A duly authorized representative detained by a peace officer is permitted to contact a _______ for the purpose of challenging the detention; unless circumstances make it impossible to do so. (TB 21-10 VIC)

A
  1. supervisory officer immediately

TB 21-10 IMPLEMENTATION OF SENATE BILL 98 RELATING TO MEDIA RELATIONS AT FIRST AMENDMENT ACTIVITIES

58
Q

If access is granted to closed areas; members of the media are not permitted _______ or _______ and interfere with police actions. These violations may be cause for removing a journalist from a closed area or charging an offense not precluded by 409.7 PC. (TB 21-10 VIE)

A
  1. entry into a command post
  2. allowed to move through police lines

TB 21-10 IMPLEMENTATION OF SENATE BILL 98 RELATING TO MEDIA RELATIONS AT FIRST AMENDMENT ACTIVITIES

59
Q

Supporters of _______ believe it will enhance the safety of persons exercising their right to assemble and protest by providing clear expectations of law enforcement regarding their use of kinetic energy projectiles and chemical agents during an assembl; protest; or demonstration. (TB 21-11 III)

A

AB 48

TB 21-11 ASSEMBLY BILL 48 - LAW ENFORCEMENT: USE OF FORCE

60
Q

AB 48 prohibits the use of kinetic energy projectiles or chemical agents solely due to a violation of _______; _______; or _______; (TB 21-11 III)

A
  1. an imposed curfew
  2. verbal threat
  3. noncompliance with a law enforcement directive

TB 21-11 ASSEMBLY BILL 48 - LAW ENFORCEMENT: USE OF FORCE

61
Q

“Kinetic energy projectiles” are defined as: (TB 21-11 IV1)

A

any type of device designed as less lethal; to be launched from any device as a projectile that may cause bodily injury through the transfer of kinetic energy and blunt force trauma. For purposes of this section; the term includes; but is not limited to; items commonly referred to as rubber bullets; plastic bullets; beanbag rounds; and foam tipped plastic rounds.

Note: SDPD currently refers to kinetic energy weapons as “Extended Range Impact Weapons (ERIW)”. SDPD Policies and Procedures that reference ERIW will be updated to replace the term with “kinetic energy weapons”; as to align with state law.

TB 21-11 ASSEMBLY BILL 48 - LAW ENFORCEMENT: USE OF FORCE

62
Q

“Chemical agents” are defined as: (TB 21-11 IV2)

A

any chemical that can rapidly produce sensory irritation or disabling physical effects in humans; which disappear within a short time following termination of exposure.The term includes; but is not limited to; chloroacetophenone tear gas; commonly known as CN tear gas; 2-chlorobenzalmalononitrile gas; commonly known as CS gas; and items commonly referred to as pepper balls; pepper spray; or oleoresin capsicum.

TB 21-11 ASSEMBLY BILL 48 - LAW ENFORCEMENT: USE OF FORCE

63
Q

Kinetic energy projectiles shall not be aimed at the _______. (TB 21-11 VB9)

A
  1. head
  2. neck
  3. any other vital organs

TB 21-11 ASSEMBLY BILL 48 - LAW ENFORCEMENT: USE OF FORCE

64
Q

The legislative intent of AB 26 is to prevent _______; _______; _______; and _______. It additionally imposes other sanctions on officers who fail to abide by the new legislation. (TB 21-12 II)

A
  1. excessive force
  2. prevent retaliation against Department members who report excessive force
  3. intervene in instances of excessive force
  4. to provide consequences for failure to intervene

TB 21-12 IMPLEMENTATION OF ASSEMBLY BILL 26

65
Q

Excessive force is defined as: (TB 21-12 IV)

A

means a level of force that is found to have violated Section 835a of the Penal Code; the requirements on the use of force required by this section; or any other law or statute.

TB 21-12 IMPLEMENTATION OF ASSEMBLY BILL 26

66
Q

Intercede is defined as: (TB 21-12 IV)

A

includes; but is not limited to; physically stopping the excessive use of force; recording the excessive force; if equipped with a body-worn camera; and documenting efforts to intervene; efforts to deescalate the offending officer’s excessive use of force; and confronting the offending officer about the excessive force during the use of force and; if the officer continues; reporting to dispatch or the watch commander on duty and stating the offending officer’s name; unit; location; time; and situation; in order to establish a duty for that officer to intervene.

TB 21-12 IMPLEMENTATION OF ASSEMBLY BILL 26

67
Q

Retaliation is defined as: (TB 21-12 IV)

A

demotion; failure to promote to a higher position when warranted by merit; denial of access to training and professional development opportunities; denial of access to resources necessary for an officer to properly perform their duties; or intimidation; harassment; or the threat of injury while on duty or off duty.

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68
Q

The supervisor shall follow-up with the employee in _______ to ensure no retaliation has taken place against the reporting or intervening Department member(s). (TB 21-12 VB1)

A

30 days

TB 21-12 IMPLEMENTATION OF ASSEMBLY BILL 26

69
Q

AB 26 additionally requires agencies establish procedures to prohibit an officer from training other officers for a period of at least _______ from the date that an abuse of force complaint against the officer is _______. (TB 21-12 IVCi.)

A
  1. three years
  2. substantiated

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70
Q

After all appeals related to the findings and any related discipline have been exhausted; or the sworn Department member accepts the findings and discipline and declines further proceedings; the sworn Department member shall be issued a _______. Government Code Section 7286 does not permit any _______of the training suspension. (TB 21-12 VCiv)

A
  1. written notice of suspension of their training authority
  2. appeal

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