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chief of the guard (msron) > Chief of the Guard Test > Flashcards

Chief of the Guard Test Flashcards

1
Q

Definition of Deadly Force?

A

Force that is likely to cause or that a person knows or should know should would create substantial risk of causing death or serious bodily harm or injury.

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2
Q

7 Justifications of Deadly Force

A
  1. Self defense and defense of other DOD personnel.
  2. Defense of others
  3. Protecting asserts vital to National Security.
  4. Protecting inherently dangerous property.
  5. Protecting national critical infrastructure.
  6. Performing an arrest or apprehension or preventing escape.
  7. Defending against vicious animals.
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3
Q

What is Serious Bodily Harm?

A

Bodily harm or injury that involves substantial risk of death, extreme physical pain, protracted and obvious disfigurement, or protracted loss or impairment of the function of a body member, organ, or mental facility.

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4
Q

In your own words, explain ROE?

A

To provide guidance on the inherent right and obligation of self-defense and application of force necessary for mission accomplishment.

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5
Q

T/F. Hostile Intent is defined as an attack or other use of force by a foreign force or terrorist.

A

True.

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6
Q

What is the purpose for rules of engagement?

A

To implement the inherent right of self-defense and provide guidance for the application of forces for mission accomplishment.

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7
Q

What entity promulgates the Standing Rules of Engagement?

A

CJCSI 3121.01b

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8
Q

What is a Hostile Act?

A

An attack or other use of force by a foreign force or terrorist unit against U.S. Personnel or property.

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9
Q

Who is the ultimate authority with regards the safe navigation the ship and other issues of shipboard nature?

A

Ships Master

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10
Q

EST personnel report directly to whom?

A

Mission Commander

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11
Q

Weapons release authority rest solely with?

A

Mission Commander/ATTWO

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12
Q

How many warning and queries are there?

A

1 query and 2 warnings

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13
Q

In order for a watch stander to engage a COI without weapons release authority from the ATTWO, he/she must first determine?

A

Hostile Act Only

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14
Q

Self Defense should be based off what two things?

A

Necessity and Proportionality

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15
Q

Which is not a means of achieving defense in depth?

A

Concentrating the majority of your forces at the closest point of approach.

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16
Q

What are the responsibilities of the Chief of the Guard?

A

Topside rover armed with a m4/m203 grenade launcher and flares. Responsible for the deck watches/crew served weapon watches and reports directly to the ATTWO. (Liaison between the ATTWO and ECP/Gun Mount watching standers).

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17
Q

T/F. The success against asymmetric threats depends on small unit leaders who can adapt and make sound, timely decisions in a constantly changing threat environment.

A

TRUE.

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18
Q

What is the name of the five-paragraph order that the Mission Commander/ATTWO completes prior to Embarkation of the Ship?

A

SMEAC. Situation, Mission, Execution, Administration and Logistics, and Command and Control.

19
Q

What are the underway Force Protection Conditions?

A

Operational Variant Mariner (OVM) Condition I, II, III, and IV.

20
Q

Illustrate what OVM III would look like with a 12-man team?

A

DRAW IT

21
Q

When would OVM II normally be set?

A

At Anchor.

22
Q

T/F. The purpose of warning shots is to determine hostile intent.

A

TRUE

23
Q

T/F. It is important to know max ranges and max effective for your weapons so you are able to properly engage contact with the appropriate weapons systems in order to prevent collateral damage.

A

TRUE.

24
Q

What is the criteria for the use of warning shot?

A
  1. The warning shots are fired over water to warn an approaching vessel.
  2. A clear line of fire exists.
  3. The shots are fired from a crew-served weapon or rifle.
  4. The shots are fired by personnel who are qualified and under the tactical direction of a competent authority.
  5. There are no other means reasonably available to determine the intent of the approaching craft without increasing the threat to U.S. Navy and Naval Service vessels and personnel.
25
Q

What are the three Naval Vessels Security Zones (NVPZ) for Embarked Security Teams?

A

Assessment, Warning, Threat.

26
Q

T/F. Warning shots have the ability to become destructive fire?

A

TRUE.

27
Q

What is the max frequency range of a PRC-152 Radio?

A

Line of Sight

28
Q

Signs and symptoms of a sucking chest wound include?

A

Pain at the injury site
SOB (Shortness of breath)
Moist sucking or bubbling sound coming from the wound.

All the ABOVE

29
Q

What does SITREP stand for?

A

Situation Report

30
Q

T/F. You are able to arm ship personnel with EST weapons in case the ships is under attack?

A

FALSE.

31
Q

What are the steps for COMMS intrusion?

A

“Gingerbread, Gingerbread, all stations kick to secondary channel.” Conduct authentication check with all stations.

32
Q

What does EEFI stand for?

A

Essential Elements of Friendly Information

33
Q

Identify EEFI codes 1-7 for beadwindow?

A
  1. Position
  2. Capabilities
  3. Operations
  4. Electronic
  5. Personnel
  6. Communications Security
  7. Wrong Circuit
34
Q

What is the light configuration for a Pilot Vessel?

A

1 white light over 1 red light

35
Q

Under what condition may a watch stander fire his weapon without being ordered to do so?

A

Self-Defense

36
Q

Which of the following is not a lookout item needed at an ECP?

A

Radar

37
Q

Which is not a post manned at an ECP?

A

Baggage Inspection

38
Q

T/F. Sentries play an important role in deterring a terrorist attack?

A

True.

39
Q

What documentation is required for a watch stander to carry a weapon?

A

OPNAV 5512/2 (Gun Card)

40
Q

What is the purpose of crew-served weapon overwatch?

A

Deterrence and anti-vehicle

41
Q

What are the three phases of TCCC?

A

Care Under Fire
Tactical Field Care
Tactical Evacuation Care

42
Q

Based on the FIFTH fleet AOR, complete the following by filling in the body of water, and choke point with a corresponding map.

A
43
Q

What are the distances for each Underway Security Zone?

A

Assessment - 1,000 meters to horizon
Warning - 300 - 1000
Threat - 0 - 300

44
Q

List the condition codes for M4, M9, M2HB, M240, M500, M203

A

chief of the guard (msron) (8 decks)

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