Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

List the order of RBC maturation

polychromatic normoblast
pronormoblast
BFU-E
erythrocyte
reticulocyte-BM
CFU-E
orthochromic normoblast
reticulocyte-PB
basophilic normoblast

A

BFU-E- burst forming unit- rise to large colonies
CFU-E- colony forming units- rise to smaller colonies
pronormoblasts
basophilic normoblast
polychromatic normoblast
orthochromic normoblast
reticulocyte-BM
reticulocyte-PB
Erythrocyte

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2
Q

What are the 5 rules of maturation

A

size of cell decreases
N:C ratio decreases
nuclear chromatin becomes coarser, clumped, condensed
nucleoli disappear
cytoplasm changes blue to grey blue to pink

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3
Q

How many divisions are there in the erythrocyte cell line

A

there are usually 3 or up to 5

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4
Q

How many RBCs are formed from 1 pronormoblast

A

8 to 32

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5
Q

What stages of RBC precursors are capable of division/ mitosis

A

pronormoblast to polychromatic normoblast

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6
Q

No nucleus, mostly pink but still a blue tinge, non biconcave, irregular shape, in BM for 1-2 days then in periferal blood

A

polychromatic / reticulocyte

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7
Q

No nucleus, biconcave disk, only in peripheral blood, salmon pink color

A

erythrocyte

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8
Q

What is the blue tinge in retics?

A

residual ribosomes and RNA

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9
Q

Nucleus, dark blue colors, can undergo miotsis, present only in BM

A

NRBC

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10
Q

What does EPO do?
Where is it produced
What stimulates it

A

triggers RBC production
the kidney
stimulated by hypoxia

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11
Q

what are the 3 major effects of EPO

A

allowing early release of reticulocytes from the BM
preventing apopototic cell death
reducing the time needed for cells to mature in BM

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12
Q

Intravascular vs Extravascular

A

intra-macrophage mediated- more common
extra-damage due to external factors

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13
Q

What is the purpose of the Emben Meyerhof pathway

A

glycolysis
RBC enters Glut-I-> pyruvate to pyruvic acid -> 4ATP generated per glucose mol

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14
Q

Through which transmembrane protein does glucose enter the RBC?

A

Glut I

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15
Q

What is the initial substrate of anaerobic glycolysis

A

glucose

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16
Q

What is the final products of anaerobic glycolysis

A

lactate and NAD

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17
Q

What are the 3 alternative pathways/ shunts to glycolysis

A

hexose monophosphate shunt
methemoglobin reductase pathway
rapoport leubering pathway

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18
Q

What is the action of the pentose phosphate shunt

A

Hexose monophosphate-detoxifies peroxide which arises from O2 reduction

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19
Q

What is the purpose o the hexose monophosphate pathway

A

extends life of RBCs, denatures unneeded proteins and lipids

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20
Q

How much G6P is diverted to HMP

A

5-10%

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21
Q

What is the action of the methemoglobin reductase pathway

A

methemoglobin is reduced to methemoglobin reductase

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22
Q

Explain what happens with peroxide iron in the methemoglobin reductase pathway

A

peroxide oxides heme iron from the ferrous to the ferric state

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23
Q

Explain what happens with methemoglobin in the methemoglobin reductase pathway

A

hg bound to ferric iron

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24
Q

What is the action of Rapoport leubering pathway

A

Generates 2,3 bisphosphoglycerate 2.3 BPG

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25
Q

What is the purpose Rapoport- Leubering pathway

A

enhances O2 delivery to tissues

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26
Q

Utilizes glucose-6-phosphate-dehydrogenase (G6PD)

A

Hexose monophosphate pathway

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27
Q

Hexokinase generates glucose-6-phosphate and ADP from glucose and ATP

A

Embden meyerhof

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28
Q

Generates 2,3-BPG

A

Rapaport

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29
Q

Utilizes an enzyme that reduces ferric iron to ferrous iron

A

Methemoglobin

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30
Q

Leads to an ATP deficit

A

Rapaport

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31
Q

Detoxifies peroxide

A

hexose monophosphate

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32
Q

What is the function of transmembrane proteins

A

transport sites, adhesion sites, signaling receptors

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33
Q

What are the 2 major macromolecular complexes formed by transmembrane proteins

A

Ankyrin complex
actin junctional complex

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34
Q

List the transmembrane proteins

A

aquaporin I
Band 3
Ca2+ ATPase
Duffy
Glut-I
Glycophorin A
Glycophorin B
Glycophorin C

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35
Q

Duffy

A

transmembrane

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36
Q

Glut-I

A

transmembrane

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37
Q

Glycophorin A B and C

A

transmembrane

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38
Q

Ca2+ ATPas

A

transmembrane

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39
Q

Band 3

A

transmembrane

40
Q

Aquaporin I

A

transmembrane

41
Q

What are the principal cytoskeleton proteins

A

alpha spectrin and beta spectrin

42
Q

What is the cytoskeleton morphology

A

hexagonal lattice

43
Q

What is the function of cytoskeletal proteins

A

provides lateral/ horizontal membrane stability
spectrin stability
membrane deformation

44
Q

What substances is the RBC membrane impermeable to

A

Na+, K, Ca

45
Q

What substances is the RBC membrane permeable to

A

HCO3

46
Q

What are the 2 progenitor cells from which leukocytes arise

A

CMP (CFUGEMM)
CLP

47
Q

List the order of maturation for myeloid precursors from blast to segmented neutrophil

A

myeloblast
promyelocyte
myelocyte
metamyelocyte
Band
neutrophil

48
Q

Large, slightly basophilic cytoplasm, azurophilic granules
darker chromatin, purple cytoplasm

A

myeloblasts

49
Q

largest, round to oval, paranuclear halo “hof”
cytoplasm is basophilic, azurophilic granules
chromatin is clumping, heterochromatin may be visible

A

promyelocyte

50
Q

Dawn of neutrophilia, secondary pinker granules,
primary dark purple granule eccentric nucleus, flat edge

A

myelocyte

51
Q

Kidney shape, no nucleoli, little to no basophilia, chromatin is more clumped

A

metamyelocytes

52
Q

nucleus is indented but not segmented
no basophilia, tertiary granules
highly clumped chromatin

A

band

52
Q

nucleus is indented but not segmented
no basophilia, tertiary granules
highly clumped chromatin

A

band

53
Q

2-5 nuclear lobes

A

neutrophil

54
Q

Many primary granules

A

pro

55
Q

large, visible nucleoli

A

blast

56
Q

largest cell in neutrophil maturation

A

pro

57
Q

dawn of neutrophilia

A

myelocyte

58
Q

last stage capable of mitosis. For neutrophils

A

myelo

59
Q

What is the percentage of these cells in blood
band
meta
myelo
pro
blast
neutrophil

A

band- 0-5%
meta- none
myelo- none
pro-none
blast- none
neut- 50-70%

60
Q

What is diapedesis

A

when neutrophils leave the blood and enter the tissues

61
Q

What is neutrophils lifespan when there is inflammation/ infection? When there is not?

A

-present-extended
-absent- a few hours

62
Q

What are the major functions of neutrophils

A

phagocytosis and destruction

63
Q

What are the steps of extravasation/ diapedesis
put in order and explain
aadhere
crawl
roll
active
transmigration

A

chemotactic agents bind to neutrophil
neutrophil rolls along endothelial cells
adhesive mols adhere to endothelial cells
active crawling toward site of migration
transmigration between endothelial cells

64
Q

What are the steps of phagocytosis
put in order and explain
attachment
kill
recognition
digest

A

recognition
attachment
kill
digest

65
Q

bilobed nucleus, refractile orange red secondary granules

A

eosinophil

66
Q

What is the normal percentage of eosinophils in the blood

A

1-3%

67
Q

blue-black secondary granules, slightly condensed chromatin, blue cytoplasm,

A

basophils

68
Q

How many basophils are normally in peripheral blood

A

0-2%

69
Q

largest normal WBC, ground glass
indented nucleus
vacuoles

A

macrophage

70
Q

What is the normal amount of monocytes in peripheral blood

A

2-11%

71
Q

What type of immunity do
B
T and NK cells give

A

B-humoral
T and NK cellular

72
Q

What is the normal amount of lymphs in blood

A

18-42%

73
Q

What do B lymphs turn into?
What do basophils turn into
What do T cells turn into

A

B- plasma cell
basophil- mast cell
T-CD4 or CD8, memory

74
Q

Where does antigen independent lymphoid development occur
and dependent

A

independent primary organs
dependant- secondary

75
Q

What causes reactive atypical lymphs

A

viral infections

76
Q

What is the function of B lymphs
T lymphs
NK cells

A

B- antibody production
T- pathogen response
NK- virus and cancer infected cells

77
Q

small, chromatin arranged in blocks, nucleolus very rare

A

lymphs

78
Q

List the order of maturation for platelets

A

BFU-Meg
CFU-Meg
LD-CFU-Meg
endomitosis
MK-I megakaryoblast
MK-II promegakaryocyte
MK-III megakaryocyte

79
Q

What is endomitosis? Which cell can do this

A

mitosis without telophase an cytokenesis (separation into daughter cells)
multiple DNA copies synthesize cytoplasm, differentiates into platelets

LD-CFU-Meg

80
Q

Describe MK I

A

megakaryoblast
blebs
alpha granules
demarcation system (delineates platelets during thrombopoiesis)

81
Q

Describe MK II

A

promegakaryocytes
lobular nuclei, indentation
reaches full ploidy

82
Q

Describe MK III

A

very large
intensely lobulated
this is where thrombopoiesis occurs
azurophilic cytoplasm- lavender color

83
Q

What are the steps of platelet shedding

A

DMS dilates -> bundles of tubules -> proplatelet process develop -> processes pierce through between endothelial cells into the venous blood -> transverse constrictions appear through processes -> platelets are broken off / shed

84
Q

Put the steps in order
processes pierce through between endothelial cells into the venous blood
platelets are broken off / shed
proplatelet process develop
transverse constrictions appear through processes
DMS dilates
bundles of tubules form

A

DMS dilates -> bundles of tubules -> proplatelet process develop -> processes pierce through between endothelial cells into the venous blood -> transverse constrictions appear through processes -> platelets are broken off / shed

85
Q

What is TPO and where is it produced

A

in the liver
hormone that stimulates platelet differentiation

86
Q

Acts with TPO to induce early differentiation of stem cells

A

IL-3

87
Q

Act with TPO to enhance endomitosis, megakaryocyte maturation, and thrombocytopoiesis

A

IL-6
IL-11

88
Q

Other cytokines and hormones that work with TPO

A

Stem cell factor (kit ligand)
GM-CSF
G-CSF

89
Q

Cytokines and hormones that INHIBIT megakaryocyte growth

A

Platelet factor 4 (PF4)
β-thromboglobulin
Neutrophil activating peptide 2
IL-8

90
Q

What are reticulated platelets

A

stress platelets appear to compensate for thrombocytopenia

91
Q

circular to irregular, lavender and granular, clear or slightly blue-grey cytoplasm, biconvex

A

platelet

92
Q

Outer layer plasma phospholipids

A

phosphatidycholine
sphingomyelin

93
Q

Innter cytoplasm layer phospholipids

A

phosphatidylinositol
phosphatidylethanolamine
phosphatidylserine

94
Q

What are the 3 steps of platelet activation

A

adhesion
aggregation
secretion