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YR5 Specialties > Paediatric RESP > Flashcards

Paediatric RESP Flashcards

1
Q

What is the proper medical name for croup?

A

Viral laryngotracheobronchitis

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2
Q

At what point of the year is croup most common?

A

Autumn

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3
Q

What age group is affected by croup?

A

6m to 3y, peak 2y

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4
Q

What is the main cause of croup?

A

Parainfluenza

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5
Q

Recall 3 differentials for croup

A

Laryngomalacia
Acute epiglottitis
Inhaled foreign body

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6
Q

Recall the signs and symptoms of croup

A

1st = coryzal Sx
2nd = barking cough (from vocal cord impairment) + stridor

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7
Q

What investigations should be done for croup?

A

Clinical diagnosis
DO NOT EXAMINE THROAT

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8
Q

What additional features differentiate moderate from mild croup?

A

Stridor
Sternal/ intercostal recession at rest

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9
Q

How should croup be managed?

A

Westley score determines admission

Admit if RR>60, or complications

DEXAMETHOSONE TO ALL

For mild: discharge
For moderate: admit
For severe: admit and add nebulised adrenaline to dex
For impending respiratory failure: same as severe

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10
Q

What are the parameters of the Westley croup score?

A

Level of consciousness (5)
Cyanosis (5)
Stridor (2)
Air entry (2)
Retractions (3)

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11
Q

If a CXR is performed in croup, what signs are seen?

A

PA: subglottic narrowing- “steeple sign”

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12
Q

What is the most likely complication of croup?

A

Secondary bacterial superinfection

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13
Q

Give 2 symptoms/ signs of inhaled foreign body

A

Acute onset breathlessness
Focal wheeze

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14
Q

What may be seen on CXR if there is inhalation of a foreign body?

A

NORMAL: majority of FBs are radiolucent
Increased volume + translucency of affected lung (FB creates a valve- air can only enter)

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15
Q

What is the definitive investigation and management for an inhaled foreign body?

A

Bronchoscopy

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16
Q

What is the most common cause of acute epiglottitis?

A

Haemophilus influenza B (bacteria!!!!) hence is quite uncommon as vaccinated against

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17
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of acute epiglottitis?

A

Medical emergency
No cough as in croup
High-fever (‘toxic-looking’)
Stridor is soft inspiratory with high RR
“Hot potato” speech
DROOLING as child cannot swallow
Immobile, upright + open mouth: ‘tripod sign’

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18
Q

What sign would be seen on a lateral CXR in acute epiglottitis?

A

Swelling of epiglottis: Thumb sign

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19
Q

How should acute epiglottitis be investigated and managed?

A

Do not lie child down or examine their throat (may precipitate a total obstruction)

  1. Immediately refer to ENT, paeds + anaesthetics –> transfer + secure airway
  2. Once airway is secured, blood culture, empirical Abx (cefuroxime) + dexamethosone
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20
Q

In what age range is bronchiolitis seen?

A

1-9 months
3-6 month peak

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21
Q

What is the most common cause of bronchiolitis?

A

RSV in 80%

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22
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of bronchiolitis?

A

1st URTI sx: cough, rhinorrhoea, low fever
2nd = dry, wheezy cough, SOB, grunting, feeding difficulties

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23
Q

Give 3 key features of bronchiolitis

A

persistent cough
+
tachypnoea or chest recession (or both) +
wheeze or crackles on auscultation (or both).

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24
Q

What are the examianation findings in bronchiolitis?

A

To distinguish from croup/ other ‘itis’
Auscultate: fine, bi-basal, end-inspiratory crackles

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25
Q

When should pneumonia be suspected as a differential from bronchiolitis?

A

high fever (>39°C)
+/or
persistently focal crackles.

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26
Q

What investigations should be done in bronchiolitis?

A

Cinical dx but can do an NPA to confirm
If there is significant respiratory distress + fever, do a CXR to R/O pneumonia

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27
Q

What prompts immediate referral (999) in bronchiolitis? (5)

A

Apnoea

Looks seriously unwell to HCP

Severe resp. distress: grunting, marked chest recession, or RR > 70

Central cyanosis

SpO2 <90% RA or <92% if high risk/ <6w

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28
Q

When should referral be considered in bronchiolitis? (4)

A

RR >60
Clinical dehydration
Poor oral fluid intake (50-75% normal)
SpO2 < 92% on RA

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29
Q

What factors lower threshold for admission with bronchiolitis?

A

Age <3 months
Ex-preterm
Chronic lung disease
Congenital heart disease

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30
Q

What is the management for patients admitted with bronchiolitis?

A

Supportive care:
nasal O2/ head box
NG fluids/ feeds
Suction if excess secretions
CPAP if respiratory failure

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31
Q

Over how long is bronchiolitis self-limiting?

A

3 weeks

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32
Q

Describe the ‘spectrum’ of infant asthma

A

Bronchiolitis if <1y
Viral-induced wheeze (1-5y)
Asthma (>5)

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33
Q

Describe the wheeze in asthma

A

End-expiratory polyphonic

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34
Q

When are asthma symptoms worst?

A

Night/ early morning

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35
Q

What will be seen OE in childhood asthma?

A

Hyperinflated chest + accessory muscle use
Harrisson’s sulci: depressions at base of thorax where diaphragm has grown in muscular size

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36
Q

How should childhood asthma be diagnosed?

A

<5y = clinical dx
>5y = spirometry, bronchodilator reversibility, PEFR variability (2w)

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37
Q

What spirometry value is diagnostic of asthma?

A

FEV1/FVC ratio < 70%
(or below the lower limit of normal if this value is available)

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38
Q

Recall the PEFR range of moderate, severe, and life-threatening asthma

A

Moderate: 50-75%
Severe: 33-50%
Life-threatening: <33%

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39
Q

Give 4 features of moderate asthma attack

A

Able to talk in sentences
SpO2 >92%
HR <140 (in 1-5s) or HR <125 (in 5+)
RR <40 (in 1-5s) or RR <30 (in 5+)

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40
Q

Give 5 features of severe asthma attack

A

Can’t complete sentences in 1 breath
SpO2 <92%
HR >140 (in 1-5s) or HR >125 (in 5+)
RR >40 (in 1-5s) or RR >30 (in 5+)
Accessory muscle use

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41
Q

Give 7 features of life threatening asthma attack

A

SpO2 <92%
Altered consciousness/ confusion
Exhaustion
Silent chest
Hypotension
Cyanosis
Poor respiratory effort: normal pCO2

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42
Q

When should you admit a child with asthma?

A

Moderate (not responding to Tx)
Severe
Life-threatening

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43
Q

How should severe-life threatening paediatric asthma be managed in a hospital setting?

A

High flow O2 if SpO2 <94%

  1. Burst step
    - 3 x salbutamol nebs (5mg), or up to 10 inhales on a pump
    - 2 x ipratropium bromide nebs
    (SE of too much = shivering, vomiting)

MgSO4 neb: Added to each neb in 1st hour if severe

Prednisolone PO

Involve seniors if burst therapy has failed to work

  1. IV Bolus step = 1 of the following: MgSO4, salbutamol, aminophylline
  2. Infusion step
    - IV salbutamol/ aminophylline
  3. Panic step
    - Intubate + ventillate
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44
Q

How is a mild exacerbation of asthma managed?

A

Hosp admission not required
High flow O2 if SpO2<94%
SABA via MDI + large vol spacer: 1 puff every 30-60s (up to 10 puffs)
Prednisolone PO

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45
Q

For how long after an acute exacerbation of asthma should prednisolone be taken?

A

3d (may be longer if severe)

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46
Q

What is ipratropium bromide also known as? How often can this be given?

A

Atrovent
1m-11y: 250ug every 20-30 mins for first 2h, then every 4-6h
12-17y: 500ug every 4-6h

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47
Q

When can children with exacerbation of asthma be discharged? What follow up is required?

A

Discharge when stable on 3-4h inhaled bronchodilators PEF +/or FEV1 >75% of best or predicted + SpO2 >94%.

F/U within 48h

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48
Q

Recall 4 contraindicated drugs when taking beta-agonists/ salbutamol

A

Beta-blockers
NSAIDs
Adenosine
ACE inhibitors

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49
Q

Recall outpatient management of asthma in children >5

A
  1. SABA
  2. SABA + low dose ICS
  3. SABA + ICS + LTRA
  4. SABA + ICS + LABA
  5. SABA + low dose ICS MART
  6. SABA + mod dose ICS MART / mod ICS + LABA
  7. Specialist: + increase ICS to paediatric high dose / Theophylline
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50
Q

What common SABA is used?

A

Salbutamol
(Ventolin, Blue inhaler)

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51
Q

What common low-dose ICS’s are used in >5s?

A

Beclometasone
Budesonide

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52
Q

What common LTRA is used?

A

Montelukast
(leukotriene receptor antagonist)
Chewable tablet OD, in evening

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53
Q

What common LABAs are used?

A

Salmeterol
Formoterol

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54
Q

What common MART is used?

A

Budesonide with Formoterol

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55
Q

Which 3 features indicate that a child should go straight to SABA + ICS?

A

Asthma related Sx >,3x/ week
Waking at night due to asthma
Asthma not controlled by SABA alone

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56
Q

What is the most common cause of rhinitis?

A

Rhinovirus

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57
Q

What is rhinitis more commonly known as?

A

Common cold

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58
Q

What is the general recovery time for rhinitis?

A

2 weeks

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59
Q

What are the possible complications of rhinitis?

A

Otitis media
Acute sinusitis

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60
Q

What is sinusitis?

A

Infection of the maxillary sinuses from viral URTIs
May lead to a secondary bacterial infection

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61
Q

What are the symptoms of sinusitis?

A

Facial pain: typically frontal pressure pain which is worse on bending forward

Nasal discharge: thick + purulent, discoloured

Nasal obstruction

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62
Q

How should sinusitis be managed if symptoms lasting <10 days?

A

No Abx
Advise them that virus will take 2-3w to resolve
Paracetamol/ Ibuprofen for Sx relief

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63
Q

How should sinusitis with symptoms present for >10 days be managed?

A

High dose nasal corticosteroid for 14 days e.g. Mometasone
may improve Sx but is unlikely to reduce duration of illness
can cause systemic SEs

+/- back up prescription of Abx if Sx get considerably worse- Phenoxymethylpenicillin

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64
Q

When should a pt be admitted to hospital for sinusitis?

A

Severe systemic infection

Intraorbital/ periorbital problems (eg periorbital cellulitis, diplopia, displaced eyeball)

Intracranial complications e.g. features of meningitis

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65
Q

Why are children particularly vulnerable to otitis media?

A

Eustacian tubes are short, horizontal + function poorly

66
Q

What are the 3 most common causative organisms in otitis media?

A

H influenza
S. pneumoniae
RSV

67
Q

What investigations should be done in otitis media?

A

Temperature
Otoscopy

68
Q

What are 5 signs and symptoms of acute otitis media?

A

Otalgia +/- Tugging/ rubbing ear
Fever ~ 50% of cases
Hearing loss
Recent viral URTI Sx (e.g. coryza)
Ear discharge if TM perforates

69
Q

What would be seen on otoscopy in acute otitis media?

A

Bright red/ yellow bulging tympanic membranes
Loss of normal light reaction
Perforation +/- discharge

70
Q

Recall 3 indications for admission in acute otitis media

A

Severe systemic infection
Complications (eg meningitis, mastoiditis, facial nerve palsy)
Children <3 months with a temperature >38

71
Q

What is the advice for acute otitis media?

A

Advise usual course of AOM is ~3d (up to 1w)
Advise regular paracetamol/ ibuprofen for pain
Resolves spontaneously in most cases (no abx)

72
Q

When should abx be given in otitis media?

A

Delayed prescription if not better after 3d or significant deterioration

Immediate Abx if systemically unwell, age <2y with bilateral AOM

If there is a perforation: PO amoxicillin + review in 6w to ensure healing

73
Q

If indicated, which antibiotic should be given in AOM?

A

Amoxicillin 5-7 days

74
Q

How do antibiotics effect the course/ outcome of AOM?

A

Marginally reduce duration of pain
NO effect on risk of hearing loss

75
Q

When should an ENT referral be made following AOE?

A

Failure to respond to 2 courses Abx
Suspected glue ear
Recurrent unexplained AOM +/- complications
Craniofacial abnormalities e.g. DS

76
Q

What is another name for otitis media with effusion?

A

Glue ear

77
Q

What is glue ear?

A

Collection of fluid within middle ear space w/o signs of acute inflammation
Common following AOM

78
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of otitis media with effusion?

A

Asymptomatic apart from reduced hearing
(Can interfere with normal speech development)
+/- intermittent ear pain

79
Q

What does otoscopy show in otitis media with effusion?

A

Eardrum is dull + retracted
Air-fluid level

80
Q

How should otitis media with effusion be investigated?

A

Otoscopy
Tympanometry
Audiometry

81
Q

What is the initial management of otitis media with effusion?

A

Observe for 6-12w- spontaneous resolution in most
2 hearing tests using PTA 3/12 apart, as well as tympanometry

82
Q

What management techniques can be used for OME?

A

Autoinflation (balloon in young, valsalva manoeuvre in older)
Hearing aids (if persistent bilateral + surgery CI)

83
Q

What is the surgical management for OME?

A

Myringotomy + insertion of grommets

84
Q

When should a referral be made to ENT in otitis media with effusion?

A

If persistent past 6-12w
Immediate referral if DS or cleft palate

85
Q

What are 4 complications of acute otitis media?

A

Hearing loss (conductive + temporary).
Tympanic membrane perforation.
Labyrinthitis.
Rarely, mastoiditis, meningitis, intracranial abscess, sinus thrombosis, and facial nerve paralysis.

86
Q

What is another name for acute diffuse otitis externa?

A

Swimmer’s ear

87
Q

What is the cause of chronic otitis externa?

A

Fungal cause

88
Q

What is necrotising otitis externa?

A

Life-threatening extension into mastoid + temporal bones

89
Q

What demographic of folks are most likely to get necrotising otitis externa?

A

The elderly

90
Q

How should otitis externa be investigated?

A

If indicated: swabs + culture

91
Q

How should otitis externa be managed?

A

Topical acetic acid (only effective for 1 week)
If indicated: topical Abx (neomycin/ clioquinol)
Wicking + removal of debris

92
Q

Recall 2 indications for abx use in otitis externa?

A

Cellulitis
Cervical lymphadenopathy

93
Q

What’s the most common causative pathogen in tonsillitis? Give 3 examples from most to least common

A

Viruses:
Rhinovirus
Coronavirus
Parainfluenza virus

94
Q

What is tonsilitis?

A

Form of pharyngitis with inflammation of the tonsils + purulent exudate

95
Q

What is the most common cause of bacterial tonsilitis?

A

Group A beta-haemolytic streptococcus

96
Q

What clinical scoring tools can identify those more likely to has GAS tonsillitis, and benefit from antibiotics?

A

FeverPAIN
Centor

97
Q

What is the FeverPAIN criteria?

A

Fever (during previous 24h)

Purulence (pus on tonsils)

Attend rapidly (within 3 days after onset of Sx)

severely Inflamed tonsils

No cough or coryza (inflammation of mucus membranes in the nose)

98
Q

What is the Centor criteria?

A

Tonsillar exudate

Tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy or lymphadenitis

Hx of fever (>38 degrees)

Absence of cough

(Age 3-14)- not on all criteria

1 = no abx
2/3 = rapid strep test
4/5 = rapid strep test + Abx

99
Q

When should referral to ENT be made for patients with recurrent tonsillitis?

A

> ,7 episodes per year for 1 y
,5 per year for 2y
,3 per year for 3 y
+ for whom there is no other explanation for the recurrent Sx
For consideration of tonsillectomy

100
Q

When should you admit for tonsilitis/ pharyngitis/ laryngitis?

A

Difficulty breathing
Clinical dehydration
Peri-tonsillar abscess (quinsy) or cellulitis
Suspected rare cause (eg kawasaki/ diptheria)

101
Q

What is quinsy?

A

Peritonsillar abscess that typically develops as a complication of bacterial tonsillitis.

102
Q

Give 4 signs and symptoms of quinsy

A

Severe throat pain, which lateralises to 1 side

Deviation of the uvula to the unaffected side

Trismus (difficulty opening the mouth)

Reduced neck mobility

103
Q

What is management of Quinsy?

A

needle aspiration or incision & drainage + IV Abx

Tonsillectomy considered to prevent recurrence

104
Q

How would diptheria appear OE of the throat?

A

‘web’/ pseudomembrane at back of throat

105
Q

If bacterial tonsilitis is confirmed using rapid strep test, how should it be treated?

A

Phenoxymethylpenicillin 10 days QDS

106
Q

What tx should be avoided in tonsilitis?

A

Amoxicillin in case it’s EBV
This would result in maculopapular rash

107
Q

For how long should school be avoided in tonsilitis?

A

Unti 24h after abx have been started (in case of scarlet fever)

108
Q

What should you advise for self-tx for tonsilitis if no abx indicated?

A

Paracetamol + Ibuprofen
Adequate fluids
Lozenges

109
Q

What is the connection between tonsilitis and scarlet fever?

A

Group A Strep (s pyogenes) infection can progress from tonsilitis to scarlet fever

110
Q

What 3 initial non-specific symptoms may occur in scarlet fever?

A

Sore throat.
Fever (typically >38.3°C).
Headache, fatigue, N+V

111
Q

What are 5 signs and symptoms of scarlet fever?

A

Blanching rash on trunk, then spreads
Red, generalised, punctate, characteristic sandpaper texture
Pastia’s lines (rash prominent in skin creases)

Strawberry tongue (starts as white, then desquamates)

Cervical lymphadenopathy

Pharyngitis

Forchheimer spots: petechiae on hard + soft palate

112
Q

What investigation can be used for scarlet fever?

A

throat swab for culture of Group A streptococcus

113
Q

When are anti-strepsolysin O antibody titres measured in scarlet fever?

A

NOT useful in acute infection

May aid in dx of post infectious complications e.g. rheumatic fever, glomerulonephritis

114
Q

How should scarlet fever be managed?

A

Phenoxymethylpenicillin 10 days QDS
aka. Penicillin V
Can return to school 24h after commencing abx
Notify HPU

115
Q

What is the most common complication of scarlet fever?

A

Otitis media

116
Q

What can scarlet fever progress to?

A

Acute Rheumatic fever 1-5w after

Glomerulonephritis ~2w after

117
Q

Upon which chromosome is the cAMP-dependent Cl channel defect in cystic fibrosis?

A

Chromosome 7

118
Q

What is the incidence of cystic fibrosis in terms of number of live births?

A

1 in 2500

119
Q

Recall 3 signs and symptoms of cystic fibrosis in children?

A

Meconium ileus
Recurring chest infections
Clubbing of fingers

120
Q

When is cystic fibrosis screened for in children?

A

At birth: heel prick test

121
Q

If cystic fibrosis screening is positive, what further tests can be done?

A

Immunoreactive trypsinogen
Sweat test (abnormally high NaCl)
Genetic tests

122
Q

Recall the timeline of routine reviews in cystic fibrosis?

A

Weekly in 1st month
Every 4w in 1st year
Every 6-8w when 1-5y
Every 2-3m when 5-12yo
Then every 3-6m

123
Q

What is the main method of monitoring for cystic fibrosis?

A

Spirometry

124
Q

How frequent should physiotherapy be done for respiratory symptoms in CF?

A

twice a day

125
Q

What is used for mucolytic therapy in cystic fibrosis?

A

1st line = rhDNase
2nd line = rhDNase + hypertonic saline

126
Q

What is rhDNase?

A

Dornase alfa;
Recombinant human deoxyribonuclease

127
Q

Name a CFTR modulator used in cystic fibrosis. Which patients is this used in?

A

Orkambi (lumcaftor + ivacaftor)

Those homozygous for delta FG08 mutation

128
Q

What is the MOA of Orkambi?

A

Lumacaftor: “corrector”, increases trafficking of CFTR proteins to the outer cell membrane.
Ivacaftor: “potentiator”, increases opening of the defective channel, allowing chloride to pass through

129
Q

How should recurrent infection be managed in cystic fibrosis?

A

Prophylactic abx from dx to 3y-6y: Flucloxacillin

Azithromycin for repeated infections

130
Q

How should cystic fibrosis patients be nutritionally managed?

A

High calorie + high fat diet (150% of normal)
Fat-soluble vitamin supplementation
Pancreatic enzyme replacemet with every meal –> CREON

131
Q

How can liver problems in cystic fibrosis be managed?

A

Ursodeoxycholic acid to help bile flow

132
Q

What is laryngomalacia?

A

Congenital abnormality of larynx predisposing to supraglottic collapse during inspiration

133
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of laryngomalacia?

A

Presents in first few weeks of life
High-pitched inspiratory stridor, worse on lying flat or on exertion
Normal cry

134
Q

Give 5 signs of more severe laryngomalacia

A

Respiratory distress
Dyspnoea with intercostal / sternal recession
Feeding difficulties or episodes of suffocation/ cyanosis whilst feeding
Poor weight gain
Obstructive sleep apnoea

135
Q

What investigation can be used for severe laryngomalacia?

A

flexible endoscopy (laryngoscopy) via the nose or mouth to view the larynx + laryngeal cartilages.

136
Q

How should laryngomalacia be managed?

A

Majority (99%) self-resolve within 18-24m: reassure

If airway compromise/ feeding disrupted sufficiently to prevent normal growth: Endoscopic aryepiglottoplasty aka supraglottoplasty

137
Q

What is a breath holding attack?

A

When child cries vigorously for <15s + then becomes silent

138
Q

How should breath holding attack be managed?

A

Resolve spontaneously

139
Q

What will be heard on auscultation in pneumonia?

A

Consolidation + coarse crackles

140
Q

How should TB be investigated if there is exposure?

A

Manteaux test: if -ve excludes TB

If +ve –> IGRA test
If -ve –> prophylaxis (isoniazid)
If +ve –> tx

141
Q

Recall the treatment of TB pneumonia

A

RIPE;
Rifampicin 6m
Isoniazid 6m
Pyrazinamide 2m
Ethanbutol 2m

142
Q

How can pneumonia and bronchiolitis be differentiated clinically?

A

Bronchiolitis = fine crackles on auscultation
Pneumonia = coarse crackles

143
Q

What is the most common cause of pneumonia in children?

A

Strep. pneumoniae

144
Q

When should children with pneumonia be referred to hospital immediately? (6)

A

Persistent pO2 <92% on RA

Grunting, marked chest recession, or RR >60

Cyanosis (indicated by pale/mottled/ashen/blue skin, lips or tongue).

Auscultation: absent BS + dull percussion note raises possibility of pneumonia complicated by effusion

Child looks seriously unwell, does not wake, or if roused does not stay awake, or does not respond to normal social cues.

Temp >,38°C in a child aged ,<3 months

145
Q

When should hospital admission be considered in pneumonia?

A

Temp >,39°C in a child aged 3–6 months.

Tachycardia (>160 bpm in <1y, >150 bpm in 1-2y, >140 bpm in 2-5y).

Inadequate oral fluid intake (50–75% of usual volume).

Pallor of skin, lips or tongue reported by parent or carer.

Abnormal response to social cues.
Waking only with prolonged stimulation.
Decreased activity.

Nasal flaring.

Clinical dehydration (reduced skin turgor +/or a CRT >3s, +/or dry mucous membranes, +/or reduced urine output).

146
Q

How should pneumonia not requiring admission be managed?

A

Most can be managed at home

Give Abx as difficult to differentiate bacterial v viral

Paracetamol/ Ibuprofen as antipyretics

Adequate hydration

Seek medical advice if RR increases, dehydration or worsening fever

147
Q

What is the antibiotic therapy for pneumonia in children?

A

1st line: Amoxicillin 5 days PO (Clarithromycin if allergic)

2: Add Macrolide e.g. Clarithromycin if is no response/ atypical organism suspected

If a/w influenza, co-amoxiclav

148
Q

What is the gram status of pertussis?

A

-ve

149
Q

What is the course of pertussis?

A

CATARRHAL phase: coryzal Sx ~1w

PAROXYSMAL phase: rapid, violent, + uncontrolled coughing fits (paroxysms) due to difficulty expelling thick mucus from the tracheo-bronchial tree. 1-6w

CONVALESCENT phase: gradual improvement of cough. 2-3w

150
Q

Describe the cough in pertussis?

A

Short expiratory burst followed by an inspiratory gasp
Occur frequently at night/ after feeds
In infants: apnoea rather than a whoop

151
Q

Give 3 symptoms and signs other than cough in pertussis

A

Post-tussive vomiting, may be severe enough to cause cyanosis
Subconjunctival haemorrhages
Anoxia leading to syncope + seizures

152
Q

Is there a fever in pertussis?

A

Fever ABSENT or minimal

153
Q

What investigations should be done in pertussis?

A

Nasal swab/ NPA culture (takes days)
PCR: B.pertussis DNA
Serology: antibodies

154
Q

How should pertussis be managed?

A

Notify HPU
Decide whether to admit
<1m: clarithromycin
1y: azithromycin

155
Q

How do you decide whether to admit in whooping cough?

A

If <6m or acutely unwell
(apnoea episodes, severe paroxysms, or cyanosis)

156
Q

What is the other name for paediatric chronic lung disease?

A

Bronchopulmonary dysplasia

157
Q

What would the CXR show in chronic lung disease?

A

Widespread opacification

158
Q

How should chronic lung disease be managed?

A

If severe: artificial ventilation/CPAP/ low-flow nasal cannula
Short course low-dose CS

159
Q

What is glue ear?

A

Collection of fluid within middle ear space w/o signs of acute inflammation
Common following AOM

160
Q

What is the most common complication of scarlet fever?

A

Otitis media

161
Q

Whilst awaiting admission for pneumonia what is the management?

A

Controlled supplemental O2 if SpO2 <92%

YR5 Specialties (27 decks)

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