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Pathology 1 > Respiratory system > Flashcards

Respiratory system Flashcards

1
Q

air conduction system info

A
  • nasal, paranasal, nasopharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi

- lined by PSC epithelium, goblet cells, serous cells

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2
Q

nasal cavity

A
  • carry air, modify air, olfaction

- 50% of total respiratory resistance

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3
Q

nasopharynx

A

nasal cavity to larynx –> glands and lymphoid tissue

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4
Q

transitional system info

A
  • transition between conduction system and gas exchange system
  • bronchioles: progressive decrease in ciliated epithelium and mucus cells
  • clara and neuroendocrine cells but no goblet cells
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5
Q

gas/air exchange system

A
  • alveolar ducts, alveolar sacs, alveoli

- lined by type I pneumocytes

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6
Q

what portions are lined by ciliated respiratory epithelium

A
  • conducting system (nasal –> bronchi)

- transitional system (part)

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7
Q

where are mucous cells located

A

conducting system, limited number in bronchioles/transition

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8
Q

differences between avian respiratory system and mammalian respiratory system

A
  • choanal slit in upper palate communicates directly with nasal cavity
  • soft walled infraorbital sinus communicates with nasal cavity (not encased in bone)
  • dorsal and ventral bronchi –> parabronchi –> air capillaries
  • avascular sacs that don’t exchange O2 –> 2 cycle air movement
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9
Q

what is the most predominent antibody produced in the air conduction system and how does it function

A

IgA –> mucosal immunity, produced by M cells

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10
Q

list defense mechanisms of the conducting system

A
  • mucociliary deposition clearance
  • antibodies
  • lysozyme
  • mucus
  • clara cells
  • antioxidants
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11
Q

list defense mechanisms of air exchange system

A
  • alveolar, intravascular, and interstitial macrophages
  • surfactant
  • antioxidants
  • antibodies
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12
Q

sources of injury to the respiratory system

A
  • inhaled (bacteria, virus, fungi, toxins, foreign particles)
  • hematogenous (bacteria, virus, fungi, toxins, etc)
  • direct extension (penetrating injury)
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13
Q

what is a clara cell and what role does it play

A

regenerative cells in the bronchioles that serve as stem cells if bronchioles are injured (replace cells) and secrete surfactant, metabolize substances

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14
Q

what leukocyte is most important for protection of the alveolus and where is it located

A
  • macrophages most important

- located in alveoli, interstitium and capillaries

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15
Q

compare/contrast type I and type II pneumocytes

A
  • type I: thin epithelium, gas exchange, susceptible to injury but can’t divide, metabolically inactive
  • type II: cuboidal with microvilli, metabolically active, secrete surfactant, serve as stem cells to replace type I
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16
Q

location and function of M cells

A
  • modified nonciliated epithelial cells in bronchi
  • overlie BALT
  • phagocytose particles, deliver antigens to macrophages, stimulate immunity, produce IgA
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17
Q

what is stenotic airway syndrome of dogs and what breeds are affected

A
  • stenotic external nares, elongated soft palate, everted laryngeal saccules, laryngeal collapse, hypoplastic trachea
  • brachycephalic breeds –> excessive tissue in soft palate, increased inspiratory effort
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18
Q

list a respiratory virus of horses, cattle, cats, and chickens that can assume a latent stage in neural tissue - what is the similarity between the viruses

A
  • herpesvirus –> latency, respiratory issues
  • equine viral rhinipheumonitis, infectious bovine rhinotracheitis, feline viral rhinotracheitis, infectious laryngotracheitis
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19
Q

what is the most common primary neoplasm in the nasal cavity and lung of dogs

A
  • adenocarcinoma in nasal cavity

- bronchioalveolar carcinomas in lungs

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20
Q

how does bacterial infection complicate the diagnosis of a nasal neoplasm in dogs and cats

A

swelling, discharge –> can make it seem all due to bacterial infection

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21
Q

list 3 respiratory diseases that can or might promote exercise intolerance in racehorses - which associated with stabling?

A
  • EHV-1+4 (equine herpes virus)
  • equine influenza A type 2
  • equine obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD heaves) –> stabling issue
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22
Q

what is most common nasal neoplasm in dogs, cats, horses

A
  • dogs: adenocarcinoma (destroy bone, invade cribiform plate/brain)
  • cats: lymphosarcoma
  • horses: squamous cell carcinoma
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23
Q

what is the gutteral pouch of horses and 2 agents that often infect it –> how do they cause epistaxis, dysphagia

A
  • ventral diverticulum of eustahian tube
  • fungus (asperillus) –> inhale spores, lodge in pouch –> inflammation –> erosion of carotid artery –> epistaxis
  • streptococcus equi –> suppurative exudate –> swelling –> dysphagia
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24
Q

what is equine laryngeal hemiplegia, the lay term, clinical signs, causes, lesions

A
  • roaring
  • incomplete dilation of larynx during inspiration of exercise
  • atrophy of left dorsal and lateral cricoarytenoid muscles that adduct and abduct the arytenoid cartilate
  • denervation of left recurrent laryngeal nerve –> muscle atrophy
  • usually idiopathic, can be secondary to inflammation or tumors
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25
Q

list 3 lesions of the pharynx and larynx that can obstruct air movement

A
  • developmental defect (hypoplastic epiglottis, pharyngeal/subepiglottic cysts)
  • lymphoid hyperplasia
  • pharyngeal/laryngeal edema
  • laryngeal hemiplegia
  • hemorrhage
26
Q

tracheal collapse is most common in what breeds of dogs - how can radiographs taken at inspiration and expiration help locate collapse site

A
  • toy and miniature breeds of dogs
  • inspiratory dyspnea –> collapse cervical trachea
  • expiratory dyspnea –> collapse thoracic trachea
27
Q

list agents of kennel cough complex - which is most important?

A
  • bordetella bronchiseptica (most important)
  • canine adenovirus 2
  • canine parainfluenza
28
Q

what processes and agents cause necrosis of bronchial and bronchiolar epithelium

A
  • viral infections
  • inhalation of toxic gasses
  • toxins metabolized by cytochrome P450
  • hypersensitivity reactions
  • inflammatory reactions to inhaled irritants
29
Q

how do bronchi and bronchioles respond to transient injury or persistent injury? what lesions can develop if repair isn’t complete

A
  • degeneration, necrosis, epithelium detachment –> inflammation, mitosis of basal and clara cells, cell proliferation, cell differentiation and repair
  • chronic injury: increased production of mucus-secreting cells
  • emphysema, atelectasis can happen
30
Q

define: bronchiectasis - what is pathogenesis, what lung diseases are associated

A
  • permanent dilation of bronchi caused by destruction of muscle and elastic tissue from chronic bronchial obstruction and infection
  • bronchopneumonia, lung parasites, heaves, ciliary diskinesia
31
Q

pathogenesis of bovine atypical interstitial pneumona, fog fever

A
  • ingested toxins, lush pasture
  • L-tryptophan (metabolized to 3-methylindole): cytochrome P450 enzymes in clara cells –> reactive intermediate –> necrosis of non-ciliated bronchilar epithelium (clara cells), alveolar type I pneumocytes, and endothelial cells –> lesions
32
Q

what are 2 extracellular bacterial agents (2 genus) that impair activity of cilia

A
  • mycoplasma

- bordetella

33
Q

describe a respiratory disease of cats that represents a type I, IgE mediated hypersensitivity reaction - also one in horses –> causes, why they respond to corticosteroids

A
  • feline asthma
  • chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (heaves)
  • exposure to allergens
  • corticosteroids reduce immune over-reaction to things
34
Q

major causes of pulmonary atelectasis (lung collapse)

A
  • congenital (fatal)
  • acquired (alveolar collapse –> compression, obstruction)
  • massive (pneumothorax)
35
Q

major causes of pulmonary edema

A
  • increased venous hydrostatic pressure
  • increased permeability of alveolar barrier
  • impaired active transport of fluid from distal airways
  • reduced oncotic pressure
  • lymphatic obstruction
36
Q

physiological significance of pulmonary edema

A
  • decreased lung elasticity
  • impaired ventilation (dyspnea)
  • fluid in alveoli obstructs gas exchange
  • proteins in edema fluid can interfere with surfactant production
37
Q

why is infarction of the lung relatively uncommon

A

there are multiple blood supplies to the lung –> accommodation (hard to cut off all of them)

38
Q

what is the cause of exercise-induced pulmonary hemorrhage in horses and can epistaxis occur

A
  • happens in race horses after strenuous exercise (elevation of pulmonary arterial/capillary pressures)
  • usually subclinical
  • epistaxis is rare but can occur
39
Q

compare bronchopneumonia, fibrinous bronchopneumonia, interstitial pneumonia, atelectasis, edema, embolic pneumonia, granulomatous pneumonia –> cut surfaces?

A
  • bronchopneumonia: cranioventral lesions, consolidation, edema, prurulent exudates
  • fibrinous bronchopneumonia: cranioventral lesions covered by fibrin
  • interstitial pneumonia: mild increase in firmess, pink/gray, rib impressions, minimal exudates, diffuse or locally extensive
  • atelectasis: collapse of the lung, affected areas depressed/red, not firm –> whole lung, lobes, or lobules.
  • edema: fluid distension –> heavy, firmer, clear/blood-tinged fluid
  • embolic pneumonia: multifocal septic foci throughout lobes –> pulmonary abscesses (white viscous fluid)
  • granulomatous pneumonia: multifocal lung granulomas (may be caseous)
40
Q

define: interstitial pneumonia

A

damage to or inflammation of the alveolar septa and interlobular septa (interstitium) of the lungs —> often complicated at larger stage by bacterial infection

41
Q

examples of agents that cause interstitial pneumonia

A
  • infectious agents (viral)
  • bacteria (salmonella, sepsis), fungi, protozoa
  • toxins
  • hypersensitivity
42
Q

examples of agents that cause embolic pneumonia

A
  • endocarditis
  • injection site abscess
  • hepatic abscess with phlebitis of hepatic vein
  • infected jugular catheters
43
Q

examples of agents that cause granulomatous pneumonia

A
  • fungus (blastomyces dermatitidis)
  • bacteia (mycobacterium sp)
  • parasites (ascarids)
  • foreign bodies
44
Q

4 categories used to describe morphology of lung lesion

A
  • duration
  • distribution
  • degree of severity
  • exudate
45
Q

why does bronchopneumonia of cattle and swine resolve more slowly than that of other domestic animals

A

no collateral ventilation of alveoli –> reduced clearance of exudates –> chronic-suppurative bronchopneumonia more common

46
Q

calf has bronchopneumonia - 3 possible resolutions or outcomes

A
  • death from toxemia
  • damaged alveolar septa and blood vessels (fibrosis, bronchiectasis, abscess, sequestrum)
  • return to normal in 3-4 weeks if minimal damage to alveolar septa and blood vessels
47
Q

what is the pathophysiological significance of bronchopneumonia

A
  • loss of functional parenchyma for ventilation
  • decreased elasticity/compliance of lung
  • can progress to death, pulmonary fibrosis, septicemia, bronchiectasis
  • chronic results in weight loss, progressive loss of lung function
48
Q

what is a lung sequestrum and how long do these lesions persist

A

mass of necrotic lung tissue that is separated from the normal lung by suppurative exudate and fibrous connective tissue –> permanent and nonfunctional

49
Q

list common causes of aspiration pneumonia

A
  • milk by pail-fed calves/puppies with cleft palate, megaesophagus, persistent right aortic arch
  • ruminal contents by downer cow
  • mineral oil force fed to cat for hairballs
  • vomit by animal recovering from anesthesia
  • accidental tracheal tubing in cow/horse receiving mineral oil
  • feed materials by tube-fed parrot
  • crop fluid by macaw with proventricular dilation syndrome
50
Q

in what species is chylothoriax most often diagnosed - what is cytologic appearance and causes

A
  • cats (idiopathic)
  • accumulation of lymph fluid in thoracic cavity
  • many small lymphocytes in pinkish white effusion
  • associated with cardiomyopathy, right sided heart failure, obstruction
51
Q

how can feline infectious peritonitis affect lung and pleura - cytologic appearance

A
  • yellow-tan pyogranulomatous foci on pleura

- turbid white to red exudate in the thorax (pyothorax) with many macrophages and neutrophils in the fluid

52
Q

what is the most common primary neoplasm arising from parietal or visceral pleura

A

mesothelioma

53
Q

young cat has head tilt, nasal discharge, pedunculated mass from eustachian tube on oral exam - diagnosis and prognosis

A
  • nasopharyngeal polyp

- good prognosis with surgery

54
Q

what agents are associated with feline infectious respiratory disease complex - route of transmission

A
  • feline herpesvirus-1, feline calicivirus, bordetella bronchiseptica, chlamydophilia felis
  • direct transmission (secretions)
55
Q

what agent associated with lingual and oral ulcers in cats

A

feline calicivirus

56
Q

what agent associated with conjunctivitis as primary clinical sign in cats

A

chlamydophilia felis

57
Q

cytologic evaluation of bronchiolar lavage fluid from dog reveals lots of eosinophils –> what general disease processes should you consider?

A

type I, IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction

58
Q

what are the gross lesions and histopathologic or cytologic findings of cryptococcus in cats and blastomycosis in dogs - how contracted?

A
  • yeast
  • cryptococcus: granulomatous rhinitis involving bridge of nose, ulceration of nasal planum, mandibular lymphadenopathy –> inhalation
  • blasto: numerous miliary white/gray nodules throughout lungs, intrathoracic lymphadenopathy –> inhaled spores
59
Q

pathogenesis stages of canine distemper virus in dogs - influences of outcome

A

aerosol –> replication in respiratory epithelium and macrophages –> thymus, spleen, bone marrow, lymph nodes –> multiplies in lymphoid system –> viremia –> can either have poor antibody response (widespread invasion) or good antibody response (inapparent illness)

60
Q

dilation of alveoli or interlobular septa by air is defined as:

A

emphysema

61
Q

what won’t induce aspiration pneumonia when introduced into lungs:

  • mineral oil for hairballs
  • PBS as tracheal lavage
  • milk inhaled by cat with cleft palate
  • vomit inhaled by dog waking up from anes
  • feed formula administered into trachea
A

PBS as tracheal lavage

62
Q

which site contains no ciliated epithelium:

  • alveolus
  • bronchus
  • nasal cavity
  • paranasal sinus
  • bronchiole
A

alveolus

Pathology 1 (3 decks)

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