Important stuff? Flashcards

1
Q

Where are cold receptors located

A

EPIdermis

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2
Q

Where are warm receptors located

A

dermis

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3
Q

Photoreceptors deal with what?

A

Light

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4
Q

Nociceptors deal with what?

A

Pain

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5
Q

What does Soma mean?

A

Body

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6
Q

the cell body of a nerve cell is called what?

A

Soma

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7
Q

What are the five primary tastes?

A

Salty
Sweet
Bitter
sour
Umami

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8
Q

What CN deal with taste

A

CN 7, 9

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9
Q

What CN affect eye movement

A

CN 3, 4, and 6

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10
Q

What are the 2 types of fluid inside the eyeball

A

Vitreous Humor
Aqueous Humor

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11
Q

What CN is assessed when testing vision?

A

CN 2

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12
Q

What is Accommodation in regards to the eye?

A

The ability of the lens to contract or elongate for distance or near vision

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13
Q

What structure of the eye (photoreceptor) is responsible for color

A

Cones

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14
Q

What part of the eye (photoreceptor) is responsible for shades of gray in dim light

A

Rods

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15
Q

of these bones what is touching the TM?
Malleus
Incus
Stapes

A

Malleus

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16
Q

The ears have what two main functions

A

Balance and hearing

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17
Q

How many bones make up the skull?

A

7

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18
Q

What nerves innervate the face?

A

5 and 7

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19
Q

What are the lymph nodes

A

Preauricular
Postauricular

Occipital

Sub mental
Sub Mandibular
Parotid
Tonsillar

Anterior Cervical chain
Posterior Cervical chain

Supraclavicular

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20
Q

When treating the symptoms of blephritis what would you use?

A

Baby shampoo

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21
Q

What is the antibiotic for non contact lens wearers

A

Erythromycin

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22
Q

What is the antibiotic for contact wearers

A

Ciprofloxacin

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23
Q

Cobblestoning may indicate what

A

Allergic reaction

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24
Q

Your patient has conjunctivitis with yellowish green discharge and preauricular lymph node swelling. With an HX of not using protection with his/her multiple partners. What would you suspect?

A

gonococcal conjunctivitis

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25
Q

are there nociceptors in the brain?

A

No

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26
Q

Heat sensation is felt where ?

A

Dermis

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27
Q

What receptors are in and around synovial joints

A

joint kinesthetic receptors

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28
Q

What CN are responsible for taste

A

7 and 9

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29
Q

What are the layers of the eyeball

A

Fibrous tunic
vascular tunic
retina

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30
Q

What fluid is found in the anterior chamber of the eye

A

Aqueous Humor

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31
Q

Vitamin A deficiency would lead to what?

A

Night blindness

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32
Q

What part of the internal ear:

Is part of the temporal bone and is divided into the cochlea, vestibule, and semicircular canals and contains a fluid called perilymph, which surrounds the membranous labyrinth.

A

bony labyrinth

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33
Q

What part of the internal ear:
Is a series of sacs and tubes in the same general shape as the bony labyrinth and contains a fluid called endolymph

A

membranous labyrinth

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34
Q

Nerve impulses from the cochlear branch of the vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII) pass to the midbrain and thalamus and ultimately go to the ______

A

primary auditory area in the temporal lobe

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35
Q

The equilibrium pathway to the brain includes the vestibular branch axons of the vestibulocochlear (VIII) nerve which, enters the What?

A

medulla or the cerebellum

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36
Q

The receptor organs for equilibrium are in the internal ear. They are the ______ and ______.

A

the saccule, utricle

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37
Q

How many lyphatic branches are in the head

A

10

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38
Q

if you hear bruits on the temoral area what is it?

A

temporal ateritis

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39
Q

grittiness on the thyroid is what?

A

Thyroiditis

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40
Q

thyriodoglossal duct cyst can cause what

A

dysphagia

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41
Q

what are 2 divisions of the conjunctive

A

bulbar and palpebral

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42
Q

goiter and bulging eyes may indicate what?

A

Graves diseaseeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeee

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43
Q

what cn Controls the lateral rectus muscle

A

CN VI

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44
Q

What CN controls the medial rectus muscles

A

CN III

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45
Q

What is if called when the eyes are bulging out

A

Exophthalmos

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46
Q

What condition is responsible for vision loss greater than 24 hours (most common)

A

Diabetes

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47
Q

What is loss of half of the field of view on the same side in both eyes?
-Lesion arising in optic nerve radiation on either side of the brain

A

Homonymous hemianopia

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48
Q

Defective vision or blindness in ½ of the visual field

A

Hemianopia

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49
Q

Loss of visual fields closest to the temples
a) Usually pituitary tumor
b) Interrupts optic chiasm

A

Bitemporal hemianopia

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50
Q

What is it called when a drug causes hearing loss

A

Ototoxic reaction

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51
Q

vertigo and dizzyness from a medication is what

A

ototoxic

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52
Q

what is the Centor criteria and what is it for

A

Lack of cough
Fever
Exudates on the tonsils
Lymphadenopathy

STREP

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53
Q

a positive Rhine test is what?

A

2:1

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54
Q

How do you treat Auricular Hematoma

A

I&D

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55
Q

What are the instruments of choise for Ear foreign body

A

loops/scoops, right angle hook, and alligator forceps

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56
Q

Live foreign bodies you should do what

A

Drown it with lidocaine
administer antibiotics

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57
Q

For cleaning a cerumen impaction what is the biggest risk of using a catheter

A

TM PERF

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58
Q

For cleaning a cerumen impaction what is the biggest risk of using fluids

A

Vertigo and nausea

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59
Q

should you medivac mastoiditis?

A

YES

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60
Q

mastoiditis is a complication of what?

A

otitis media

61
Q

Otitis externa is caused by what?

A

Pseudomonas

62
Q

otitis externa is also known as what?

A

Swimmers ear

63
Q

Treatment for Otitis Externa

A

Neomycin/Polymyxin B plus hydrocortisone (Cortisporin Otic)
4 drops in affected ear TID-QID

64
Q

How do you treat Ottitis media

A

Amoxicillin 1000mg TID x 5-7 days OR
Amoxicillin/Clavulanate (Augementin) 2000mg/125mg PO BID x 5-7 days

PCN allergy
1) Ceftriaxone 1-gram IM one dose OR
2) Doxycycline 100mg PO BID x10 days

65
Q

pt complains of Fullness or “under water sensation”. what would you suspect?

A

Eustacian tube disorder

66
Q

What would you give a pt of they have a pcn allergy

A

Doxycycline
Septra
Clindamycin

67
Q

What would you suspect?
-Acute onset of pain and hearing loss; associated vertigo or tinnitus (usually transient, unless injury to inner ear); nausea and vomiting; history of recurrent
ear infections
-Visible perforation of the tympanic membrane; otorrhea (pus, blood, or clear fluid from canal)

A

TM perf

68
Q

True/False
For a TM Perf Spontaneous healing occurs in most cases

A

True

69
Q

What antibiotics would you give for a TM per if Foreign material is suspected to remain in the canal or in the middle ear

A

(a) Augmentin 875 mg PO BID x 7 days OR
(b) Doxycycline 100mg PO BID x 7 days

70
Q

______ is a benign tumor (composed of stratified squamous epithelium) in the middle ear or mastoid.
-normally preceded by repeat infections of otitis media

A

Cholesteatoma

71
Q

what is the #1 cause of barotrauma?

A

Flying

72
Q

How would you treat barotrauma?

A

Treat symptoms
-Pseudoephedrine

73
Q

Cochlea – coiled structure containing the organ of Corti, transmits sound impulses to what CN?

A

8

74
Q

What is the convergence of small fragile arteries and veins, located on the anterior-superior portion of the septum
MC source of anterior nosebleed

A

Kiesselbach’s plexus

75
Q

MC source of posterior nosebleed

A

Sphenopalantine artery

76
Q

what is the first course of action for epistaxis

A

Direct pressure by compression of the nares continuously for 15 minutes (most cases of anterior epistaxis).

77
Q

What is used to reduce the risk of toxic shock syndrome developing while the packing remains in place at least 5 days?

A

Anti-staphylococcal antibiotics
Cephalexin (Keflex)
500mg PO four times daily (QID)
or
Clindamycin
150mg PO q 6 hours for 7 days

78
Q

What is the most common complication of epistaxis

A

Vasovagal syncope

79
Q

WHAT is formed by two rectangular-shaped bones that articulate with the frontal bone, the frontal process of the maxilla, and the perpendicular plate of the ethmoid to form a “tent-like” configuration.

A

The nasal pyramid

80
Q

What is an afferent pupillary defect

A

If the second pupil continues to dilate rather than constrict

81
Q

What antibiotics would you give for mastoiditis?

A

(1) Ceftriaxone 2-4gm IV q24h OR
(2) Levofloxacin 750mg IV QD OR
(3) Cefazolin 0.5-1.5g IV TID

82
Q

True/False
You keep a mastoiditis pt on ship

A

FALSE
Immediate MEDEVAC

83
Q

Mastoiditis care After MEDEVAC treatment at MTF

A

(a) Admission for tympanocentesis, and myringotomy
(b) I&D of periosteal abscess
(c) Mastoidectomy may be indicated

84
Q

PT has thesse would would you order for them

A

Lipid panel

85
Q

What part of the brain controlls smell

A

Frontal and temporal

86
Q

When using tangential lighting you are looking for what?

A

Clarity

87
Q

What is this

A

hypopyon

88
Q

can a hordeolum cause orbital cellulitis?

A

yes

89
Q

What would you suspect?
Red eye, pain with eye movement, blurred vision, double vision, eyelid and/or periorbital swelling, nasal congestion/discharge, sinus headache/pressure/congestion, tooth pain, infra- and/or supraorbital pain, or hypesthesia.

A

Orbital Cellulitis

90
Q

can you order an MRI for a patient with a forrenbody that has a rust ring?

A

NO

91
Q

True/False
You should instruct your Orbit Fx patient to blow their nose

A

NOOOO
They should not blow their nose

92
Q

IF you patient does not have a red light reflex what does this mean?

A

Glaucoma or cataracts

93
Q

PT has a nearsighted grey cloud what would you suspect

A

retinal detachment

94
Q

For a penetrating eye injury you should do wat

A

Protect the eye, elevate the head 30 degrees

95
Q

pt has dendritic branches in their eye upon examination what would you suspect?

A

Herpetic lesion

96
Q

What antibiotics are used to treat a corneal ulcer

A

Ciprofloxacin eye drops
Fluoroquinolone eye drops
MIN 5 DAYS

97
Q

Edu for your pt with barotrauma

A

aviod more pressure changes

98
Q

Tx of uvitis/iritis
Can idc do this

A

Dilation/steroids

No

99
Q

What do muscle spindles do

A

they let you know what muscle is being contracted

100
Q

what is the organism most commonly associated with sialadenitis

What is the treatment

A

S aureus.

Nafcillin 2gm IV QD

101
Q

Sudden pain when swallowing out of proportion with exam findings
Treatment

A

**EPIGLITITS
-IV antibiotics
-Steroids

102
Q

Are you at increased risk for retinal detachment if farsighted?

A

No

103
Q

Are you at increased risk for retinal detachment if nearsighted?

A

yes

104
Q

Subconjunctival hemorage happens where

A

Bulbar layer

105
Q

if someone has a black eye and their right eye is stuck looking up independently of the good eye, what muscle would you think has the problem

A

Ineferior rectus entrapment of damage

106
Q

What is considered fast pain?

A

Stabbing/sharp

107
Q

______ is also known as the kinesthetic sense or the perception of body movements.

This also allow us to estimate the weight of objects and determine the muscular effort needed to perform a task

A

Proprioception

108
Q

_____ inform which muscle are contracting

A

Muscles spindles

109
Q

_____ inform the amount of tension in our tendons.

A

Tendons organs

110
Q

_____ inform the position of our joints
while doing work.

A

Joint kinesthetic

111
Q

______ in the middle ear monitors the orientation of the head relative to the ground and positioning during movements.

A

Hairs cells

112
Q

three types of cells in the olfactory epithelium

A

olfactory receptor cells,
supporting cells
basal cells

113
Q

What contains the macula and hair cells and supporting cells

A

utricle and saccule

114
Q

fasciculations on the eyelid may indicate what?

A

Hyperthyroidism

115
Q

What is anisocoria

A

inequality of pupillary size

116
Q

What is a Xanthelasma lesion

A

irregularly shaped, yellow-tinted lesions suggestive
of abnormality of lipid metabolism

117
Q

What is a unit of measurement in describing lesion
size and location on the fundus.

A

Optic disk diameter
(usually 1.5 mm)

118
Q

Stensen ducts are related to what glands?

A

parotid gland

119
Q

Wharton ducts open are related to what glands?

A

Sublingual, submandibular

120
Q

Is a cerumen impaction considered a FOB

A

No

121
Q

What is the first tx option for cerumen impaction?

A

irrigation

122
Q

What is the seccond option for cerumen impaction if irrigation fails?

A

Cerumenolytic

123
Q

do you use alligator clamps on cerumen

A

No

124
Q

Most common type of conjunctivitis

A

Viral

125
Q

Erythematous or cobblestone appearance in the conjunctiva

A

allergic or infectious conjunctivitis

126
Q

What do you always do for an eye issues

A

Vis acuity test

127
Q

What do you always do for Corneal abrasion, ulcer or ocular foreign body?

A

fluorescein stain

128
Q

What Freq tuning fork is used for rinne test?

A

512 Hz

129
Q

Head position during your PE
head tilted or favoring one side

A

unilateral hearing/vision loss or torticollis

130
Q

What is the route of tears

A

-Lacrimal gland produces tears that moisten the eye
-Tears flow over the cornea, drain via the canaliculi to the lacrimal sac and duct, and then into the nasal meatus.

131
Q

What is a patulous dysfunction of the Eustachian tube

A

ETD
in which the Eustachian tube is
excessively open

132
Q

What is Ectropion

A

lid is turned away from the eye

133
Q

What is Entropion

A

lid is turned inward toward the globe

134
Q

What is pupillary constriction to less than 2 mm.

A

pupillary constriction to less than 2 mm.

135
Q

What is pupillary dilation of more than 6 mm and failure of the pupils to constrict with light

A

Myadriasis

136
Q

If a patient fell and hit their head. They now are experiencing dizziness and vertigo. What part of the brain is effected?

A

cerebellum

137
Q

What is the definitive treatment for peritonsillar abscess

A

Needle aspiration

NOT I&D

138
Q

What is a common complication of Nasal trauma

A

Septal hematoma

139
Q

If you can’t give IV antibiotics for orbital cellulitis what would you give?

A

Augmentin

140
Q

Antibiotic for Sialadenitis

A

Nafcillin 2gm IV QD

141
Q

How long should you irrigate the eyes

A

30 min

142
Q

Patient Complains of
Fullness or “under water sensation”.

A

Eustachian tube dysfunction

143
Q

Mastoiditis definitive care

A
  1. I&D of periosteal abscess
  2. tympanocentesis****
  3. myringotomy
144
Q

Differential Diagnosis for Tinnitus

A

(1) Hyperthyroidism
(2) Otitis Media
(3) Temporomandibular joint dysfunction (TMJ)

145
Q

Uncomplicated TM perf treatment

A

Let it heal by itself

146
Q

Nasal polyps are associated with what conditions

A

Cystic fibrosis
Asthma
allergies
Aspirin intolerance
Alcohol intolerance

147
Q

Complication of Epiglottitis

A

Airway obstruction / death

148
Q

What is considered fast pain?

A

Stabbing/sharp

149
Q

What are the instruments of choise for Ear foreign body

A

loops/scoops, right angle hook, and alligator forceps