Big 4 - Prostate Cancer Flashcards

1
Q

What is the lifetime risk for developing prostate cancer?

Who is at a greater risk?

A
  • lifetime risk is 1 in 8
  • men over 50 are more likely to develop prostate cancer
  • risk is increased by 2.5x if there is FHx of a first-degree relative
  • risk is greater if Afro-Caribbean descent
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2
Q

When might a PSA test be performed?

Is it offered for screening?

A
  • it is NOT offered for screening as the benefits do not outweigh the risks
  • men > 50 can request a PSA test if symptomatic, but should also be given written information

an informed discussion must take place first

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3
Q

What are the typical symptoms that prostate cancer presents with?

A

Urinary symptoms:

  • reduced flow
  • increased frequency
  • nocturia

Symptoms of metastatic cancer:

  • anaemia
  • bone pain
  • weight loss
  • general malaise
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4
Q

What else might be causing the urinary symptoms?

A

benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH)

further investigations can help identify prostate cancer

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5
Q

Why is PSA screening not performed?

A
  • mortality from prostate cancer has been gradually decreasing
  • when PSA screening was introduced, there was a spike in the cases being diagnosed
  • PSA tests are identifying men with prostate cancer who would never have had symptoms / needed treatment
  • this causes unnecessary anxiety
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6
Q

What is the normal value for PSA?

What is this and when might it be raised?

A
  • the cut-off for further investigations is >3 ng/ml
  • PSA is not specific to prostate cancer and may be raised in BPH and infection
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7
Q

Approximately what % of individuals with an abnormal PSA test will actually have prostate cancer?

A
  • if 100 patients are tested, 17 will come back as abnormal
  • these individuals will have further tests, including DRE, MRI and biopsy
  • 13/17 (75%) of these patients will NOT have prostate cancer and the tests had been unnecessary
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8
Q

If someone >50 requests a PSA test and it comes back abnormal, what is the next stage?

A
  • 2 week-wait referral to urology clinic
  • referral for a pre-biospy MRI scan
  • this is followed by a trans-rectal US biopsy
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9
Q

How is a trans-rectal US biopsy performed?

What are the risks associated with this?

A
  • it is performed as an outpatient procedure, but risks include:
  • rectal discomfort for a few days / weeks
  • blood in the urine / semen
  • urine infection with 3% risk of sepsis requiring hospitalisation
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10
Q

What is an alternative to transrectal US biopsy?

A
  • trans-perineal biopsy
  • this used to be avoided as it required GA, but can now be performed with LA
  • there is a lesser risk of infection / sepsis
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11
Q

What happens if diagnosed prostate cancer is already metastatic?

A

the patient immediately begins systemic treatments

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12
Q

What happens if newly diagnosed prostate cancer is localised?

A

the cancer is graded according to the risk of recurrence & metastasis

this is done using the TNM staging, Gleason score and PSA value

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13
Q

What is the treatment plan for low risk prostate cancer?

A
  • active surveillance
  • radiotherapy
  • surgery

active surveillance involves 3-4 monthly PSA tests, annual DREs and regular check-ups to avoid radical treatments for as long as possible

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14
Q

What is the treatment plan for intermediate or high risk prostate cancer?

A
  • bone scan is performed to check for mets
  • patient is then offered surgery or radiotherapy
  • this can be external beam radiotherapy (EBRT) or internal radiotherapy (brachytherapy)
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15
Q

What is the Gleason score?

A

a histopathological score given to the prostatic biopsy based on how abnormal the tissue appears

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16
Q

How is the Gleason score calculated?

A
  • the most prevalent abnormal tissue architecture within the sample is given a score from 1 to 5
  • the second most prevalent abnormal tissue is also given a score
  • the 2 scores are added together to give the Gleason score

Gleason score is being replaced by the ISUP grade

17
Q

How is prostate cancer staged?

A

MRI scan and DRE are performed to calculate the TNM stage

18
Q

What is involved in the T stage of the TNM staging?

A

T1 - no palpable or visible cancer (on biopsy only)

T2 - cancer within prostate gland only

T3 - cancer breaching prostate capsule

T4 - cancer invading into rectum or bladder

19
Q

What is involved in the N and M parts of the TNM staging system?

A

N0 - no nodes involved
N1 - nodes involved

M0 - no metastasis
M1 - mets are present

20
Q

How is the prostate cancer risk calculated and why is this performed?

A
  • risk is calculated using the TNM stage, Gleason score and PSA value
  • this puts patients into 3 groups - low, intermediate or high risk
  • it predicts the risk of recurrence after treatment and metastatic spread
21
Q

When is someone deemed low risk?

A
  • T1c / T2a
  • Grade group 1 (Gleason 6)
  • PSA </= 10
22
Q

When is someone deemed intermediate risk?

A
  • T2b/c
  • Grade group 2 (Gleason 3+4) or 3 (Gleason 4+3)
  • PSA 10-20
23
Q

When is someone deemed high risk?

A
  • T3a-T4
  • Grade group 4 or 5 (Gleason scores 8-10)
  • PSA >/= 20
24
Q

What were the major findings from the PROTECT study?

A
  • there is no difference in mortality / overall survival for radical prostatectomy, radical radiotherapyand active surveillance indicated with PSA
  • those undergoing active surveillance have radical treatment when PSA levels rise
  • there is a greater risk of metastatic cancer developing during active surveillance
  • radical treatment upfront reduces the risk of metastatic cancer by 50%
25
Q

What happens in external beam radiotherapy?

A

radiotherapy is delivered in an arc around the patient

the radiotherapy plan aims to target most of the radiotherapy to the area around the prostate gland

26
Q

What is involved in prostate brachytherapy?

What is a major benefit to this method?

A
  • this involves multiple needles inserted into the prostate gland transperineally to deliver internal radiation
  • allows for a higher dose of radiation and improved cancer control
27
Q

How do you decide which treatment option is the best for that patient?

What risks are associated with these?

A

Surgery:
* good option for men < 70 with no co-morbidity (due to GA)
* risks of long term incontinence & impotence

Radiotherapy
* non-invasive
* good option for older men or those with comorbidity
* risk of long-term bowel problems

Brachytherapy
* good option for fit men with no comorbidity
* avoid in men with large prostates or significant urinary symptoms

28
Q

What are the typical symptoms of metastatic prostate cancer?

What imaging methods could be used to show this?

A
  • prostate cancer commonly metastasises to the bone
  • this presents with bone pain and general malaise
  • a technetium bone scan will show widespread mets around the axial skeleton
  • XR will show sclerotic mets
dense black areas on the bone scan are the areas of suspected mets
29
Q

What are the treatments available for prostate cancer with bony mets?

A
  • the main treatment is lifelong androgen deprivation therapy
  • other systemic treatments may be used in fit patients - chemotherapy & abiaterone / enzalutamide
  • persistent bony pain can be treated with palliative radiotherapy
30
Q

How does androgen deprivation therapy work?

A
  • prostatic cells require testosterone to divide and the cancer needs it to grow
  • androgens are produced by the testes and adrenal gland
  • anti-androgens block the pathway at this level
  • GnRH agonists / antagonists block the pathway at the level of the pituitary-hypothalamus feedback loop
31
Q

What are the adverse effects of androgen deprivation therapy?

A
  • hot flushes
  • reduced sexual function / shrinkage of penis + testes
  • loss of muscle bulk + strength
  • memory effects + mood disturbance
  • 10% weight gain and diabetes risk
  • osteoporosis / higher fracture rate

side effects are due to medical castration and reduced testosterone

32
Q

How does androgen deprivation therapy affect cardiovascular risk?

A
  • ADT is associated with a 5% increase in CV mortality
  • events often occur early (within first 12 months)
  • increases risk of stroke and PVD
  • lack of testosterone causes progression of atherosclerosis
  • metabolic syndrome is associated with obesity, altered lipids and risk of DM
33
Q

What medications are typically used for anti-androgen therapy?

A

LHRH agonists

  • e.g. goserelin / zoladex
  • these initially cause a rise in testosterone for around 2-3 weeks before lowering it
34
Q

What may be given during the first few weeks of treatment with anti-androgen therapy?

A

anti-androgens

  • e.g. flutamide / bicalutimide
  • these are used to compensate for the initial rise in testosterone when treatment is started