Procedures Flashcards
CROSS-COCKPIT COMMUNICATION
Each time one flight crewmember adjusts or changes information and/or equipment on the flight deck, the other flight crewmember must be informed, and an acknowledgement must be obtained.
Such adjustments and changes include:
‐ FMGS alterations
‐ Changes in speed or Mach
‐ Tuning navigation aids
‐ Flight path modifications
‐ System selections (e.g. anti-ice system).
STERILE COCKPIT RULE
When the aircraft is below 10 000 ft, any conversation that is not essential should be avoided: This
includes conversations that take place in the cockpit, or between the flight crew and cabin crew.
It is important to adhere to STERILE COCKPIT RULE policy, in order to
facilitate communication between both of the flight crew, and to ensure the effective communication of emergency or safety-related information, between flight and cabin crew members.
Airbus highly recommends that the flight crews put and store all objects in their dedicated area in the
cockpit:
‐ Cups with lids in the cup holders
‐ Bottles with caps in the bottle holders
‐ Books and paper, if any, in the lateral stowage
‐ Trash in the waste bin in the lateral console
‐ Meal trays on the floor behind the flight crew. The flight attendants should collect the meal trays as
soon as possible
‐ Personal equipment properly secured in the various stowage areas
‐ Portable electronic devices properly secured in the flight document stowage, in the checklist
stowage or in the operation manual stowage
in TRANSIT STOP when the last check list performed by the flight crew is the
PARKING C/L
in SECURED STOP when the last check list performed by the flight crew is the
SECURING THE
AIRCRAFT C/L
The flight crew performs only the items indicated by an asterisk (*) in the Standard Operating Procedures (SOP’s) when
there is no flight crew change and after a TRANSIT STOP. Otherwise, the flight crew performs all the items of the SOP’s.
The objectives of the preliminary cockpit preparation are:
‐ To ensure that all safety checks are performed:
* The RCL pb is pressed for at least 3 s to display the cautions and warnings from the previous flight.
* The technical logbook and MEL are checked at this stage.
‐ To check the liquid levels i.e. oil, hydraulic and oxygen pressure using
* The HYD pb is pressed to check the hydraulic level
* The ENG pb is pressed to check engine oil level (Refer to FCOM/PRO-NOR-SOP-04 Before
Walkaround - ECAM Pages)
* The DOOR pb is pressed, to check the oxygen pressure level
‐ To check the position of surface control levers e.g. slats/flaps, parking brake.
During the Preliminary Cockpit Preparation, the flight crew must also review all OEBs applicable to the aircraft. The flight crew must pay a particular attention to
red OEBs, and more particularly to the red OEBs that must be applied before the ECAM procedure.
Depending on the operational conditions and APU types, some odors may be perceived in the cabin, once the APU Bleed is set to ON. This is due to
possible presence of oil traces in the APU airduct.
further reduce potential odors in the Cabin, the APU Bleed may be selected ___ minutes after APU start.
3.
This APU warm-up time enables the seals to reach their optimum performance and eliminates oil traces in the APU airduct.
The ECAM DOOR/OXY SD page displays the oxygen pressure. When the oxygen pressure is below a defined threshold, _____ highlights the value. This advises the flight crew that the bottle should be refilled.
an amber half box
The flight crew performs the alignment or realignment of the IRS during the preliminary cockpit preparation. This action enables
IRS to operate in NAV mode and to provide continuously the aircraft position.
ADIRS OPERATIONS
The IRS alignment or realignment includes the following two steps:
‐ Alignment:
Gyro and accelerometers prepare for the NAV computation. ‐ Position Initialization:
Navigation starting point is set.
COMPLETE IRS ALIGNMENT
During a complete alignment, IRS use gravity and the earth’s rotation to determinate the _____ and true heading, and IRS estimate a _____
- aircraft attitude
- current aircraft latitude
COMPLETE IRS ALIGNMENT
The IR mode selectors must be OFF for more than
5 s.
Note: The ON BAT light comes on during 5 s.
FAST IRS ALIGNMENT
During a fast alignment, IRS reset the
ground speed and some internal filters to 0, but IRS do not estimate the aircraft position.
The flight crew sets the IR mode selectors to OFF then, back to the NAV mode within 5 s.
EXTERIOR WALKAROUND
To obtain a global assessment of the aircraft status. Any missing parts or panels will be checked
against the
Configuration Deviation List (CDL) for possible dispatch and any potential operational
consequences.
FMGS PROGRAMMING
Green fields are used for
FMS generated data, and cannot be changed
FMGS PROGRAMMING
Magenta characters identify
limits (altitude, speed or time), that FMS will attempt to meet
FMGS PROGRAMMING
Small font signifies
Large font signifies
that data is FMS computed
& manually entered data.
FMGS PROGRAMMING
INIT B should not be filled immediately after INIT A, because
the FMGS would begin to compute F-PLN predictions. These computations would slow down the entry procedure.
Manual Position Initialization of the IRS:
The most appropriate coordinates for the position initialization are
gate coordinates
Manual Position Initialization of the IRS:
Note: When the flight crew enters or modifies the origin airport (FROM) or the CO RTE, the MCDU INIT coordinates are reset to
the Airport Reference Point
The history wind is the vertical wind profile, that has been encountered during
the previous descent and should be entered at this stage if it is representative of the vertical wind profile for the next flight.
The SEC F-PLN should be used to consider
an alternate runway for take-off, a return to departure airfield or a routing to a take-off alternate.
If a NAVAID is reported on NOTAM as unreliable or unserviceable, it must be deselected on the
MCDU DATA/POSITION MONITOR/SEL NAVAID page
‐ INIT B
The flight crew:
* Inserts the expected _____ to initialize a F-PLN computation
ZFWCG/ZFW, and block fuel
The trip wind is an average wind component that may be extracted from the CFP. The trip wind facility is available if
the wind profile has not already been entered.
After engine start, the INIT B page is no longer available. The flight crew should use the _____ for weight and fuel data insertion
FUEL PRED page
The INIT B page should not be completed immediately after INIT A, because
the FMGS would begin to compute F-PLN predictions. This would slow down the entry procedure.
The thrust reduction altitude/acceleration altitude (THR RED/ACC) are set to default at
1 500 ft, or at a value defined by airline policy.
The engine-out acceleration altitude must:
- Be at least 400 ft above airport altitude
- Ensure that the net flight path is 35 ft above obstacles
- Ensure that the maximum time for takeoff thrust is not exceeded.
The flight crew uses the PERF CLB page to pre-select a speed. For example
“Green Dot” speed for a sharp turn after takeoff.
Symptoms of incorrect armrest adjustment include
over-controlling, and not being able to make small, precise inputs.
BRAKE CHECK
When the aircraft starts to move, the PF should check the efficiency of the normal braking system by
gently pressing the brake pedals, to ensure that the aircraft slows down.
CARBON BRAKE WEAR
Carbon brake wear depends on
the number of brake applications and on brake temperature. It does not depend on the applied pressure, or the duration of the braking.
TAXI SPEED AND BRAKING
On long, straight taxiways, and with no ATC or other ground traffic constraints, the PF should allow the aircraft to
accelerate to 30 kt, and should then use one smooth brake application to decelerate to 10 kt. The PF should avoid continuous brake applications.
BRAKE TEMPERATURE
The maximum brake temperature limitation for takeoff ensures that,
in the case of a hydraulic leak, any hydraulic fluid that touches the brake units does not ignite in the wheel well after the landing gear retraction.
BRAKING ANOMALIES
the ACCU PRESS drops below _____, the flight crew should be aware that the Parking Brake can, quite suddenly, become less efficient.
1 500 PSI
When the fans are running, the difference between the indicated and the actual brake temperature can range from
50 °C (when the actual brake temperature is 100 °C) to 150 °C (when the actual brake temperature is 300 °C).
When the indicated brake temperature is above _____, takeoff must be delayed.
150 °C
Brake fans should not be used during takeoff, in order to
avoid Foreign Object Damage to fans and brakes.
FLIGHT CONTROLS
If this check is carried out during taxiing, it is essential that the PF
remains head-up throughout the procedure
TAXI ROLL AND STEERING
Before taxi, check that the amber “NWS DISC” ECAM message is off, to ensure
that steering is fully available.
TILLER AND RUDDER PEDALS USE
Pedals control nosewheel steering at low speed ( ___ with full pedal deflection).
± 6 °
If both pilots act on the tiller or pedals, their inputs are
added until the maximum value of the
steering angle (programmed within the BSCU) is reached.
When the seating position is correct, the cut-off angle is ___ , and the visual ground geometry provides an obscured segment of ___
20 ° / 42 ft (12.5 m)
In the event that one or more tires is/are deflated on the main landing gear, the maximum permitted steering angle will be limited by the aircraft speed. Therefore, with one tire deflated, the aircraft speed is limited to ___ and nosewheel steering can be used. With two tires deflated, the aircraft speed is limited to ___ and nosewheel steering angle should be limited to ___.
7 kt / 3 kt & 30 °
180 DEGREES TURN ON RUNWAY
IF THE PF IS THE CREWMEMBER IN THE LEFT HAND SEAT (CM1)
Taxi on the right hand side of the runway.
Maintain a ground speed between 5 kt and 8 kt during the entire maneuver.
Turn left, maintaining a 25 divergence from the runway axis.
Monitor the approaching runway edge.
When the CM1 is physically over the runway edge:
Turn right, up to full tiller deflection
If necessary, use asymmetric thrust (IDLE on ENG 2) and/or differential braking (more brake
pressure on the right side) to maintain a constant speed.
LAST DATA CHANGES BEFORE TAKEOFF
If the takeoff conditions change during the taxi phase, and if the previous performance computation
is no longer appropriate, the flight crew must update the takeoff data. This is the case for example in
the following conditions:
‐ The runway in use changes, or
‐ The runway condition deteriorates, or
‐ The use of a new intersection shortens the runway length, or ‐ The wind or the temperature changes
LAST DATA CHANGES BEFORE TAKEOFF
In order to compute and crosscheck the performance data, the PF should perform one of the
following:
‐ Stop the aircraft, or
‐ Transfer the control to the PM
ADIRS ALIGNMENT
During taxi, a good way to check a global consistency of FMGC entries (position and flight plan) is
to check the runway and the SID on the ND in comparison to the aircraft symbol, that indicates the current aircraft position. To do so, set the ND in ARC or NAV mode with a range 10 NM.
In case of APU auto shut down during takeoff, the engine thrust is
frozen till the thrust is manually reduced. The packs revert to engine bleed which causes an increase of EGT to keep N1/EPR.
If the takeoff is performed with one pack unserviceable, the procedure states to set the failed pack to OFF. this asymmetric bleed configuration, the N1 takeoff value is limited to the value corresponding to the
bleed ON configuration and takeoff performance must be computed accordingly.
The Electronic Engine Control (EEC) computer prevents the engine stabilizing between an approximate range of
60 to 74 % N1, in order to protect against fan flutter. This range is called
the Keep-Out-Zone, and the flight crew may notice a non-linear thrust response to thrust lever movement.
Once the thrust is set, the PF announces the indications on the FMA. The PM must check that the thrust is set by ___ and must announce “Thrust Set”.
80 kt
During the take-off roll, the PM monitors the ___ to ensure early detection and appropriate decision making in the case of malfunction.
PFD and ENG indications
On a normal takeoff, to counteract the ___, the PF should apply half forward or full forward sidestick (depending on wind conditions) at the start of the takeoff roll until reaching 80 kt. At this point, the input should be gradually reduced to be zero by 100 kt.
pitch up moment during thrust application
The nosewheel steering authority decreases at a pre-determined rate as the groundspeed increases (no more efficiency at ___) and the rudder becomes more effective.
130 kt
For crosswind takeoffs, routine use of into wind aileron is ___. In strong crosswind conditions, small lateral stick input may be used to maintain wings level, if deemed necessary due to into wind wing reaction, but avoid using large deflections, resulting in excessive spoiler deployment which increase the aircraft tendency to turn into the wind (due to high weight on wheels on the spoiler extended side), reduces lift and increases drag.
not necessary
The flight crew may be surprised during takeoff roll by unexpected lateral disturbance in conditions such as:
‐ The presence of thermals or thermal vortices that often develop in hot and dry countries. Sometimes, these thermal streams get stronger, and create small whirlwinds referred to as “dust devils”, or
‐ The jet blast of another aircraft close to the active runway, or
‐ The wind that accelerates between two buildings by “venturi” effect.
In case of low visibility takeoff, visual cues are primary means to track the runway centerline. The ___ provides an assistance in case of expected fog patches if ILS available.
PFD yaw bar
To initiate the rotation, the flight crew performs a positive backward stick input. When the rotation is initiated, the flight crew achieves a rotation rate of ___ resulting in a continuous pitch increase.
approximately 3 °/s
During the rotation, the aircraft liftoff occurs at ___ of pitch, typically around 4 to 5 s after the initiation of the rotation. After the liftoff, the PF targets the required pitch attitude.
approximately 10 °
A slow rotation rate or an under rotation (below takeoff pitch target) has an impact on takeoff performance
‐ The takeoff run and the takeoff distance increase
‐ The obstacle clearance after takeoff decreases
EARLY ROTATION
Early rotation occurs when the flight crew initiates the rotation below the appropriate VR. The possible reasons for this are:
- The computed VR is incorrect for the aircraft weight or flap configuration
- The PF commands the rotation below VR because of gusts, windshear or an obstacle on the
runway - The following factors or a combination of these factors may also lead to an aircraft auto
rotation before VR: - A bumpy runway
- A sudden release of forward sidestick input
- The use of TOGA thrust
- An aircraft not correctly trimmed.
The first degrees of flexible thrust have an impact on maintenance costs about ___ higher than the last one.
5 times
The first degrees of flexible thrust have an impact on maintenance costs about ___ higher than the last one.
5 times
The configuration that provides the maximum FLEX temperature varies with the ___.
runway length
On short runways, ___ usually provides the highest FLEX temperature, and the tail clearance at liftoff does not depend on the configuration.
CONF 3
On medium or long runways, ___ becomes the limiting factor, and CONF 2 or CONF 1+F becomes the optimum configuration, in term of FLEX temperature.
the second segment limitation
TAKEOFF PITCH TRIM SETTING
The main purpose of the pitch trim setting for takeoff is to provide ___.
consistent rotation characteristics
The aircraft performs a safe takeoff, provided that the pitch trim setting is:
within the green band on the pitch trim wheel.
However, the pitch trim setting significantly affects the aircraft behaviour during rotation:
‐ With a forward CG and the pitch trim set to the nose-down limit, the PF will feel an aircraft
“heavy to rotate” and aircraft rotation will be very slow in response to the normal takeoff stick
input
‐ With an aft CG and the pitch trim set to the nose-up limit, the pilots will most probably have to
counteract an early autorotation until VR is reached.
CROSSWIND TAKEOFF
In the TAKEOFF ROLL paragraph the PF should avoid using large deflection, which results in
excessive spoiler extension. A direct effect of the reduction in lift due to the extension of the spoilers on one wing will be a reduction in tail clearance and an increased risk of tail strike.
OLEO INFLATION
The correct extension of the main landing gear shock absorber (and thus the nominal increase in tail clearance during the rotation) relies on
the correct inflation of the oleos.
ACTION IN CASE OF TAIL STRIKE
If a tail strike occurs at takeoff,
flight at altitude requiring a pressurized cabin must be avoided and a return to the departure airport should be performed for damage assessment.
At the acceleration altitude, the FD pitch mode changes from
SRS to CLB or OP CLB mode
At the acceleration altitude, the speed target jumps:
- Either to the managed target speed e.g. speed constraint, speed limit or ECON climb speed * Or to the preselected climb speed (entered by the pilot on the MCDU PERF CLB page before
takeoff).
If green dot speed is higher than the managed target speed (e.g. speed constraint 220 kt) displayed by the magenta triangle on the PFD speed scale, the AP/FD will guide the aircraft to
green dot (as per the general managed speed guidance rule)
During takeoff phase, F and S speeds are the minimum speeds for retracting the surfaces:
- At F speed, the aircraft accelerating (positive speed trend): retract to 1.
- At S speed, the aircraft accelerating (positive speed trend): retract to 0.
If take-off is carried out at heavy weight, two protections may intervene:
‐ The Automatic Retraction System (ARS)
‐ The Alpha Lock function
THE AUTOMATIC RETRACTION SYSTEM
While in CONF 1+F and IAS reaches 210 kt (VFE CONF1+F is 215 kt or 225 kt on some A321, the ARS is activated. The ARS automatically retracts flaps to 0 °. The VFE displayed on the PFD change from VFE CONF1+F to VFE CONF 1. As the aircraft accelerates above S speed, the flap lever can be selected to 0. If IAS decreases below VFE CONF1+F, the flaps will not extend back to 1+F.
THE ALPHA LOCK FUNCTION
The slats alpha/speed lock function will prevent slat retraction at high AOA or low speed at the moment the flap lever is moved from Flaps 1 to Flaps 0. “A. LOCK” pulses above the E/WD Slat indication. The inhibition is removed and the slats retract when both alpha and speed fall within normal values. This is a normal situation for take-off at heavy weight.
During the Slats/Flaps transition, the flight crew must respect the VMAX displayed on the PFD. The VMAX value displayed on the PFD speed scale is based on ___.
the Slats/Flaps control lever position
During Slats/Flaps transition, the dynamic acceleration of the airplane may lead to a temporary OVERSPEED WARNING even if the current speed is out of the red and black strip displayed on the PFD. The flight crew must:
report any type of overspeed event.
If the aircraft is required to level off below the acceleration altitude, ALT* engages and target speed goes to initial climb speed. The “LVR CLB” message flashes on the FMA. In this case, the crew should expect
a faster than normal acceleration, and be prepared to retract the flaps and slats promptly.
The AP/FD climb modes may be either:
‐ Managed, or
‐ Selected.
The managed AP/FD mode in climb is
CLB. Its use is recommended as long as the aircraft is cleared along the F-PLN.
The selected AP/FD modes in climb are
OP CLB, V/S and EXPED
If the crew selects a high V/S, it may happen that the aircraft is unable to climb with this high V/S and to maintain the target speed with Max Climb thrust, for performance reasons. In that case, the AP/FD will
guide to the target V/S, and the A/THR will command up to Max Climb thrust, in order to try to keep the target speed; but the aircraft will decelerate and its speed might reach VLS. When VLS is reached the AP will pitch the aircraft down so as to fly a V/S, which allows maintaining VLS. A triple click is generated.
Whenever V/S is used, pilots should pay particular attention to the speed trend as
V/S takes precedence over speed requirements.
The EXPED mode is used to climb with maximum vertical gradient i.e. the target speed becomes
green dot. Its use should be avoided above FL 250.
The crew should be aware that altitude constraints in the MCDU F-PLN page are observed only when
the climb is managed, i.e. when CLB is displayed on the FMA. Any other vertical mode will disregard any altitude constraints.
The use of low values of V/S, e.g. less than 1 000 ft/min, may be appropriate for small altitude changes as
it makes the guidance smoother and needs less thrust variation.
The climb speed may be either:
‐ Managed, or
‐ Selected.
The managed climb speed, computed by the FMGS, provides
the most economical climb profile as it takes into account weight, actual and predicted winds, ISA deviation and Cost Index (CI).
The managed climb speed also takes into account any speed constraints, e.g.
the default speed limit which is 250 kt up to 10 000 ft.
On ground, prior take-off, speed target at acceleration altitude can be pre-selected on the MCDU PERF CLIMB page. It is to be used when
the F-PLN has a sharp turn after take-off, when high angle of climb is required or for ATC clearance compliance.
The speed to achieve the maximum rate of climb, i.e. to reach a given altitude in the shortest time, lies between
ECON climb speed and green dot. As there is no indication of this speed on the PFD, a good rule of thumb is to use turbulence speed to achieve maximum rate.
The speed to achieve the maximum gradient of climb, i.e. to reach a given altitude in a shortest distance, is
green dot.
Avoid reducing to green dot at high altitude, particularly at heavy weight, as
it can take a long time to accelerate to ECON mach.
Pilots should be aware that it is possible to select and fly a speed below green dot but
there would be no operational benefit in doing this.
When selected speed is used, the predictions on the F-PLN page assume the selected speed is kept till
the next planned speed modification, e.g. 250 kt /10 000 ft, where managed speed is supposed to be resumed. Consequently, the FM predictions remain meaningful.
When IAS is selected in lower altitude, there is an automatic change to Mach at a specific
crossover altitude.
Finally, as selected speed does not provide the optimum climb profile, it should only be used when
operationally required, e.g. ATC constraint or weather.
The MCDU PERF CLB page provides predictions to a given FL in terms of time and distance assuming
CLB mode
The crew should keep in mind that the use of HDG mode e.g. following ATC radar vectors, will revert CLB to
OP CLB and any altitude constraints in the MCDU F-PLN page will not be observed unless they are selected on the FCU.
In some specific cases, the FMS Go-Around phase may be unduly activated. This situation may be encountered after takeoff if
the aircraft is above the ACC ALT and the flight crew sets the thrust levers to TOGA detent with at least CONF 1.
In UNDUE ACTIVATION OF GO-AROUND PHASE situation, the flight crew should do either of the following in order to activate the CLIMB phase:
‐ Insert a NEW DEST (different from the current DEST), or
‐ Select the ALTN destination.
If the aircraft is cleared to a lower cruise flight level than the pre-planned cruise flight level displayed on MCDU PROG page, the ___ will not be targeted.
cruise Mach number
When at cruise FL, the AP altitude control is soft. This means that
the AP will allow small altitude variation around the cruise altitude (typically ± 50 ft) to keep cruise Mach before a readjustment of thrust occurs. This optimizes the fuel consumption in cruise.
When reaching cruise FL, Wind entries should be made at waypoints when
there is a difference of either 30 ° or 30 kt for the wind data and 5 °C for temperature deviation. This will ensure that the FMS fuel and time predictions are as accurate as possible.
STEP CLIMB
If at the first waypoint beyond the step, the CFP provides the wind at FL 350 but not at FL 310, it is recommended to insert the same wind at FL 310 as the one at
FL 350. This is due to wind propagation rules, which might affect the optimum FL computation.
ETP function should be used to assist the crew in
making a decision should an en-route diversion be required.
Each time an ETP is sequenced, the crew should
insert the next suitable diversion airfield.
The ETP should be inserted in the SEC F-PLN as
PD (Place/Distance) and the route to diversion airfield should be finalized. By programming a potential en-route diversion, the crew would reduce their workload should a failure occur. This is particularly true when terrain considerations apply to the intended diversion route.
When an ETP is sequenced, the crew will:
‐ Access the ETP page
‐ Insert the next applicable diversion airfield with associated wind ‐ Read new ETP
‐ Insert new ETP as a PD
‐ Copy active on the SEC F-PLN
‐ Insert the new diversion as New Dest in the SEC F-PLN from new ETP.
CLOSEST AIRPORT
For diversion purpose, the crew can also use the CLOSEST AIRPORT page which provides valuable fuel/time estimates to the ___ closest airports from the aircraft position, as well as to an airport the crew may define. The fuel and time predictions are a function of the average wind between the aircraft and the airport.
four
If ATC gives a DIR TO clearance to a waypoint far from present position, the crew will use the ABEAM facility. This facility allows both
a better crew orientation and the previously entered winds to be still considered
The Cost Index (CI) is used to take into account the relationship between
fuel and time related costs in order to minimize the trip cost.
The CI is calculated by the airline for each sector. From an operational point of view, the CI affects
the speeds (ECON SPEED/MACH) and cruise altitude (OPT ALT). CI=0 corresponds to maximum range whereas the CI=999 corresponds to minimum time.
The CI is a strategic parameter which applies to the whole flight. However, the CI can be modified by the crew in flight for valid strategic operational reasons. For example, if the crew needs to reduce the speed for the entire flight to comply with curfew requirements or fuel management requirements (XTRA gets close to 0), then it is appropriate to
reduce the CI.
The ___ can be used to check the predictions associated with new CI.
SEC F-PLN
The cruise speed may be either:
‐ Managed, or
‐ Selected.
When the cruise altitude is reached, the A/THR operates in SPEED/MACH mode. The optimum cruise Mach number is automatically targeted. Its value depends on:
‐ CI
‐ Cruise flight level
‐ Temperature deviation
‐ Weight
‐ Headwind component.
The crew should be aware that the optimum Mach number will vary according to the above mentioned parameters, e.g.
it will increase with an increasing headwind, e.g. +50 kt head wind equates to M +0.01.
Should ATC require a specific time over a waypoint, the crew can perform
a vertical revision on that waypoint and enter a time constraint. The managed Mach number would be modified accordingly to achieve this constraint. If the constraint can be met within a tolerance, a magenta asterix will be displayed on the MCDU; if the constraint cannot be met, an amber asterix will be displayed. Once the constrained waypoint is sequenced, the ECON Mach is resumed.
At high altitude, the speed should not be reduced below GREEN DOT as this may create a situation where
it is impossible to maintain speed and/or altitude as the increased drag may exceed the available thrust.
FACTORS THAT CAUSE A SPEED DECAY DURING CRUISE
‐ A large and continuous increase in tailwind or decrease in headwind, in addition to an increase in the OAT, that results in a decrease of the REC MAX FL
‐ A large downdraft, when the flight crew flies (parallel and) downwind in a mountainous area, due to orographic waves. Without sufficient thrust margin, the flight crew may notice that aircraft speed decays, but the REC MAX FL is not modified.
THRUST MARGIN AND EXTERNAL PARAMETERS
The flight crew must be aware that at high altitude, the thrust margin ___ is limited.
(difference between the thrust in use and the maximum available thrust)
The REC MAX FL indicated in the PROG page of the MCDU ___ when the OAT increases.
decreases
The nearer the aircraft is to the REC MAX FL, the ___ the thrust margin.
smaller
GREEN DOT SPEED AS A REFERENCE
The optimum lift/drag speed is the ___.
GD speed
The GD speed uses the lowest quantity of thrust necessary to maintain ___
the required/desired altitude
If aircraft speed is below GD speed and continues to decrease, even with the maximum available thrust in use, if the flight crew maintains the current altitude, the angle of attack will ___
further increase.
The nearer the aircraft is to the REC MAX FL, the smaller is the thrust margin that the flight crew has to manage a speed decay during cruise.
If the aircraft speed goes below GD speed, with the maximum available thrust in use, the only way for the flight crew to avoid an increase in the angle of attack is to
descend
REC MAX FL reflects the present engine and wing performance and does not take into account the cost aspect. It provides a ___ buffet margin.
0.3 g
If the crew inserts a FL higher than REC MAX into the MCDU, it will be accepted only if it provides a buffet margin greater than ___.
0.2 g / Otherwise, it will be rejected and the message “CRZ ABOVE MAX FL” will appear on the MCDU scratchpad. This message may also be triggered in case of temperature increase leading the aircraft to fly above the REC MAX FL.
Unless there are overriding operational considerations, e.g. either to accept a cruise FL higher than REC MAX or to be held significantly lower for a long period, ___ should be considered as the upper cruise limit.
REC MAX
OPT FL displayed on the MCDU is the cruise altitude for
minimum cost when ECON MACH is flown and should be followed whenever possible. It is important to note that the OPT FL displayed on the PROG page is meaningful only if the wind and temperature profile has been accurately entered.
For each Mach number, there will be a different OPT FL. Should an FMGS failure occur, the crew should refer to the ___ to determine the OPT FL.
FCOM or QRH
From a cost point of view, it is better to climb to a higher cruise altitude when aircraft weight permits, because the ___ increases when fuel is consumed during the flight. This technique is referred to as a Step Climb.
optimum altitude
In order to determine the optimum location of the next FL change, the flight crew uses the OPTIMUM STEP POINT function on the MCDU STEP ALTS page which is either accessed from the
MCDU F-PLN/VERT REV page or the MCDU PERF CRZ page.
The OPT STEP computation is accurate if the flight crew accurately entered the
vertical wind profile.
It can be advantageous to request an initial cruise altitude above the OPT FL, if altitude changes are difficult to obtain on specific routes. This minimizes the possibility of
being held at a low altitude and in high fuel consumption condition for long periods of time. The flight crew should compare the requested/cleared cruise altitude to the REC MAX FL. Before the flight crew accepts an altitude above the OPT FL, they should determine if this FL will remain acceptable considering the projected flight conditions such as turbulence, standing waves or temperature changes.
Fuel freeze refers to the formation of wax crystals suspended in the fuel, which can accumulate when fuel temperature is below the ___ and can prevent proper fuel feed to the engines.
freeze point (-47 °C for jet A1)
Fuel temperature will slowly reduce towards TAT. The rate of cooling of fuel can be expected to be in the order of
3 °C per hour with a maximum of 12 °C per hour in the most extreme conditions.
If fuel temperature approaches the minimum allowed, the ECAM outputs a caution. Consideration should be given to achieving a higher TAT:
- Descending or diverting to a warmer air mass may be considered. Below the tropopause, a
4 000 ft descent gives a 7 °C increase in TAT. In severe cases, a descent to as low as 25 000 ft may be required. - Increasing Mach number will also increase TAT. An increase of M 0.01 produces approximately
0.7 °C increase in TAT.
In order to assess the landing performance, the flight crew should follow the two main steps:
- Identify the Braking Performance Level with the RCAM for RWY COND selection in the LDG
PERF application - Calculate the Landing Performance with the LDG PERF application. Consider a margin of
15 % (Factored In-Flight Landing Distance), except under abnormal operations.
USE OF REVERSE THRUST
When the runway is wet or contaminated, Airbus recommends the use of:
maximum reverse thrust.
To avoid landing with unduly high autobrake settings, the FLD with autobrake may exceed the LDA as long as all of the following conditions are satisfied:
‐ The RWYCC is 5 or 6
‐ The LD with autobrake is less than the LDA
‐ The FLD with maximum manual braking is less than the LDA.
When information is provided in the non-GRF SNOWTAM format, or any other local format, the flight crew should
use the RCAM to determine the appropriate input parameters for the performance computation.
The purpose of the RCAM is
to provide the flight crew with an identification method of an appropriate Braking Performance Level, if it is not provided by the airport.
The RCAM provides 6 Braking Performance Levels:
‐ 6 - Dry
‐ 5 - Good
‐ 4 - Good to Medium
‐ 3 - Medium
‐ 2 - Medium to Poor
‐ 1 - Poor
USE OF THE RCAM
The flight crew makes a primary assessment based on Runway Condition information (i.e. runway state, contaminant type, depth, temperature). This results in a primary Braking Performance Level.
Then, the flight crew downgrades this primary Braking Performance Level, if:
‐ A Special AIREP is available and this AIREP corresponds to a lower Braking Performance
Level
‐ A SNOWTAM includes a lower RWYCC, or the ESF corresponds to a lower Braking
Performance Level
‐ Complementary information is available and is related to a possible degradation of the Runway Condition or braking action.
In the following example, the reported Runway Condition is wet, and the AIREP is “Good to Medium”:
1. The primary assessment based on Runway Condition information results in ___
2. The downgrade based on Reported Braking Action results in ___
“5 - Good”
“4 - Good to Medium”
Operations on hail covered surfaces are not recommended due
to the risk of engine ingestion and airframe damage.
If the flight crew downgrades the braking performance assessment after they consider additional information, they should also downgrade the
maximum crosswind value.
In the case of strong or gusty crosswind above 20 kt, VAPP should be
at least VLS +5 kt; the 5 kt increment above VLS may be increased up to 15 kt at the flight crew’s discretion.
RISK OF DEGRADED RUNWAY CONDITIONS
If meteorological conditions may change, or under active precipitation, the flight crew should consider
a backup assessment of the in-flight landing performance. This assessment should take into account the worst probable Braking Performance Level.
The airport can downgrade any RWYCC to any lower RWYCC. It should not report any RWYCC 0, as in that case,
the runway must be closed.
In some situations, the airport may report a better RWYCC than the primary one obtained from the RCAM. The maximum upgraded RWYCC is ___.
3
The ___ should never upgrade an RWYCC on their own initiative.
flight crew
DIFFERENT RWYCC ON DIFFERENT THIRDS
The flight crew should use the ___ RWYCC for the landing performance assessment, unless a specific operator policy applies.
worst
EXAMPLES OF LANDING PERFORMANCE CODE - LEVEL ASSESSMENT
RUNWAY CONTAMINATED BY COMPACTED SNOW, OAT -10 °C
RUNWAY COVERED BY LESS THAN 3 MM (1/8 IN) OF WATER BUT HEAVY RAIN WITH STORM CELLS IN THE VICINITY ARE REPORTED
RUNWAY COVERED BY TREATED ICE (COLD AND DRY) WITH AN ESTIMATED SURFACE FRICTION GOOD OR RUNWAY CONDITION CODE 3
Two different factors affect the life of carbon brakes:
‐ The wear of the disks
‐ The oxidation of the disks.
The oxidation may degrade rapidly the carbon brakes and may cause the rupture of a brake disk. The main cause of oxidation is
the repetitive high temperature of the brakes (particularly above 400 °C). Therefore, the flight crew should preferably use autobrake LO when performance permits.
The flight crew should obtain the latest information for landing (weather, runway state, braking action, etc.) at the latest
15 min prior to descent.
T/D AND PROFILE COMPUTATION
The FMGS calculates the T/D point backwards from
a position 1 000 ft on the final approach with speed at VAPP. It takes into account any descent speed and altitude constraints and assumes managed speed is used. The descent path is computed as an idle segment.
T/D AND PROFILE COMPUTATION
If the STAR includes a holding pattern, it is not considered for T/D or fuel computation. This T/D is displayed on the ND track as
a white symbol
MANAGED DESCENT SPEED PROFILE
The managed speed is equal to:
‐ The ECON speed (which may have been modified by the flight crew on the PERF DES page
before entering DESCENT phase or, during DESCENT phase), or
‐ The speed constraint or limit when applicable.
TOD AND PROFILE COMPUTATION
The first segment of the descent will always be idle segment until the first altitude constraint is reached. Subsequent segments will be
“geometric”, i.e. the descent will be flown at a specific angle, taking into account any subsequent constraints
With Descent Profile Optimization option (DPO), the idle segment assumes
given managed speed flown at idle thrust. This gives less flexibility to keep the aircraft on the descent path if engine anti-ice is used or if winds vary.
TOD AND PROFILE COMPUTATION
The idle segment assumes a given managed speed flown with
idle thrust plus a small amount of thrust. This gives some flexibility to keep the aircraft on the descent path if engine anti-ice is used or if winds vary.
During idle segment, the A/THR commands THR IDLE or depending on FMGS standard, MACH/SPEED.
During geometric segment, the A/THR commands MACH/SPEED.
The managed DES mode guides the aircraft along the FMS pre-computed descent profile, as long as it flies along the lateral F-PLN: i.e. DES mode is available if NAV is engaged. As a general rule when DES mode is used, the descent is monitored using:
‐ The VDEV called “yoyo” on the PFD and the associated Latch symbol, and
‐ The VDEV digital value on the FMS PROG page, and ‐ The level arrow on the ND.
When OP DES or V/S modes are used, the descent is monitored using
the Energy Circle, (displayed if HDG or TRK modes and indicating the required distance to descend, decelerate and land from present position) and the level arrow on the ND. When the aircraft is not far away from the lateral F-PLN (small XTK), the “yoyo” on the PFD is also a good indicator.
MANAGED DESCENT MODE
The managed descent profile from high altitude is approximately ___
2.5 °
When in DES mode, the FMGS gives priority to the
vertical profile over the speed management.
Therefore, if the aircraft is on the profile and the speed increases with the engines already at
idle the aircraft will accelerate. In such situation, the flight crew should
use the speedbrakes as necessary to manage the aircraft speed, if required. The AP protection will prevent the aircraft from exceeding VMO/MMO. In such situation the aircraft will leave the vertical profile to decelerate.
To avoid overshooting the computed descent path, it is preferable to
push the FCU ALT selector a few miles prior to the calculated T/D. This method will ensure a controlled entry into the descent and is particularly useful in situations of high cruise Mach number or strong upper winds.
DESCENT INITIATION
If the descent is delayed, speed should be
reduced towards green dot, and when cleared for descent, the flight crew will push for DES and push for managed speed. The speed reduction prior to descent will enable the aircraft to recover the computed profile more quickly as it accelerates to the managed descent speed.
___ is automatically selected when HDG or TRK mode is selected by the flight crew, while in DES mode
V/S mode
In OP DES mode, the A/THR commands ___ and the speed is controlled by the ___.
THR IDLE / THS
If the flight crew wishes to increase the rate of descent, OP DES mode can be used, selecting a higher speed. Speedbrake is very effective in increasing descent rate but should be used with caution at high altitude due to
the associated increase in VLS.
DESCENT PROFILE
the DES mode operates within a speed range which can go up to ___ depending on the FMGS standard.
VMO-5 kt as upper limit and MANAGED SPD-20 kt as lower limit (limited by VLS).
Whenever holding is anticipated, it is preferable to
maintain cruise level and reduce speed to green dot, with ATC clearance, to minimize the holding requirement.
If a hold is to be flown, provided NAV mode is engaged and the speed is managed, ___ will occur to achieve the hold speed when entering the holding pattern.
an automatic speed reduction
HOLDING SPEED AND CONFIGURATION
The default hold speed is the lowest of the following:
‐ Maximum Endurance speed
‐ ICAO limit holding speed
‐ Speed constraint (if any).
HOLDING SPEED AND CONFIGURATION
When no specific speed limit applies, the default hold speed is
the Maximum Endurance speed, which is approximately equal to Green Dot and provides the lowest hourly fuel consumption.
If the Maximum Endurance speed is greater than the ICAO or state maximum holding speed, the crew should
select flap 1 below 20 000 ft and fly S speed.
HOLDING SPEED AND CONFIGURATION
Fuel consumption will be increased when holding in anything other than
clean configuration and Maximum Endurance speed
IN THE HOLDING PATTERN
The holding pattern is not included in the descent path computation since
the FMGS does not know how many patterns will be flown.
When the holding fix is sequenced, the FMGS assumes that
only one holding pattern will be flown and updates predictions accordingly.
the VDEV indicates the vertical deviation between current aircraft altitude and the altitude at which the aircraft should cross the exit fix in order to be on the descent profile.
The DES mode guides the aircraft down at ___ whilst in the holding pattern until reaching the cleared altitude or altitude constraint.
-1 000 ft/min
When in the holding pattern, LAST EXIT UTC/FUEL information is displayed on:
the MCDU HOLD page
LAST EXIT UTC/FUEL predictions are based upon the fuel policy requirements specified on the MCDU FUEL PRED page with
no extra fuel, assuming the aircraft will divert
The crew should be aware that LAST EXIT UTC/FUEL information is computed with defined assumptions e.g.:
‐ Aircraft weight being equal to landing weight at primary destination
‐ Flight at FL 220 if distance to ALTN is less than 200 NM, otherwise FL 310 performed at maximum
range speed.
‐ Constant wind (as entered in alternate field of the DES WIND page). ‐ Constant delta ISA (equal to delta ISA at primary destination)
‐ Airway distance for a company route, otherwise direct distance.
To exit the holding pattern, the crew should select either:
‐ IMM EXIT (The aircraft will return immediately to the hold fix, exit the holding pattern and resume
its navigation), or
‐ HDG if radar vectors, or
‐ DIR TO if radar vectors
DISCONTINUED APPROACH
The discontinued approach is an alternative technique to the GO AROUND procedure to interrupt an approach when
the aircraft is at or above the selected FCU altitude.
Contrary to the GO AROUND procedure, the discontinued approach technique does not require the flight crew to set the thrust levers to TOGA detent.
DISCONTINUED APPROACH
The flight crew should initiate the discontinued approach technique with the callout:
“CANCEL APPROACH”
DISCONTINUED APPROACH
The first action of the flight crew is to disengage and disarm any AP/FD approach mode, by pressing
APPR pb or LOC pb
When in NAV mode, the F-PLN will sequence automatically. In HDG/TRK mode, the F-PLN waypoints will sequence automatically only if
the aircraft flies close to the planned route.
If ATC provides radar vectors and automatic waypoint sequencing does not occur, the flight crew should use the DIR TO RADIAL IN function, or delete the FROM waypoint on the F-PLN page until
the next likely waypoint to be overflown is displayed as the TO waypoint on the ND. This ensures:
‐ A proper F-PLN sequencing
‐ A comprehensive ND display
‐ An assistance for lateral interception
‐ The VDEV to be computed on reasonable distance assumptions.
F-PLN SEQUENCING
‐ DIR TO RADIAL IN must not be used beyond the Final Descent Point, in order to ensure that
the vertical profile in final is unchanged.
DECELERATED APPROACH
This technique refers to an approach where the aircraft reaches
1 000 ft in the landing configuration at VAPP. In most cases, this equates to the aircraft being in CONF 1 and at S speed at the FDP. This is the preferred technique for an approach using vertical managed guidance. The deceleration pseudo waypoint assumes a decelerated approach technique.
EARLY STABILIZED APPROACH
This technique refers to an approach where the aircraft reaches the FDP in the landing configuration at VAPP. The pilot should enter VAPP as a speed constraint at the FDP to get
a valuable deceleration pseudo waypoint and to ensure a timely deceleration.
DECELERATION AND CONFIGURATION CHANGE
To achieve a constant deceleration and to minimize thrust variation, the crew should extend the next configuration when
reaching the current configuration maneuvering speed +10 kt (IAS must be lower than VFE next), e.g. when the speed reaches green dot +10 kt, the crew should select CONF 1.
DECELERATION AND CONFIGURATION CHANGE
Next configuration when reaching the current configuration maneuvering speed +10 kt technique, the mean deceleration rate will be approximately
10 kt/NM in level flight. This deceleration rate will be twice i.e. 20 kt/NM, with the use of the speedbrakes.
DECELERATION AND CONFIGURATION CHANGE
speed below the maneuvering speed of the present configuration may be selected provided it is
above VLS+ 5 kt
In certain circumstances, e.g. tail wind or high weight, the deceleration rate may be insufficient. In this case, the landing gear may be lowered, preferably below
220 kt (to avoid gear doors overstress), and before selection of Flap 2.
Speedbrakes can also be used to increase the deceleration rate but the crew should be aware of:
‐ The increase in VLS with the use of speedbrakes
‐ The limited effect at low speeds
‐ The speed brake auto-retraction when selecting CONF FULL (A320) or CONF 3 (A321only)
FINAL APPROACH
USE OF A/THR
The flight crew should use the A/THR for approaches as it provides accurate speed control. The PF should
keep the hand on the thrust levers so as to be prepared to react if needed.
FINAL APPROACH
USE OF A/THR
During final approach, the managed target speed moves along the speed scale as a function of
wind variation. If ATC gives a new wind for landing, the flight crew will update it on MCDU PERF APPR page.
If the PF uses manual thrust for landing, the PF should disconnect the A/THR at
1 000 ft AAL at the latest
The pilot should disconnect the autopilot early enough to resume manual control of the aircraft and to evaluate the ___. During crosswind conditions, the pilot should avoid any tendency to ___
drift before flare & drift downwind
During crosswind conditions, Some common errors include:
‐ Descending below the final path, and/or
‐ reducing the drift too early.
If the ATC clears for approach at a significant distance, e.g. 30 NM, the flight crew should be aware that the G/S may be perturbed and CAT 1 will be displayed on FMA till
valid Radio Altimeter signal is received.
GLIDE SLOPE INTERCEPTION FROM ABOVE
In order to get the best rate of descent when cleared by ATC and below the limiting speeds, the flight crew should
lower the landing gear and select flaps as required (at least CONF 2 should be selected to ensure that the aircraft speed will not increase). Speedbrakes may also be used.
GLIDE SLOPE INTERCEPTION FROM ABOVE
The following procedure must only be applied when
established on the localizer
GLIDE SLOPE INTERCEPTION FROM ABOVE
When cleared to intercept the glide slope, the flight crew should:
‐ Press the APPR pb on FCU and confirm G/S is armed and LOC engaged, monitor the vertical interception
‐ Select the FCU altitude above aircraft altitude to avoid unwanted ALT* engagement
‐ Select V/S 1 500 ft/min initially. V/S in excess of 2 000 ft/min will result in the speed increasing
towards VFE.
The Decision Height (DH) is the
wheel height above the runway elevation by which a go around must be initiated unless appropriate visual reference has been established.
The DH is based on RA.
The Alert Height (AH) is the
height above the runway, based on the characteristics of the aeroplane and its fail-operational automatic landing system, above which a CATIII approach would be discontinued and a missed approach initiated if a failure occurred in one of the redundant parts of the automatic landing system, or in the relevant ground equipment.
The AH concept is relevant when ___ is displayed on FMA.
CAT 3 DUAL
On single aisle Airbus family, the AH =
100 ft
CAT 3 SINGLE is announced when the airborne systems are fail passive which means that
single failure will lead to the AP disconnection without any significant out of trim condition or deviation of the flight path or attitude. Manual flight is then required. This minimum DH is 50 ft.
CAT 3 DUAL is announced when
airborne systems are fail-operational. In case of a single failure, the AP will continue to guide the aircraft on the flight path and the automatic landing system will operate as a fail-passive system.
CAT 3 DUAL
In the event of a failure below the AH, the approach, flare and landing can be completed by
remaining part of the automatic system. In that case, no capability degradation is indicated. Such a redundancy allows CAT III operations with or without DH.
In addition to the normal flight preparation, the following preparation must be performed when CAT II or CAT III approach is planned:
‐ Ensure that destination airport meets CAT II or CAT III requirements
‐ Check aircraft required equipment for CAT 2 or CAT 3 in QRH
‐ Check that crew qualification is current
‐ Consider extra fuel for possible approach delay ‐ Consider weather at alternate
The failures that may affect the aircraft’s CAT 2 or CAT 3 capability are listed in the QRH. Most of these failures are monitored by
FMGS and the landing capability will be displayed on the FMA once the APPR pb is pressed
There are a number of failures which affect the aircraft’s landing capability which are not monitored by the FMGS and, consequently, not reflected on the FMA. It is very important, therefore, that the crew refer
QRH to establish the actual landing capability if some equipment are listed inoperative.
The crew must realise the importance of eye position during low visibility approaches and landing. A too low seat position may
reduce the visual segment
As a rule of thumb, an incorrect seating position which reduces the cut-off angle by 1 ° reduces the visual segment by
approximately 10 m (30 ft)
The use of landing lights at night in low visibility can be detrimental to the acquisition of visual reference. ___ may actually reduce visibility.
Reflected lights from water droplets or snow
Should a failure occur above 1 000 ft RA, all ECAM actions (and DH amendment if required) should be completed before reaching ___, otherwise a go-around should be initiated.
1 000 ft RA
The PF supervises the approach (trajectory, attitude, speed) and takes appropriate decision at DH or in case of failure.
The PF announces ___, when displayed on FMA.
“LAND”
The PM is head down throughout the automatic approach and automatic landing.
The PM monitors:
‐ The FMA and calls all mode changes below 350 ft as required (i.e. after PF calls “LAND”) ‐ The Auto call out
‐ The aircraft trajectory or attitude exceedance
‐ Any failures.
The PM should be go-around minded.
AUTOMATIC APPROACH AND AUTOMATIC LANDING
- Below ___, data coming from the FMS is frozen e.g.: ILS tune inhibit
‐ Below ___, the FCU is frozen
‐ At ___, LAND must be displayed on FMA. This ensures correct final approach guidance.
700 ft RA
400 ft RA
350 ft
AUTOMATIC APPROACH AND AUTOMATIC LANDING
‐ Below 200 ft, the AUTOLAND warning is triggered if:
- Both APs trip off
- Excessive beam deviation is sensed
- Localizer or glide slope transmitter or receiver fails
- A RA discrepancy of at least 15 ft is sensed.
AUTOMATIC APPROACH AND AUTOMATIC LANDING
‐ FLARE comes at ___
‐ THR IDLE comes at ___
‐ RETARD auto call out comes at ___ for autoland as an order (Instead of 20 ft for manual
landing as a reminder).
40 ft
30 ft
10 ft
If a failure occurs prior to reaching the AH, a go-around will be initiated. A go-around must nevertheless be performed if
AUTOLAND warning is triggered below AH.
A late go-around may result in ground contact. If touch down occurs after TOGA is engaged, the AP remains engaged in that mode and A/THR remains in TOGA. The ___ are inhibited.
ground spoilers and auto-brake
If visual references are lost after touch down, a go-around should
not be attempted. The roll-out should be continued with AP in ROLL OUT mode down to taxi speed.
For CAT II approaches, autoland is recommended. If manual landing is preferred, the PF will take-over at
80 ft at the latest. This ensures a smooth transition for the manual landing.
IDENTIFICATION OF FINAL DESCENT POINT
It is recommended to arm FINAL APP mode when
TO waypoint is the FDP
If the green solid line does not intercept the ___, APP NAV mode will not engage.
PRE NAV engagement path
VDEV becomes active and represents the vertical deviation, which may include a level segment. The VDEV/brick scale will only be displayed if
ILS or LS pb is not pressed. If the ILS or LS pb is pressed by mistake, the V/DEV will flash in amber on the PFD.
In some NPAs, the final approach flies an ___ segment from one altitude constraint to another, followed by a level segment. This is materialized by a magenta level off symbol on ND followed by a blue start of descent.
“idle descent”
When the aircraft reaches the minima, the PM either monitors or announces “MINIMUM”. The current altitude value becomes
amber
Keeping the AP/FD below minima when visual references are acquired is highly valuable in the following conditions:
‐ High minima above ground level
‐ Marginal weather conditions.
When the FINAL APP mode is used for approach, the FDs provide lateral and vertical managed guidance down to
MAP. The flight crew can keep the AP/FD engaged below minima.
When the FINAL APP mode is used for approach, the guidance may not be relevant especially in the following cases:
‐ MAP not at the RWY threshold and final segment not aligned with the runway track
(final segment does not cross the RWY threshold)
‐ Strong offset between final segment and runway track.
At the MAP or Minimum Use Height of the AP:
The FMS invalidates the vertical profile at
MAP. The FDs revert from FINAL APP to HDG V/S mode.
During NPA, the flight crew must disconnect the AP no later than
MAP or the Minimum Use Height of AP, whichever occurs first
COLD WEATHER OPERATIONS
For all Non Precision Approaches, there is a minimum OAT. Below this temperature,
the error on the barometric altitude is no longer acceptable, and altitude should be corrected in temperature.
COLD WEATHER OPERATIONS
As it is not authorized to make these altitude corrections to the final approach segment of the FM
Flight Plan (F-PLN) through the MCDU, it is not possible to use FINAL APP when OAT is below this minimum OAT. The flight crew must then use
selected vertical guidance.
The Final Path Angle (FPA) should be preset on the FCU ___ prior to the FDP at the latest.
A smooth interception of the final approach path can be achieved by pulling the FPA selector ___ prior to the FDP.
1 NM
0.3 NM
LOC B/C approach should be flown using the TRK mode for lateral guidance and the FPA mode for vertical guidance. The approach is flown using
ND in ROSE LS/ILS mode as it shows the correct LEFT/RIGHT information for the beam deviation.
BACK COURSE LOCALIZER APPROACH
Back course localizer (LOC B/C) approach consists in using the LOC signal of the opposite runway for lateral approach management.
The preferred technique is
the early stabilized approach technique, using the AP/FD and A/THR.
BACK COURSE LOCALIZER APPROACH
The flight crew should manually enter the ILS in the MCDU RAD NAV page. The front course will be entered in
CRS field
BACK COURSE LOCALIZER APPROACH
The flight crew must not select ILS via the ILS/LS pb: doing so
makes the PFD show reverse deviations.
The flight crew must not arm the LOC or APPR modes.
VISUAL APPROACH
The flight crew will aim to get the following configuration at beginning of the downwind leg:
‐ Both AP and FDs will be selected off
‐ BIRD ON
‐ A/THR confirmed active in speed mode, i.e. SPEED on the FMA
‐ Managed speed will be used to enable the “GS mini” function
‐ The downwind track will be selected on the FCU to assist in downwind tracking ‐ The downwind track altitude will be set on FCU.
VISUAL APPROACH
Assuming a 1 500 ft AAL circuit, the base turn should be commenced
45 s after passing abeam the downwind threshold (3 s/100 ft +/- 1 s/1 kt of headwind / tailwind).
VISUAL APPROACH
The final turn onto the runway centreline will be commenced with
20 ° angle of bank. Initially the rate of descent should be 400 ft/min, increasing to 700 ft/min when established on the correct descent path.
VISUAL APPROACH
The pilot will aim to be configured for landing at VAPP by
500 ft AAL
ILS RAW DATA
The TRK index will be set to the ILS course and, once established on the LOC, the tail of the bird should be coincident with
the TRK index. This method allows accurate LOC tracking taking into account the drift.
ILS RAW DATA
Should the LOC deviate, the pilot will
fly the bird in the direction of the LOC index, and when re-established on the LOC, set the tail of the bird on the TRK index again. If there is further LOC deviation, check unwanted residual bank angle.
ILS RAW DATA
Slight IRS drift should be suspected as the bird is computed out of
IRS data.
