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G650 > G650 Check Ride Prep > Flashcards

G650 Check Ride Prep Flashcards

1
Q

What percent of the total fuel can be stored by the plenum and vent tubes?

A

2%

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2
Q

How is automatic refueling controlled?

A

Via Standby Multifunction Controller (SMC) in the cockpit or refuel panel located at fueling station.

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3
Q

How many boost pumps does the G650 have and where are they located?

A

There are four (4) identical and interchangeable fuel boost pumps in the main wheel wells attached to the aft portion of each hopper. One (1) Main powered by Essential DC and One (1) Alternate powered by the Main DC bus in each tank powered by its respective side (L & R).

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4
Q

When does the “Fuel Crossflow Valve Open” message change to amber?

A

After five (5) minutes.

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5
Q

What’s the warning associated with the use of the crossflow valve?

A

Always OPEN the crossflow valve BEFORE turning OFF both boost pumps on one side. Without boosted pressure above 20,000’ Gulfstream says the engine will run erratically and flameout. This is also true in the reverse scenario when you go to close the crossflow valve, so make sure to turn the pumps back on BEFORE CLOSING the valve.

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6
Q

What happens when the FUEL RETURN switch is selected to AUTO?

A

The OFF caption extinguishes and the system allows heated fuel into the tanks when fuel tank temperature is approximately 0C or colder. When tank temperatures warm to approximately +10C, heated fuel stops flowing to the tanks.

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7
Q

When will the the heated fuel return system be inhibited?

A

In normal conditions:
-FUEL RETURN OFF/AUTO switch selection to OFF (both sides)
-Crossflow valve open
-Engine at high power setting.

Abnormal conditions:
-Fire handle pulled
-Low fuel pressure
-Low fuel quantity
-Fuel switch OFF

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8
Q

What are the tire pressure limits?

A

-186 Psi may require tires to be replaced.

-Desired: 216 Psi (Measured when tires have been stationary for at least 2 hours.

-Max Tire Speed: 195 kts

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9
Q

What temperature is the air created by the Packs?

A

35 degrees F

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10
Q

What altitude are you limited to with only ONE PACK?

A

48,000 ft

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11
Q

Max Nose wheel steering

A

The tiller can move the nosewheel 80°(±2º) left or right.

Rudder pedals provide 7° nosewheel authority, however if the tiller fails, rudder pedal authority increases to 16°.

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12
Q

Max Operating Altitude

A

51,000

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13
Q

Max Altitude Single Pack

A

48,000

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14
Q

Max Landing Gear Extended Speed (Vlo)

A

250

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15
Q

Max Gear Extension Speed (Vlo)

A

225

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16
Q

Max Altitude with Flaps 39

A

20,000

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17
Q

Max altitude with Flaps 10 or 20

A

25,000

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18
Q

Maneuvering Speed

A

206

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19
Q

Alternate gear extension speed

A

175

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20
Q

Yaw Damper Inop Speed

A

285 / 0.90 Mach

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21
Q

Turbulence Penetration Speed

A

240 Below 10,000

270 / 0.85 M Above 10,000

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22
Q

Maximum Tire Speed

A

195

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23
Q

Maximum Degraded Flight Controls Speed

A

285 / 0.90 M

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24
Q

Acceleration (g) Limits

Flaps Up

Flaps 10 or 20

Flaps 39 Below Max Landing Weight
Above Max Landing Weight

A

Flaps Up: -1 to 2.5

Flaps 10 or 20: 0 to 2.0

Flaps 39: 0 to 2.0 If Below Max Landing Weight
0 to 1.5 If Above Max Landing Weight

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25
Q

Max Ramp Weight

A

104,000
(-4,000 non ER)

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26
Q

Max Takeoff Weight

A

103,600
(-4,000 non ER)

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27
Q

Max Landing Weight

A

83,500

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28
Q

Max Zero Fuel Weight

A

60,500

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29
Q

Max Fuel Imbalance Ground

Max Fuel Imbalance Flight

A

1,000

2,000

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30
Q

Max Differential

-Flight

-Taxi, TO, Landing

A

10.69

0.3

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31
Q

Is Single Engine Auto Coupled Go-Around Approved?

A

No

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32
Q

Max Demonstrated Altitude Loss on a Coupled Go-Around

A

50 ft

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33
Q

Can you use the Autothrottle for Single Engine Approaches?

A

No

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34
Q

What Busses Does the RAT Power?

A

Left Essential DC

Right Essential DC

Emergency AC

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35
Q

Left, Right, Main TRU Limit (% Load) on Ground

Aux TRU Limit (% Load) on Ground

A

80%

40%

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36
Q

Can you use Speedbrakes with Flaps 39 or Landing Gear Down?

A

No

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37
Q

Stall Protection is only available in what Control Law mode(s)?

A

Normal

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38
Q

Can you use Automatic Ground Spoilers during touch and go’s?

A

No, they must be selected OFF and Manual Spoiler Distances used.

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39
Q

Max Usable Fuel

A

48,200
(-4,000 for non ER)

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40
Q

Max Fuel Tank Temperature

Min Fuel Tank Temperature

A

54 C

-37 C

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41
Q

What is the Max Reservoir Quantity (Pressurized) indicated on CAS

Left

Right

A

Left: 4.55

Right: 2.77

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42
Q

What is the pre charge Psi for the Hydraulic Reservoirs?

A

1200 Psi

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43
Q

How much in advance of Takeoff do you need to turn on Wing and Cowl Anti-Ice if required?

A

2 minutes

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44
Q

At what altitude is Automatic Anti-Ice inhibited?

A

35,000 ft

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45
Q

What is the minimum holding speed in icing conditions?

Are flaps allowed when holding in icing conditions?

A

180 kts

No, flaps are not allowed in holding conditions

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46
Q

Are there any limitations on operating in Freezing Fog?

A

Yes, operations are prohibited when in Freezing Fog < -10*C or less

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47
Q

How far from refueling operations must you be if you want to operate your Radar on the ground?

How far from people should you be?

A

Refueling > 50 ft

People >11 ft

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48
Q

What are the following minimum battery voltages?

Mains

EBHA

UPS

E-BATTS

A

Mains: 22 V

EBHA: 23 V

UPS: 24 V

E-BATTS: 24 V

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49
Q

At what altitude may you use the APU for starter assist?

A

30,000

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50
Q

What is the max altitude you can operate the APU?

A

45,000 ft

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51
Q

What are the power ratings for the APU?

A

115 V, 40 kVA, 400 Hz up to 45,000 ft

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52
Q

What are the following limitations for the APU?

-Max EGT for Start

-Max EGT for Running

-Max Rotor Speed

A

-Max EGT for Start: 1050 C

-Max EGT for Running: 732 C

-Max Rotor Speed: 106%

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53
Q

What are the limits for starting the APU?

A

3 Consecutive attempts followed by a one hour cool down

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54
Q

Are you permitted to dispatch with an IDG inop?

A

No

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55
Q

At what point will the APU come online?

A

99% RPM plus 2 seconds.

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56
Q

What busses does the RAT power?

A

L & R Essential TRU’s, L&R Essential DC, and Emergency AC busses. The Emergency AC buss powers the HSCU (Horizontal Stabilizer Control Unit), and the chargers for the EBHA (Emergency Backup Hydraulic Actuator) and the UPS.

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57
Q

What items does the Emergency AC Bus power?

A

The Emergency AC buss powers the HSCU (Horizontal Stabilizer Control Unit), and the chargers for the UPS and EBHA (Emergency Backup Hydraulic Actuator).

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58
Q

When does the RAT need to be manually turned ON and OFF?

A

The RAT is turned on after engine start to circulate hydraulic fluid through the system to keep it warm. The RAT will need to be turned OFF prior to being deployed to allow the generator to achieve stable power prior to being brought online (30 seconds after deployment). It will also be required to be shut off after landing.

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59
Q

What is the fuel penalty if the RAT is deployed?

A

6%

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60
Q

Are there any restrictions if the RAT is deployed?

A

Landing should be planned with Flaps 20. This is to ensure that if a Go-Around is required, the AUX pump will not need to run to retract the flaps from 39 degrees, thereby saving valuable power remaining on the batteries.

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61
Q

What items will remain powered with the RAT deployed?

A

The RAT will power ADS#4 (Stby only). No vertical speed or or altitude hold is available. FPA is the only mode available. DU#1 and DU#4 will also be powered.

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62
Q

How many batteries are onboard the G650 and how many volts minimum are each and approximately how long will they last in the event of a complete loss of electrical power?

A

There are 6 Batteries Total on board.

2- Main Batteries, remember “two main batteries” so 22V, approximately 16 minutes after two failed APU start events.
1- Electric Backup Hydraulic Actuator (EBHA) Battery, remember “Four letters in EBHA” so 24V, 30 minutes
1- Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS) Battery, remember “Three letters in UPS” so 23V, 30 minutes
2- Emergency Batteries, or E-Batts, 24V, 45 Min.

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63
Q

What does the GCU (Generator Control Unit) control?

A

-Voltage regulation
-Voltage protection
-Frequency protection (varies the frequency to match transfer where available)
-Feeder fault (over and under voltage, and over and under current)
-Speed control (Main generator control, Gen AC line contractors, cross ties)

64
Q

What does the BPCU (Bus Power Control Unit) control?

A

-System fault monitoring
-Bus power source control
-AC protection (L-BPCU)
-DC protection (R-BPCU)
-External power control

65
Q

At what temperature should you remove the Main batteries?

A

-20*C

66
Q

What voltage on the Essential DC bus will activate the E-Batt’s?

A

-When the Emergency Power System is armed, the E-Batts will be activated anytime either Essential DC bus voltage drops below 20 volts, even for a split second. Therefore, anytime there is a break power transfer, the E-Batts will be activated and so annunciated by blue CAS messages. Re-arming the system will turn off the E-Batts and extinguish the CAS messages.

67
Q

What items remain powered on E-Batt’s?

A

The purpose of the Emergency Power System (powered by the E-Batt’s) is to provide a means of last resort power to the Left and Right Emergency DC Buses, and the Flight Instruments Bus. These buses power flight essential avionics loads such as standby flight instruments, IRU’s, and one VHF radio (Comm #1).

68
Q

What are the three operational modes of the Main Batteries?

A

Charge, Discharge and TR (Transformer Rectifier)

69
Q

When will the L or R Main Battery Switchlight illuminate?

A

L & R Main Battery Switchlight – When the switchlight is pressed IN (normal position), the Battery is available based on BPCU logic. If the switchlight is pressed IN, ON legend will illuminate anytime:

●Main Battery is powering the Essential DC buses
● AUX Hydraulic Pump is operating with external power applied or a generator providing power
● APU Start Switch is selected ON with external power applied or either IDG providing power

70
Q

What is the priority in the logic of the BPCU (Bus Power Control Unit)?

A

Essential before Main and Left before Right

71
Q

How many TRU’s (Transformer Rectifier Units) convert AC to DC power?

A

5 - L & R Essential, L & R Main, and one Aux

72
Q

How many computers control the Fly-By-Wire flight control system?

A

Three. Two FCC’s and one Backup Flight Control Unit (BFCU).

73
Q

What’s the function of FLT CTRL RESET switch?

A

Used to reset flight control computers and REUs/control surface actuators when directed by a checklist.

74
Q

What effect does loss of one hydraulic system have on the flight controls?

A

Loss of one spoiler pair Airspeed limitation 285/.90

75
Q

What flight controls are lost with the failure of the Left Hydraulic system versus the Right Hydraulic System?

A
76
Q

What part of the flight controls does the UPS battery power?

A

-FCC1 Channel A,
-BFCU, and
-FCC2 Channel B

77
Q

Is the UPS battery the only source of power for the flight control system?

A

No, FCC1 Channel B is powered by Left Essential DC and FCC2 Channel A is powered by Right Essential DC. The BFCU is the only one that uses the UPS battery as its sole source of power.

78
Q

Describe the AOA limiting feature.

A

In this mode, full aft column input commands the maximum nose angle-of-attack of 0.96.

79
Q

What are the requirements for the flight control mode to remain in Normal?

A

Normal mode requires the following:
(1) IRU inertial data
(1) Operating FCC Channel
(2) ADS air data (multifunction probes)
And HSCU must also be capable of receiving FCC commands on one of its two (2) channels (Not reporting in Backup Mode).

80
Q

What will put the aircraft into Alternate Flight Control Law?

A

The Flight Control System reverts to Alternate Mode if there is insufficient air data and/or inertial data available, or if the FCC receives a message that the HSCU has lost communication with FCC’s.

81
Q

When will the PLI appear?

A

At 0.75 AOA

82
Q

At what AOA does the stick shaker activate?

A

0.94 AOA

83
Q

What has to happen in order to get to Direct Control Law Mode?

A

All FCC channels are INVALID. In other words, the FCC’s are working, but they don’t agree.

84
Q

What can we expect to lose if we revert to Direct Mode?

A

Control Law behavior in Direct Mode is very similar to Alternate Mode (Gain is the same),
-Automatic ground spoilers do not operate in Direct Mode,
-Speed brake auto-retract feature
-Stick shaker is not available.
-The Flight Controls synoptic page information may not be valid (control surface position indications and trim position indications may display amber X’s).

85
Q

What are some of the things we will lose when in Alternate Control Law?

A

-Loss of autopilot,
-No AOA Limiting,
-No High Speed Protection,
-Some of the protective features are not available.

86
Q

What can we expect to lose if we revert to Backup Control Law mode?

A

Control Law behavior in Backup Mode is very similar to Alternate Mode (Gain is the same), but there is
-No roll assist from the mid spoilers,
-No speedbrake or ground spoiler capability, and the
-Yaw damper effectiveness is significantly reduced (IRU #3 must be operative).
-Pitch trim is only available via the Backup Pitch trim switch on the center pedestal, and the trim rate is reduced to 1/3 the normal rate.
-No yaw trim or stick shaker available in Backup Mode.

If Direct Mode or Backup Mode becomes the active control mode, the aircraft remains in that control state until power is cycled, even if a single FCC channel becomes available.

87
Q

What has to happen for the Control Law mode to be changed to Backup?

A

-A complete loss of data from the FCC’s.

88
Q

Both the HA’s and EBHA’s operate in one of the following states: Active or Damped Bypass. Describe Damped Bypass.

A

In Damped Bypass state, the affected actuator is in a damped condition, meaning that hydraulic pressure is trapped within the actuator to suppress control surface flutter in flight. On flight controls with dual actuators (ailerons, elevator, and rudder), the operational actuator will command surface movement, and the failed actuator (now in a damped condition) will passively follow the working actuator.

89
Q

How many EBHA’s are there?

A

7 Total
-One on each Aileron
-One on each Outboard Spoiler
-One on the Rudder
-One on each side of the Elevator.

90
Q

The NWS has an over-travel “pop-up” indicator that is checked on preflight to determine if the NWS has been inadvertently moved beyond its limit. How many degrees of travel is required for that to occur?

A

84°

91
Q

How does touchdown protection work?

A

Zero brake pressure is applied until five (5) seconds after WOW shifts to ground mode or wheel speed spins up > 70 knots.

92
Q

What’s the maximum bleed manifold pressure allowed by the Pressure Regulating Shutoff Valve?

A

40.5 psi

93
Q

What’s the range of pressure is the bleed manifold regulates to?

A

14 to 35 psi depending on configuration and existing conditions

94
Q

What are the requirements for APU load control valve to open in-flight?

A

-Both engine bleed air switches OFF,
-Both pack switches OFF,
-Both WING anti-ice switches must be in OFF position

95
Q

Other than using ISOLATION valve switch, how else can isolation valve be opened?

A

-APU air switch with weight on wheels, or
-Engine MASTER START or CRANK

96
Q

What computers control operation of the bleed air system?

A

Bleed Air Controllers (BAC’s)

97
Q

What are the Bleed Air Controllers (BAC’s) responsible for?

A

Regulation of bleed air manifold temperature and supply pressure (i.e., responsible for min pressures and all temperatures)

98
Q

What wing temperature is maintained during wing anti-ice operation?

A

130ºF

99
Q

What temperature would you expect at precooler inlet during wing anti-ice operation?

A

630ºF

100
Q

What precooler outlet temperature would you expect under normal operating conditions?

A

400ºF

101
Q

What’s the maximum temperature of bleed air at precooler outlet during wing anti-ice operation with single WING ANTI ICE switch or single ENG BLEED switch selected to ON?

A

500ºF

102
Q

What happens when a PACK switch is selected to ON?

A

Pack valve is opened and control circuitry is initiated in Air Conditioning Controller (ACC).

103
Q

What pack outlet temperature would you expect with packs operating normally?

A

35ºF

104
Q

How can you select ram air?

A

Select RAM AIR to RAM or turn both PACK switches to OFF

105
Q

When does ram air check valve open?

A

Pressure in ducts and pressure vessel must be equal to or less than pressure outside.

106
Q

What’s the temperature select range in automatic mode?

A

60-90ºF

107
Q

What’s the temperature select range in manual mode?

A

35-230ºF

108
Q

What type of air comes from overhead gaspers and baseboards?

A

Cold air always comes from overhead gaspers in both cockpit and cabin while conditioned air comes from baseboards or foot level outlets.

109
Q

How is pressurization achieved?

A

By supplying constant inflow of air and by regulating amount of air leaving aircraft through Thrust Recovery Outflow Valve (TROV).

110
Q

How is control of Cabin Pressure Selector page on SMC affected by pressurization system mode of operation?

A

With pressurization system in AUTO mode, cabin pressure selector page provides a means to view input data provided by FMS and ADS, and RNG/SET knob is disabled. With pressurization system in SEMI mode, data is input via RNG/SET knob for aircraft cruise/cabin altitude, barometric correction, landing field elevation, and cabin rate of climb/descent.

111
Q

Where is ice buildup prevented?

A

-Wing leading edges
-Engine cowl inlets
-Windshields
-Probe sensors
-Aft drain mast

112
Q

When does the amber Ice Detected CAS message extinguish?

A

If ice accumulation is < 0.02” for one minute, amber Ice Detected CAS message extinguishes.

113
Q

What continues to receive heat after the amber Ice Detected CAS message extinguishes?

A

Cowl heat continues for three (3) minutes and wing heat continues for five (5) minutes

114
Q

Where is wing anti-ice exhausted overboard?

A

Hot air flows through leading edges of each wing, passes through main wheel well, and through two screens aft of wheel well on bottom of aircraft.

115
Q

What do blue wing anti-ice lines indicate on ECS/PRESS synoptic page?

A

Wing anti-ice temperature ≤ 100°F within two (2) minutes.

116
Q

What do green wing anti-ice lines indicate on ECS/PRESS synoptic page?

A

Normal temperature (100 to 180°F)

117
Q

What do amber wing anti-ice lines indicate on ECS/PRESS synoptic page?

A

Wing temperature < 100°F after two minutes from the time it’s commanded to ON or > 180°F.

118
Q

In regards to FMS programming, what must you do if you plan to takeoff with WAI and/or cowl antiice (CAI) selected to ON?

A

Remember to make appropriate selection during TAKEOFF INIT or your speeds won’t box

119
Q

What happens to cowl anti-ice if both ENG BLEED AIR switches are selected to OFF?

A

Nothing: cowl anti-ice uses 5th stage air

120
Q

What happens to cowl anti-ice valve with loss of electrical power or loss of 8th stage air to hold it closed?

A

It’s spring loaded to the open position.

121
Q

What happens when EVS WSHLD HT switch is selected?

A

Switchlight indicates blue ON and two (2) minutes of thermostatically controlled continuous heating is provided to EVS windshield. Otherwise, operation is automatic if aircraft is airborne and cowl anti-ice is ON (either from manual selection or automatic selection with ice detection). The type of heat applied is dependent on position of landing gear.

122
Q

What happens when CABIN WDO HT switch is selected to ON?

A

The 16 cabin windows are electrically heated with single phase of low power alternating current (AC) when WOW is in flight mode and OFF caption is extinguished. When WOW is in ground mode, the 16 cabin windows are not electrically heated and OFF caption is illuminated unless this feature is overridden by activating WDO HT GND BYP switch controlled through MCDU SSPC menu.

123
Q

What safety feature does WDO HT GND BYP switch in SSPC incorporate?

A

It automatically reverts to OFF after 10 minutes to prevent overheating which could cause window damage and discoloration. It can be reset through MCDU.

124
Q

Are TAT probes heated on ground?

A

No; except for ≥ 60 kts or both throttles ≥ 30°.

125
Q

What happens when a fire handle is pulled?

A

It shuts off fuel at the hopper,
-trips the Generator Control Unit (GCU), and shuts off hydraulics in the tail compartment

126
Q

Fire testing, detection, and protection is available down to what source of power?

A

Main batteries only: it’s not available with emergency batteries

127
Q

What’s the location of smoke detector?

A

Ceiling of the baggage compartment

128
Q

What happens when the smoke evacuation valve is selected to VENT/SMOKE position?

A

Smoke evacuation valve opens and baggage compartment air is vented overboard through a vent on ceiling of baggage compartment. Air is exhausted overboard through right side wing-to-body fairing near lavatory servicing.

129
Q

If interior baggage compartment door is closed, what’s the process for reentry once the baggage compartment depressurizes?

A

Smoke evacuation valve must be placed back to NORMAL position, and reset toggle switch must be held UP for 10 seconds. This causes baggage compartment ventilation shutoff valve to reopen and restore airflow to the compartment.

130
Q

Describe the engine fire detection system.

A

Each detector rail assembly is comprised of two mechanically parallel, electrically independent thermal detector loops (Loop A and Loop B) mounted on a support tube.

131
Q

What happens if a fire loop fails?

A

The flight crew can deselect the affected loop and continue to operate in a single loop configuration (in accordance with MMEL).

132
Q

What happens when you depress the R ENG FIRE TEST switch?

A

You get three chimes and eight lights:
-LOOP A,
-LOOP B,
-Two red W’s,
-Two red CAS messages,
-Light in right fire handle, and
-Starlight in the right engine fuel control switch handle.

133
Q

Describe the APU’s fire detection system.

A

It has a seven foot helium filled tube secured to the top of APU enclosure.

134
Q

What happens when APU FIRE TEST switch is depressed?

A

You get three chimes and eight lights:
-APU TEST light on fire test panel,
-FIRE light on APU control panel,
-Two red W’s,
-Two amber C’s, and
-Two CAS messages.

Additionally, you get a fire bell in nose wheel well if the aircraft is on ground.

135
Q

What indications do you get for an actual APU fire?

A

You get three chimes and only four lights:
-FIRE light on APU control panel,
-Two red W’s, and
-One red CAS message.

Additionally, you get a fire bell on ground.

136
Q

Describe the equipment overheat detection system.

A

A number of thermal switches are installed in the aircraft interior to monitor temperature levels. They utilize two preset temperatures: 150°F and 250°F, depending on location and type of equipment monitored. Switches set at trip point of 150°F generate an amber CAS message when that temperature is reached and switches set at trip point of 250°F generate a red CAS message (generally amber for electrical and red for bleed air).

137
Q

What are the preset temperatures for the thermal switches that monitor interior temperature levels?

A

150°F and 250°F, depending on location and type of equipment monitored.

Switches set at trip point of 150°F generate an amber CAS message.

Switches set at trip point of 250°F generate a red CAS message

(generally amber for electrical and red for bleed air).

138
Q

Where are the portable fire extinguishers located?

A

One Halon extinguisher in cockpit, and two (2) Halon extinguishers in the cabin

139
Q

When do the Fire and or the Oxygen bottles discharge overboard?

A

High pressure, or high temperature.

140
Q

At what cabin altitude do passenger masks automatically deploy?

A

When sensed cabin altitude reaches approximately 14,750 feet with HIGH ALT switch in normal and approximately 15,750 feet with HIGH ALT switch selected (i.e., lighted)

141
Q

When the crew oxygen mask is removed from storage container, what activates the shutoff valve?

A

The open doors

142
Q

In regard to the crew oxygen masks, what’s the difference between selections of NORMAL (fully counterclockwise) and EMERGENCY (fully clockwise)?

A

In NORMAL, it allows regulator to provide diluterdemand flow, and in EMERGENCY position, it sets regulator to provide constant pressure of undiluted oxygen.

143
Q

The crewmember Protective Breathing Equipment (PBE) is a selfcontained, portable, personal breathing device designed to safeguard wearer from the effects of smoke, carbon dioxide, harmful gases, and oxygen deficiency while managing in-flight fire, smoke or fume emergencies. How many are on the aircraft?

A

Two: one installed in flight deck and the other installed in vicinity of baggage compartment.

144
Q

What is the capacity of water system?

A

Two 20 gal tanks

145
Q

What switches control power for the water & waste system?

A

CABIN / GALLEY MASTER switch on the cockpit overhead panel as well as CABIN/GALLEY switches in SSPC

146
Q

Name the four (4) places where the water system is controlled.

A

Touch screens in galley and vestibule, external service panel, and tank enclosure.

147
Q

What’s the capacity of the waste tank?

A

18 gallon storage tank with 12 gallon usable capacity

148
Q

How is the water system pressurized?

A

With an
-Air compressor,
-Engine, or
-APU bleed air

149
Q

How many drains are there and where are they located?

A

There are two drains on the bottom of aircraft: a drain mast located in back and penetration port located forward. Water drains out the back in flight due to nose attitude and differential pressure, and drains out the front on ground due to nose attitude.

150
Q

What are the three requirements for water system operation?

A

1) Select CABIN / GALLEY master switch to ON,
2) The GALLEY POWER switch in MCDU (SSPC system) must be ON, and
3) Water system must be selected to ON (green indication) at galley touch screen

151
Q

What happens when the water system is selected to ON with cabin temperature below 34°F?

A

The system heaters are selected ON and operation of water system is delayed for approximately 20 minutes

152
Q

What’s the difference between a line drain and system purge?

A

A line drain allows all water in supply lines, lavatory water heaters and galley water heater to drain from aircraft.

A system purge removes all water from the supply lines and water tanks.

153
Q

How much time is required to purge the water tanks?

A

Approximately seven (7) minutes per tank

154
Q

If you initiate a line drain or system purge in flight, when is the procedure completed?

A

The process won’t be complete until after landing since the forward supply/drain valves don’t open until weight-on-wheels.

155
Q

What happens if the water system is used during 15 minute leak check?

A

It invalidates the results

156
Q

What generates the vacuum for flushing the toilet?

A

Cabin differential pressure or vacuum generator. The vacuum generator is required for differential pressure < 6 psid (i.e., below approximately 16,000 ft).

157
Q

Regarding toilet flushing, what happens if the normal system fails to function properly (e.g., flush switch failure)?

A

A separate manual flush handle can momentarily open the flush valve.

G650 (3 decks)

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