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Software House Flashcards

1
Q

What operating systems support a proper server installation of C*CURE 9000 version v3.00?

A
  • Windows 11 – 21H2 and later (Enterprise/Pro/IoT) SAC
  • Win 10 Windows 10- Last 3 versions released- 20H2 min version (Enterprise/Pro/IoT) SAC
  • Win Server 2016 (Datacenter/Std/Ent) SAC
  • Win Server 2019 (Datacenter/Std/Ent) SAC
  • Win Server 2022 (Datacenter/Std/Ent) SAC
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2
Q

What operating systems are supported for the Client in version v3.00?

A
  • Windows 11 – 21H2 and later (Enterprise/Pro/IoT) SAC
  • Win 10 Windows 10- Last 3 versions released- 20H2 min version (Enterprise/Pro/IoT) SAC
  • Win Server 2016 (Datacenter/Std/Ent) SAC
  • Win Server 2019 (Datacenter/Std/Ent) SAC
  • Win Server 2022 (Datacenter/Std/Ent) SAC
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3
Q

What kind of database does C*CURE 9000 use?

A

Microsoft SQL Server

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4
Q

What does the Admin Station application do?

A

Configure system security objects (controllers, panels, doors, schedules, etc.), partitions, iSTAR areas,
intrusion zones keypad commands, guard tours, elevations floors and video tours. It also configures
personnel records, operators and operator privileges. It Displays, imports and exports personnel
records and other system data. Configures events to respond to inputs, video alarms and
communications failures. It can configure events to activate actions, configure application layouts, use
dynamic views to view configuration data and system status, display, import and export images, design
and print badges and report on historical and configuration information and video clips.

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5
Q

What does the Monitoring Station application do?

A

Allows Operators to monitor Events, activities, Hardware devices, Video devices, and non-Hardware
objects. Also allows Operators to perform manual actions (acknowledge/clear, logging messages).

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6
Q

Why would ports need to be opened in the Window Firewall?

A

If a system is configured for increased security using Windows Firewall, it may be necessary to open
certain ports that are required for communication between programs. For example, for C*CURE 9000
to communicate with SQL Server, specific ports need to be open.

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7
Q

What networking protocols does C*CURE 9000 use?

A

TCP/IP.

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8
Q

Where can detailed information about the system requirements for C*CURE 9000 server and
client systems be found?

A

The C*CURE 9000 v3.0 Data Sheet.

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9
Q

When installing C*CURE 9000, why must the server and client software be installed on all
computers and workstations in the security system?

A

The software must be installed on all computers in the security system (server software on the
server system(s), and client software on workstation systems because these system will need
to access the server.

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10
Q

Before starting the installation process, what are the two (2) primary things an operator must
have?

A
  • A valid system license to install and run C*CURE 9000.
  • Administrative privileges for the computer where the C*CURE 9000 software is going to be
    installed.
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11
Q

If the C*CURE 9000 installer detects an unsupported operating system, what two (2) things
happen?

A
  • An error message displays saying Windows “X”/Windows Server 20XX is minimum
    requirement and to upgrade.
  • The installation setup exits.
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12
Q

What two services must be started and running for the C*CURE 9000 system to function?

A
  • CrossFire Framework Service
  • CrossFire Server Component Framework Serv
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13
Q

Why should only the drivers that are actively using being used with the system be enabled and
started?

A
  • Starting additional unneeded drivers can affect system performance.
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14
Q

Why might a repair operation of a C*CURE 9000 system installation need to be done?

A
  • To replace registry entries and missing or corrupted files, or fixing shortcuts.
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15
Q

What is the main purpose of the Client Auto-Update utility and how does it work?

A
  • Once installed and operational, it copies available software updates for remote clients to the
    server’s automatic distribution location.
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16
Q

What is the purpose of the ID Scanner software (once installed) that is available to install from
the C*CURE 9000 Advanced Installer options?

A
  • It enables a third-party ID scanning device to be configured to scan government issued
    driver’s licenses and passports.
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17
Q

What are the four (4) logs C*CURE 9000 automatically creates during installation that show
errors as well as other relevant information?

A
  • UnifiedInstallDashboard.log file (for installing the Unified Dashboard)
  • UnifiedServerInstall_[Date/Time].log file (for installing the victor Application Server)
  • DBManager_Deploy_UNIFIEDSERVER-[Date/Time].log file (for installing the database)
  • CCure9000ClientInstall_[Date/Time].log file (for installing the Client)
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18
Q

When upgrading software, what must each person installing the software have in regards to each
computer the software is being installed on?

A
  • They must have Administrative privileges for each computer.
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19
Q

When upgrading SQL Server, what is an important process regarding databases that should be
completed before installing the software?

A
  • Back up all the databases by selecting Options and Tools > System Backup and back up the
    databases.
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20
Q

What is the minimum/oldest version of SQL Server C*CURE 9000 v3.00 can be run with?

A
  • SQL Server 2014 SP3 (Express) 64-bit.
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21
Q

What is the first thing that should be obtained before updating to a new version of C*CURE
9000?

A
  • A new software license must be obtained before updating the software
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22
Q

After performing a system upgrade, what two services must be started and running for the
C*CURE 9000 system to function?

A
  • CrossFire Framework Service
  • CrossFire Server Component Framework Service
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23
Q

The software upgrade process checks to see that the system meets the minimum requirements
for which three (3) things?

A
  • Hardware
  • Software
  • Hard disk space
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24
Q

What is the reason for requiring of passphrases/passwords in input field areas during
installation? If the passphrase/password supplied is not “strong” enough, does the installer do
anything?

A
  • It is for cybersecurity purposes. This process encrypts sensitive data that can only be decrypted
    by the computer the software is installed on.
  • Yes, if the passphrase/password supplied is not “strong” enough, a message will appear
    stating so until a “strong” enough one is entered.
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25
Q

What command can be utilized (and accessed via a right mouse click) to restart services manually
in the Server Configuration Application?

A
  • Run as Administrator
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26
Q

If the C*CURE 9000 Client upgrade is not listed on the Upgrade screen under “The following
components will be upgraded” what should an operator do?

A
  • If the C*CURE 9000 Client is not listed on the Upgrade screen under “The following
    components will be upgraded,” click the Advanced button.
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27
Q

When starting CCURE 9000 after upgrading from an earlier version of CCURE 9000, what
process does the server perform?

A
  • The server automatically updates the existing C*CURE 9000 database to communicate
    properly with the new database parameters. A delay may be experienced until this process is
    completed, and the duration of this delay can vary and depends on the existing database size.
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28
Q

What is the time limit in days for a C*CURE 9000 temporary license?

A

60 days from the date the license was created (not from the date of installation).

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29
Q

What happens to the C*CURE 9000 Server if the temporary license expires prior to a permanent
license being activated?

A

C*CURE 9000 functions become unavailable the next time the Server restarts.

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30
Q

Using an operational CCURE 9000 Server or Client workstation with applicable permissions,
where can a user find their CCURE 9000 license information?

A

The current license information can be viewed on the License tab of the About C*CURE 9000
dialog box.

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31
Q

What service enables the C*CURE 9000 server to talk to client applications?

A

Software House CrossFire Framework Service.

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32
Q

What service(s) enables the C*CURE 9000 server to talk to the iSTAR driver?

A

Software House CrossFire iSTAR Driver Service.

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33
Q

How does an operator know if a service is disabled? How does an operator know if a service is
not licensed?

A

The Server Configuration Application shows the service is not Enabled.
Status = Not Licensed.

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34
Q

What is the purpose of the Server Components tab in the Software Configuration
Application?

A

View and manage optional services.

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35
Q

Which services start automatically?

A

C*CURE 9000 is set up by default so that the CrossFire Framework Service and the Server
Component Framework Service start up automatically when restarting the system.

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36
Q

Which databases can be backed using the Backup/Restore tab?

A
  • ACVSAudit (victor).
  • ACVSBIRS
  • ACVSCore (C*CURE 9000 and victor)
  • ACVSUJournal_00010000 (C*CURE 9000 and victor)
  • SWHSystemAudit
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37
Q

What action needs to be taken before beginning to restore a database from backup?

A

Framework Services should be stopped prior to a restore in order to avoid an asynchronous
unknown restore.

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38
Q

Can more than one database at a time be restored?

A

Multiple databases can be selected to restore on the Backup/Restore tab.

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39
Q

How is the Administration Station Navigation Pane temporarily hidden?

A

There is an auto-hide button on the title bar for each pane. Click it to minimize the Navigation
pane. Click again to restore the Navigation pane.

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40
Q

How is online Help accessed?

A

F1 can be clicked to access online help.

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41
Q

What are the two different ways to create objects in C*CURE 9000?

A

New button in the Navigation Pane, or right-click on a parent object in the Hardware or Video
Tree.

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42
Q

How is a Quick Search performed?

A

In the Search pane, select an object type from the drop-down for the pane, type in search criteria
in the Quick Search area, and click the Search button (green arrow) to open a Dynamic View with
results based on the search criteria.

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43
Q

How can the order of the buttons (Personnel, Configuration, etc.) in the Navigation pane be
changed?

A

Click the Configure button at the bottom of the Navigation Pane and choose Navigation Pane
Options.

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44
Q

How is a new object created if the New button is unavailable (grayed out)?

A

In the Hardware or Video Tree, right click on a parent object or folder. For Personnel, Access
Requests can only be created on the Web Portal app. Customer Clearances can be created within
the Personnel editor.

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45
Q

How do the Hardware and Video panes differ from the other Navigation panes? Can Quick
Search still be performedfor Hardware and Video objects?

A

They show a tree of related objects in folders. These panes have a Search tab that can be clicked
to perform searches.

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46
Q

How is an Advanced Search performed from a Navigation pane?

A

Click the Advanced button, select an object type from the drop down list, then click either New
Query or Quick Query to compose a search query

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47
Q

How is a context menu displayed?

A

Select an object in a Dynamic View or the Hardware/Video tree and right-click.

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48
Q

How is a Hardware Folder created?

A

In the Hardware pane, right-click on Hardware in the tree, then select Hardware Folder > New.

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49
Q

How is a Dynamic View of an Object type opened?

A

From the Navigation pane, select the object pane to view (such as Configuration), then use the
drop-down list to select the object type. Click the Go Search button (green arrow) to confirm.

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50
Q

How is the About C*CURE 9000 box opened?

A

From the Help Menu, select About.

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51
Q

How can the contents of a Dynamic View be saved to a spreadsheet?

A

Click the Export view contents to Excel button.

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52
Q

What is a New Object Partition?

A

The partition that any new objects are created in. If a system has multiple Partitions, select the
Partition in which new objects are created.

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53
Q

How can C*CURE 9000 System Information be printed or emailed?

A

From the About CCURE 9000 About Box click Print or Email to create a list of CCURE 9000
system information as a text file that can be sent to a network printer or Email. The file contains
specific system details, including product name and version, system features, options, capacities,
language settings, and licensing information.

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54
Q

How can information about a C*CURE 9000 license be viewed?

A

On the C*CURE 9000 About Box License tab.

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55
Q

How are System Variables viewed/edited?

A

Select Options & Tools > System Variables. To see the variables in a category, click + in the
list to the left of the category.

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56
Q

What information can be found on the About Box Support tab?

A

The Support tab displays email contact information used to configure email messages sent from
the About C*CURE 9000 box. On the Support tab, the subject, the sender email address, and add
a message areas can be changed. The contact person email or contact information cannot be
modified.

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57
Q

How is an Export Selection from a Dynamic View performed?

A

Select the rows to be exported (CTRL+Left-click), right-click and select Export Selection. From the
dialog box that opens, select either Export as XML file or Export as CSV file

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58
Q

What are the file formats to which an Export Selection can be saved to?

A

XML and CSV.

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59
Q

What is an Application Layout?

A

Application Layouts contain the monitoring viewers and status information that are needed to
perform the monitoring tasks specific to a site. An administrator can build custom layouts with
multiple Panes containing different Viewers.

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60
Q

What is the Swipe and Show viewer?

A

A Swipe and Show viewer displays personnel portraits and cardholder information when an
access attempt is made at a door or elevator configured for this control.

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61
Q

How does the Event Viewer differ from the Activity Viewer?

A

The Event Viewer tracks and displays events. The Activity Viewer tracks all system activities, such
as user log on, personnel accesses and security object state changes, partition changes, device
errors, and messages.

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62
Q

How are Event Details viewed?

A

An Event icon can be clicked in the Event list to review the event details and to take appropriate
action on it.

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63
Q

What is an Object Viewer?

A

An Object Viewer displays the view interface for an object. For example, an Object Viewer that is
configured to show a Map object uses the Map Viewer interface to display the Map in the
Monitoring Station.

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64
Q

How is a Manual Action performed?

A

Select an Event in the Event Viewer, right-click, then select a Manual Action from the context
menu. Some Manual Actions are: Activate, Deactivate, Arm, Disarm, Lock, Unlock, Momentary
Unlock.

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65
Q

What is a Manual Action Challenge?

A

When prompted by the system, an operator must enter the user name, domain and password of
a privileged user and click the OK on this dialog box to complete the manual action. If Manual
Action Challenge is enabled and a manual action is attempted in the Monitoring Station, a
Credentials Request dialog box appears.

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66
Q

How many Aperio Hubs and Readers are supported by iSTAR Ultra?

A

30 Hubs, 32 Readers

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67
Q

What is the difference between Wet and Dry relays on the iSTAR Ultra?

A

External lock power can be sourced directly from the ACM when the relay(s) are set to “wet”, or
can be run in “dry” mode with an external power supply.

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68
Q

Which iSTAR Controllers can be clustered together?

A

An Encrypted Cluster can be created containing or iSTAR Ultra series Controllers.

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69
Q

How is an iSTAR Ultra rebooted and the memory cleared?

A

To Clear Memory and Reboot the Unit:
1. Set rotary SW3 to D.
2. Press and release switch SW2 - follow LCD instructions
3. Set rotary SW3 back to 0 or F.

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70
Q

Which switch inhibits or enables FIPS 197 AES 256-bit encryption on the iSTAR Ultra?

A

S1-1 on the GCM.

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71
Q

What is the difference between a Supervised and a Non-Supervised input?

A

A Supervised input reports on the status of the wiring between the input circuit and the switch,
and a Non-supervised input is a circuit that is either shorted (0 ohms) or open (infinite
resistance).

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72
Q

What is the meaning of a Line Fault?

A

A line fault is an electrical condition in which there is any electrical reading outside the (normal)
ranges given.

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73
Q

Can multiple monitor points be wired on a single input? If so, what are the advantages or
disadvantages?

A

Yes, the number of normally open or normally closed detection devices each input can supervise
is limited only by the resistance of the loop. The resistance of the circuit should be determined
before wiring multiple monitor points and determining the resistance of each.

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74
Q

What is “reverse-sense” of input?

A

Typically a traditional supervised input is normal when the resistance is 1K and in alert mode
when the resistance is either 500 ohms or 2K. Selecting the reverse option reverses the states so
that 1K is the alert and 500 ohms or 2K is normal.

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75
Q

Some inputs have LED indicators; what is the meaning of green, yellow, and red?

A
  • Green - indicates secure hardware state (nominal 1K ohms).
  • Yellow - indicates supervision error (open circuit, shorted, or line fault).
  • Red - indicates alert (nominal 500 ohms or 2K ohms).
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76
Q

What does Dry Contact Form C relay mean?

A

Dry Contact means that the technician must supply the power. Form C means that the Common
(C), Normally Closed (NC), and Normally Open (NO) connections are provided.

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77
Q

What does Wet Contact Form C relay mean?

A

Wet Contact means that controller supplies the power. Form C means that the Common (C),
Normally Closed (NC), and Normally Open (NO) connections are provided.

78
Q

What is an Open Collector output and what is it used for?

A

In an Open Collector the power output draw limited to 50 milli-Amps. It is typically used to drive
a relay contact such as the ARM-1.

79
Q

How does an operator determine the maximum number of online Outputs for a given
C*CURE 9000 system?

A

By going to the C*CURE 9000 Admin Station and referencing the Help > About >License (tab),
then in the System Wide Capacities area reference Online Outputs.

80
Q

What is an ARM-1 used for?

A

The ARM-1 is a small circuit board designed to be connected to an RM-4 board and a local
power supply and output device (typically a door strike). The ARM-1 provides a relay for a local
door strike or for other equipment located near an RM- 4.

81
Q

What is the maximum distance allowed between an ARM-1 and an RM-4?

A

The maximum distance allowed is 25 feet (7.6 meters) between an ARM-1 and a connected
device (RM-4).

82
Q

When a door strike is wired, what provision should be made for noise suppression?

A

A diode (DC circuit) or Metal Oxide Varistor (MOV) (AC circuit) should be wired into the circuit for
noise suppression.

83
Q

Describe what a ‘cluster’ is in regards to C*CURE 9000 terminology.

A

A Cluster is 2 or more iSTAR controllers organized for network communications into userdefined,
logical groups.

84
Q

How many iSTAR Controllers can be in a cluster? How many if a system is using dial-up?

A

Up to 16 iSTAR controllers can be in a cluster. Exception - A cluster used for dialup can only
contain one iSTAR controller.

85
Q

What is the difference between a Master controller and a Member controller in a cluster?

A

The Master communications to the C*CURE 9000 host system, and the members communicate to
the host via the master.

86
Q

What is the difference between Primary and Secondary communications for a cluster?

A

The cluster can use the secondary path to communicate with the host when a communications
failure occurs on the primary path. Secondary paths can only exist on the Master.

87
Q

What are the two types of clusters?

A

Encrypted and Non-encrypted.

88
Q

List compatible and available controllers that can be used with C*CURE 9000 v3.00.

A

iSTAR controllers: Classic/Pro, Ultra (SE, LT, Video, Edge [Gen 2], G2); IP-ACM Ethernet Door
Module

89
Q

What is a General Controller Module (GCM) and what is it used for?

A

The GCM is a General Purpose Module running the Linux® operating system and is essentially the
“brain” of a controller.

90
Q

What is an Access Control Module (ACM) and what is it used for?

A

The ACM is a special purpose Access Control Module that interfaces with the GCM and provides
inputs, outputs, reader interfaces, and AUX outputs (12 Vdc).

91
Q

What are the two (2) ways an iSTAR Ultra and its components can be mounted?

A

The iSTAR Ultra and its components can be installed in a wall mount enclosure or in separate rack
mount enclosures.

92
Q

How many ACMs can be operational in an iSTAR Ultra?

A

An iSTAR Ultra can contain up to two ACMs that interface directly with Wiegand signaling devices,
and RM reader busses.

93
Q

Once SD Cards are encrypted with Firmware v6.6.B and higher on an iSTAR Ultra controller,
what happens to them operationally?

A

Once SD Cards are encrypted with Firmware v6.6.B and higher, they are “controller-specific” and
cannot be used in any other controller.

94
Q

What is the operational difference between the SW2 and the SW7 switch in an iSTAR Ultra?

A

The SW2 switch is a hard reset which essentially cuts AC Power completely to the board and restarts
the controller. It cannot be used to Reset to Factory Default. The SW7 switch (when pressed)
performs a factory default restart of the board.

95
Q

What are the two (2) ways that the iSTAR Ultra family of controllers can be configured and
started up?

A

Using the ICU in the C*CURE 9000 Admin Station by selecting Options & Tools > ICU, and the
iSTAR Ultra Configuration web page

96
Q

The iSTAR Ultra SE can support up to how many hard-wired readers and the clustering of how
many controllers?

A

The iSTAR Ultra SE can support up to 16 traditional hard-wired readers and clustering of up to
sixteen controllers.

97
Q

What are the five (5) primary tabs on the ICU iSTAR Controller window that allow that allow the
user to configure many of the same items available for configuration in the iSTAR Ultra
Controller configuration web page?

A
  • Controller Identity tab
  • Ethernet Adapter tab
  • Host tab
  • RAS (Remote Access Server) tab
  • Advanced tab
98
Q

What is the default password in the ICU and how can it be changed?

A

The default password is “manager” which can be changed by can be changed in the ICU - iSTAR
Configuration Utility application by selecting File > Options and entering a new password in the
ICU User Password fields..

99
Q

What is a good general description of an iSTAR Edge Controller?

A

The iSTAR Edge Controller is a smaller, cost effective, 2 or 4 reader iSTAR that can be powered
over its Ethernet connection using Power over Ethernet (PoE), and is suitable for placement above
or near the door.

100
Q

What are the storage capacities of an iSTAR Edge Controller?

A
  • > 250k access cards
  • 64 MB of RAM.
  • 128 MB of onboard flash memory.
101
Q

Regarding Special Purpose Inputs, how many does the iSTAR Edge Controller have and what
are they?

A

The iSTAR Edge Controller is has seven (7) Special Purpose Inputs and they are:
* Tamper (from enclosure door)
* Main AC fail (from apS)
* Low external battery (from apS)
* FAI Supervision State (J40 F input)
* FAI Relay Control
* FAI Key Supervision State (J40 K input)
* Onboard battery low

102
Q

Regarding the Fire Alarm Interface (FAI) hardware feature, the concept of activating door
relays when a fire is signaled is for what two (2) scenarios?

A
  • To unlock all doors when a fire is present.
  • Remove power from various devices when fire is present.
103
Q

The three (3) COM ports on an iSTAR Edge can have what combination of access card readers,
I/8s, and R/8s?

A

There can be two (2) RM Readers, four (4) I/8s and four(4) R/8s connected in any combination to
the three (3) COM ports

104
Q

What is the ICU default password? How can it be changed?

A

The ICU default password is “manager”, and can be changed by going to File > Options menu.

105
Q

What is the Diagnostic Web Page password? How can it be changed?

A

“iSTAR”. The password can be changed in the Diagnostic Web Page Password System Variable in
the iSTAR Driver section.

106
Q

What settings can be viewed/changed on the ICU Controller Advanced tab?

A
  • Enabling and Configuration of SNMP for the selected iSTAR.
  • Control Access to Web Diagnostics. Controls the availability of the Context Menu -Controller
    Status option
107
Q

What is the default location for iSTAR Controller firmware on the C*CURE 9000 server?

A

C:\Program Files (x86)\Tyco\CrossFire\ServerComponents\istar\ICU\Firmware

108
Q

What is the default Port used to download firmware to iSTAR Controllers?

A

Port 2222

109
Q

How can the Port used to download firmware to iSTAR Controllers be changed?

A

In ICU, Enter the port number in the Download TCP/IP Firmware field on the Options dialog box.

110
Q

How can an operator check to see if the firmware download succeeded or failed?

A

The Activity Viewer in the Monitoring Station displays specific messages about success or failure
of firmware downloads.

111
Q

How does downloading firmware for an Ultra Controller differ from other iSTAR controllers?

A

The Ultra series controllers use RESTful API for their web server function.

112
Q

What System Variable must be set to TRUE to allow Firmware Download to Ultra Controllers
from the Monitoring Station?

A

Allow Web Server for Ultra Firmware Download in the iSTAR Driver section of System Variables.

113
Q

What is RESTful API?

A

The web server used for downloading firmware to Ultra series controllers.

114
Q

What two types of reader signaling are supported by Software House hardware?

A

Wiegand and Magnetic.

115
Q

What is the difference between a Proximity card and a Magnetic card?

A

Magnetic cards are normally used at a swipe card reader, while Proximity cards are do not need
to be swiped through a reader, they can be read by passing the card within a short distance of the
reader.

116
Q

Which devices can a Wiegand read head be connected to?

A

Direct connect to a controller, or connected to an RM Reader Bus (via RM-4 or RM-4E).

117
Q

How far away can a Wiegand read head be from the device it is connected to?

A

Up to 500 feet.

118
Q

How far away can a Magnetic read head be from the device it is connected to?

A

Up to 10 feet.

119
Q

What is the maximum length of a reader bus?

A

Up to 4000 feet.

120
Q

Which types of devices can be connected to a reader bus?

A

The RM bus can have RM-4s, RM-4Es, R/8s, and I/8s connected to it.

121
Q

How should shields on a reader bus be grounded?

A

Attach a local earth ground (18 - 22 gauge) wire to the J5 component on the RM-4.

122
Q

What are Events used for?

A
123
Q

What is the significance of the Event Priority?

A
124
Q

How does a Manual Action differ from an Event?

A
125
Q

What is a Panel Event? How does it differ from a Host Event?

A
126
Q

What is a Trigger?

A
127
Q

What is an Event Action?

A
128
Q

How can one Event activate another Event? Why would an operator want to do this?

A
129
Q

What is a Predefined Event Message?

A
130
Q

What is a Door Forced condition?

A
131
Q

What is a Door Held condition?

A
132
Q

Why would an operator want to create Groups?

A

It is frequently more efficient to group Doors, Holidays, or other objects when configuring
clearances or to group different types of events together.

133
Q

What file categories and types are supported by Maps?

A

Two file categories can be loaded: vector files and raster files. The file types include:
* Vector - *.dxf, *.dwg,
* Raster - *.jpg, *.png

134
Q

Name three types of Holidays.

A
  • Non-recurring
  • Monthly/Yearly
  • Weekly
135
Q

How many Holidays can be downloaded to an iSTAR Controller?

A

24 Holiday Groups with a maximum of 256 Holidays per Group = 6144.

136
Q

What are pre-configured Schedules?

A

There are three pre-configured Schedules that cannot be edited or deleted: Always, Never, and
Nightly.

137
Q

How can an operator view a visual representation of when a Schedule is active?

A

Click the Preview Activation Times button on the Schedule General tab.

138
Q

What is the maximum number of Clearances a person can have?

A

Up to 1000 Clearances by setting the System Variable Maximum Clearance Per Person.

139
Q

What is the Clearance Approval tab used for?

A

To specify which approval rule applies to the Clearance. Approvals for Clearance assignments
are only needed if using the Access Management web portal application. Choose No Approval
Needed to be able to manually assign this Clearance to Personnel.

140
Q

How is a PIN-only credential created and generated?

A

Click the Add PIN Only Access button to add a PIN-only credential. The Auto Generate
button must be used to generate a unique PIN when using this option.

141
Q

What is a General PIN?

A

A General PIN is used in conjunction with an access card at designated readers to gain access to
a location (Card + PIN).
A PIN-only access credential is used at keypad-only access locations in place of an access card.

142
Q

What is a Default View?

A

Default views are views that control how the Quick Search feature displays information. When a
default view is set for an object type, a Quick Search of the object type displays in the Content
pane of the columns that are specified in the default view.

143
Q

How are Columns added and deleted in a Dynamic View?

A

Right-click any column in the list. A context menu appears showing all the fields of the object
type that can be displayed as columns in the Dynamic view. The fields that are currently displayed
in the view are marked with a checkmark.
Check fields to be added, or uncheck fields that should not be viewed in the Dynamic View.

144
Q

How is a Dynamic View filtered?

A

Click the Filter button. The filter bar appears. Type into the filter bar columns to filter on that
column. For example, Type “Bur” in the Name column of the Personnel Dynamic View to find
persons with a name that includes those letters. Click “ “ to change the criteria.

145
Q

What is Card View?

A

The Dynamic View Viewer provides a Card View capability that allows the viewing of objects
in the Viewer as Card Records, similar to the Address Card view in MS OFFICE Contacts.

146
Q

What is Editing in Place?

A

Typically, to edit data in a record listed in a Dynamic View, an operator would double-click the
record to open the editor for that record, or right-click on the record and click Edit from the
context menu.
However, if the appropriate privileges do not exist and the Dynamic View is configured to allow
one or more data columns to be edited, the data can be edited directly from the Dynamic View.

147
Q

What is a Quick Query and how is one opened?

A

A Quick Query is a Dynamic View that can be filtered by entering data in the Quick Query Pane.
When “ “ is clicked, a Quick Query is displayed as a Dynamic View.

148
Q

In a Quick Query how are the available Templates (only) viewed?

A

If the “check box “ Template field is checked, a Quick Query returns only objects that are Templates.

149
Q

What is a Recall Query?

A

If a Query is run from the Query Dynamic View the results are veiwed, and the operator wants to
re-run the Query with some changes, click the Recall Query button and the Parameter Prompts
screen will reappear, and the Query prompts can be changed.

150
Q

How is an Audit Log Query run?

A
  • Select Options & Tools > Audit Log.
  • A parameter prompts screen appears.
  • Click Run to run the Query.
151
Q

How is a Journal Default Query run?

A
  • Select Options & Tools > Journal.
  • Click Run to run the Query.
152
Q

What tab is used to specify the fields that appear on a Report?

A

Use the Report tab to specify the object type on which to report and the data fields to be included
in the report.

153
Q

Name four ways to run a Report.

A
  • Right-click a Report in the list to open the Report context menu.
  • Click View to run the report as a new tab in the C*CURE 9000 content area.
  • Click Pop-up View to run the Report and view it in a separate pop-up window.
  • Click View in Current Tab to run the report in the current tab in the C*CURE 9000 content
    area.
  • Click Run on Server to start the report running in the background. The finished report is saved
    and is accessible from the Report Result Dynamic View.
154
Q

What can a Report be scheduled to run at a specific time?

A

Create a Schedule that becomes active at the time the Report should be run, then create an Event
with a Run Report action that specifies the Report name and the Schedule.

155
Q

How is a Report that has been run and displayed in the C*CURE 9000 Admin Station saved?

A

If viewing the Report, click Save Result to save the Report output. The Report is saved as a Report
Result. The saved Report Result can be found by Viewing a List of Report Results.

156
Q

What is the Report Service?

A

The Report Service is a separate process that runs on the C*CURE 9000 server. The Report
Service executes Reports that are Run on Server by an Operator or that are configured to run as
an Event Action.

157
Q

What is an Application Layout?

A

An Application Layout is an arrangement of the available viewers and toolbars that can make up
a Monitoring Station display.

158
Q

How do operators obtain access to an Application Layout?

A

Application Layouts are assigned to an Operator on the Layout tab of the Operator editor.

159
Q

How is an Application Layout configured?

A

Drag viewers from the General pane to the layout to make the viewers available to Operators
who are using the layout.

160
Q

Name three (3) Viewer types that can be added to an Application Layout.

A
  • Event Viewer
  • Activity Viewer
  • Object Viewer
  • Swipe and Show
  • Event Assessment Viewer.
161
Q

What is a Privilege?

A

A Privilege Object is a collection of rights configured to allow Operators access to security
Objects such as Readers, Doors, Inputs, Outputs and Privileges. These individual rights are called
Permissions.

162
Q

If an operator is assigned two Privileges that conflict (for example, one privilege denies any
access to Personnel, while the other privilege allows Read (view) access to Personnel), what
happens?

A

The least restrictive Privilege assigned to the operator is granted. So in this case, the operator is
given Read access to Personnel.

163
Q

What is a Limited Operator?

A

An Operator who dies not have the SYSTEM ALL Privilege (which grants all access to everything
in the system) is a limited Operator.

164
Q

What is a Manual Action Challenge?

A

When the Manual Action Challenge box is checked on the Manual Action tab in the Operator
editor, it will require Operators who are assigned this privilege and who are attempting to
execute a manual action to authenticate with the system by entering their username and
password before they can successfully perform the manual action.

165
Q

How can a system administrator control when an operator is allowed to access C*CURE 9000?

A

They can assign the Operators Privileges to a Schedule (such as daily 7AM to 6PM) so that they
cannot access the system outside those hours.

166
Q

What are the two databases that generate Log Volumes?

A
  • The Audit Log (SWHSystemAudit) lists operations for Primary and Secondary objects.
  • The Journal Log (SWHSystemJournal) stores records of activities in the system.
  • For example, the Card Admit Log Type lists the Cardholder Name as the primary object and the
    Door or Elevator as the secondary object.
167
Q

When would Delete Backup Files be used in the Log Backup Management option?

A

This may need to be done to create more disk space on the Server where the C*CURE 9000
resides. However, Software House recommends that the files are archived elsewhere before
deleting them.

168
Q

What information is contained in the Audit Log?

A

Changes to objects such as creating a new object or modifying an existing object. For example,
the Edit Object operation lists the Operator Name that performed an Edit Object operation on a
Primary object.

169
Q

How is the Audit Log accessed?

A

In the Options & Tools pane, select Audit Log.

170
Q

What kind of information is contained in the Journal Log?

A

The Journal contains records of activities that occur in the system. For example, the Card Admit
Log Type lists the Cardholder Name as the primary object and the Door or Elevator as the
secondary object.

171
Q

How is the Journal Log accessed?

A

In the Options & Tools pane, select Journal.

172
Q

Why might an operator want to retrieve deleted Log Files?

A

These log volume files might need to be restored to the C*CURE 9000 Backup directory to
recover system history from a long time ago.

173
Q

What is the difference between the Log Volume Backup and Log Volume Management
Actions?

A

The Log Volume Backup Action performs a backup of Audit Log or Journal Log volumes.
The Log Volume Management Action performs a backup of Audit Log or Journal Log volumes,
then deletes the Audit Log or Journal Volumes to free up space.

174
Q

How is a Log Volume Management Action scheduled to recur on a weekly basis?

A

The Event Editor is used to create an event with the pre-defined Log Management action and
then define a schedule to associate with the Event.

175
Q

How can the Audit Log be searched for a specific change that occurred sometime in the past?

A

On the Query Parameters screen, Click Modify to change the default Audit parameters. For
example, the filter for the Server Date/Time value can be changed from Last Hour to Last 24 hours, Last 7 days, Last 12 months, etc. For Edit Operation, click the select button in the Value
field to select one or more operation types such as Object Changed and Object Deleted.

176
Q

Name the C*CURE 9000 databases that can be backed up from the application or from SQL.

A
  • SWHSystemJournal
  • SWHSystemAudit
  • ACVSCore
  • ACVSBIRS
177
Q

How can SQL databases be automatically backed up?

A

The Event Editor can be used to create an event with the pre-defined Database Backup action and
then define a schedule to associate with the event. C*CURE 9000 performs the backups as a
recurring event.

178
Q

What Event Action is used to perform database backups?

A

Database Backup Action.

179
Q

How can a list of the system database backups performed be generated?

A
  • Select the Journal option from the Options & Tools Pane
  • Then select System Activity Message in Message Types.
  • Click Run, then filter the Dynamic View that results in the Message Text column on “Database
    Backup” to see a list of database backups performed.
180
Q

Name two different methods that can be used to restore a database.

A
  • Backup Restore tab in the Server Configuration Application
  • Restore Database in SQL Server Management Studio.
181
Q

How can a database backup be performed via SQL?

A
  • Open SQL Management Express (All Programs > Microsoft SQL Server 2014 > SQL Server
    Management Studio Express) and select Databases.
  • Navigate to the database and right-click to select Tasks. Click Back Up and click OK to backup the
    database selected to the default backup destination.
182
Q

What is the default backup destination for SQL database backups of the C*CURE 9000
databases? How can that default location be changed?

A
  • The Default SQL Server backup folder is set in SQL server.
  • The Default SQL Server backup folder can be viewed by Opening Microsoft SQL Server
    Management Studio and selecting the Database Backup action for ACVSCore by right-clicking on
    ACVSCore, then select Tasks>Backup.
  • The default backup folder will be visible in the Destination table. The exact file path can differ for
    different versions of SQL server.
183
Q

Describe the steps to set up and configure a Badge.

A

a. Badge Setup - configure setting for Portrait, Signature, Fingerprint capture and Printing
b. Badge Layout - create the appearance of the badge
c. Assign Badge Layout to Person - so that the badge printed uses the layout
d. Import Portrait, Images, Signature, Fingerprint - so that these are used by the badge layout.
e. Preview and Print Badge - View the badge on-screen, and send it to a badge printer.

184
Q

How is a Portrait configured?

A

Options & Tools > Badge Setup > Portrait Settings button.
Choose size, format, Brightness/Contrast, and Capture, Import, or both.

185
Q

How are Biometric settings configured?

A

Options & Tools > Badge Setup > Biometric Settings button.
Choose Capture Settings and number of fingerprints per card.

186
Q

How are Signature settings configured?

A

Options & Tools > Badge Setup > Signature Settings button.
Choose size, format, Brightness/Contrast, and Capture device.

187
Q

How are printer and sheet layout settings configured?

A

Options & Tools > Badge Setup > Printer Options button.
Select Printer, Origin offset (if any), check Smartcard (if needed).

188
Q

How is Batch Printing configured?

A

Options & Tools > Badge Setup > select Batch Printing, then Batching Options.
Select Printer, Origin offset (if any), check Smartcard (if needed), Batch Queue Mode, and Use
Sheet Layout (if desired).

189
Q

How is the Badge Designer activated?

A

Select Badge Layout from the Personnel Pane. Then select New.
Click Launch C*CURE ID Badge Designer.

190
Q

Describe the process of printing a dynamic image on a Badge.

A

Configure the badge layout to include a dynamic image, linking the image on the badge to a
Customer field in Personnel (such as Text4). Capture/Import an Image to be the dynamic Image
for the person. Enter the Image Id (such as “Portrait_(5011-2)” into the Customer field (such as
Text4) to act as a link to the dynamic image.

191
Q

How is a Badge previewed?

A

From the Personnel Badging tab, select the badge to be previewed, then click Preview Badge.

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