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T-38 Trans Check GK > General Regulations Questions > Flashcards

General Regulations Questions Flashcards

1
Q

How can you activate the static inverter?

A

Either engine start button, the fuel/oxygen quantity check/gauge switch, MAX power

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2
Q

What is the allowed time for the afterburner to light during takeoff?

A

5 seconds

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3
Q

How many seconds from initial fuel flow do you have for an EGT rise? What do you do if you get no EGT rise?

A

12 seconds; abort the start, then let the engine motor for 2 minutes to purge fuel and vapors before trying again

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4
Q

What pins are you required to install during an emergency ground egress?

A

None

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5
Q

What are the landing gear extension limits?

A

240 KIAS, no more than 45 degrees of bank, no more than 1.5Gs

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6
Q

What is the throttle setting for normal thrust?

A

98% or 630 EGT, whichever occurs first

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7
Q

How long does the start button arm the ignition circuit?

A

30 seconds

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8
Q

When is the low fuel pressure light a valid indication of boost pump failure?

A

Crossfeed is off, fuel shutoff switch normal, throttle out of off

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9
Q

When will the hydraulic caution light illuminate?

A

Hydraulic fluid over-temperature / low hydraulic pressure

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10
Q

What PSI is considered low pressure for the hydraulic system?

A

1500 psi

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11
Q

What PSI is required to extinguish the hydraulic caution light?

A

1800 psi

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12
Q

Is it acceptable for the hydraulic caution light to illuminate during normal cycling of the flight controls if the light goes out afterward?

A

No, with normal movement, hydraulic pressure should not drop below 1500 psi

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13
Q

Up to what altitude will fuel flow by gravity feed be guaranteed with the throttles in MAX? Up to what altitude will it normally suffice? Flameouts have occurred as low as what altitude?

A

6000 ft / 25000 ft / 7000 ft

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14
Q

While accelerating, the landing gear warning may not go out until what airspeed?

A

240 KIAS

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15
Q

What is the minimum RPM required for start?

A

12%

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16
Q

What do crosswind landing procedures mean? When are they in effect?

A

Land on upwind side of runway, maintain the landing attitude and do not aerobrake, 6000 ft landing spacing. In effect when crosswinds are greater than 15 knots.

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17
Q

Before engine shutdown, operate the engines at _____ RPM or below for a minimum of ____

A

70% // 1 minute

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18
Q

What is the minimum speed to retract flaps on a single-engine go-around?

A

200 KIAS

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19
Q

What altitude should you be below before attempting an airstart?

A

FL250

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20
Q

How do you engage the barrier?

A

Steer to engage perpendicular, in a 3-pt attitude, in the center if possible

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21
Q

Can you advance the throttles above idle after a compressor stall?

A

Yes, if no engine damage is suspected

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22
Q

What systems do you lose if you RAM DUMP?

A

Defog, Canopy seals, G-suit, air conditioning, and cabin pressure (DC GAP)

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23
Q

When does the anti-ice system come on?

A

Placing the switch in MAN ON, loss of right AC power, when engine RPM is below 65%

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24
Q

At engine speeds of 94-98% RPM an increase in EGT of approximately ____ is normal with anti-ice on

A

15 degrees C

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25
Q

What kind of thrust loss can you expect when the anti-ice system is on?

A

8.5% at MIL, 5.5% at MAX

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26
Q

When do you not crossfeed?

A

Boost pump failure, indicator malfunction, leak in fuel system, low altitude (dual engine), low fuel (dual engine)

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27
Q

What is a throttle burst?

A

Idle to MIL in 1 second or less

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28
Q

What is the engine oil capacity?

A

4 quarts with 1 quart expansion space

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29
Q

Oil consumption through engine operation and overboard venting should not exceed ____ per hour

A

6 ounces per hour

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30
Q

When does the fuel low caution light illuminate?

A

7.5 seconds after either fuel indicator reads below 250 pounds

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31
Q

What is the full rudder deflection under normal conditions with the gear down? Gear up?

A

30 degrees down // 6 degrees up

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32
Q

How is the landing gear warning system activated?

A

Gear not down and locked, airspeed below 210 KCAS, altitude below 10,000 ft, both throttles below 96%

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33
Q

Can you taxi with a canopy malfunction? What do you do?

A

No, the aircraft should not be taxied or towed until cleared by qualified maintenance personnel

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34
Q

What is the gross weight of the T-38?

A

12,800 pounds

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35
Q

At what RPM does the gearbox shift?

A

65-75%

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36
Q

What is the voltage of the DC TRUs?

A

28 volts

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37
Q

What is the minimum voltage to close the battery relay? At what voltage does the relay open?

A

18 volts / 10 volts

38
Q

What are the items on the left AC bus?

A

Rudder trim, AOA vane heater, Lights (console, instrument, landing/taxi, position, beacon), Left autosyn instruments/boost pump, YSAS (RALLY acronym)

39
Q

What are the items on the right AC bus?

A

Trim, HUD, Exciters (ignition), Canopy seal, Oxygen quantity and low level warning circuit, Pitot heat/TAT probe heater, Flap motors, Air conditioning/anti-ice, Right autosyn instruments/boost pump, MDP, Seat height adjustment (THE COP FARMS)

40
Q

What items are on the non-essential DC bus?

A

TCAS processor, UFCP, Video Tape Recorder, VHF radio, HUD video camera (TUVV+H)

41
Q

What items are on the left DC bus?

A

WCA panel/oxygen low level warning, VOR, ILS, AOA lights/utility lights/flood lights, Flap switch, Fire light bulb test (left), AAP/AIU/Standby Attitude Indicator & Altimeter, Cross feed valves/fuel shutoff, Transponder (IFF), Speed brake (W VIA FFACTS)

42
Q

What items are on the right DC bus?

A

MFD, ADC, DTS, EED, TACAN, AIU/Generator switches, NAV (GPS/INS/RALT), Gear control & indicators/Landing & Taxi light switch, Fire detect & test circuits, Flap position indicator, UHF radio, Nosewheel steering, Nozzle position sensor (MADE TANG FUN)

43
Q

What are the three phase AC items?

A

Boost pumps, HUD, TRUs, Flaps

44
Q

What are the engine mounted gearbox accessories?

A

TONTOMAMA
T5 Alternator
Overspeed governor
Nozzle actuator
Tachometer generator
Oil pump
Main fuel pump
Afterburner fuel pump
Main fuel control
Afterburner fuel control

45
Q

What is the thrust output at MIL? MAX?

A

MIL = 2200 pounds
MAX = 3300 pounds

46
Q

What is the voltage of the AC power supply?

A

115/200 volts

47
Q

What is the voltage of the AC power supplied by the static inverter?

A

115 volts

48
Q

What does the Flap-Slab Interconnect system do?

A

It compensates for aerodynamic changes caused by flap operation and maintains essentially the same aircraft handling qualities by:
- eliminating the pitch changes caused by flap movement by repositioning the horizontal tail
- increasing the amount of horizontal tail travel available in the nose down direction
- increasing the amount of horizontal tail deflection per inch of stick travel

49
Q

What are the inputs to the main fuel control and what are its functions?

A

Inputs: DIRT
compressor Discharge pressure
engine Inlet air temperature
RPM
Throttle position

Functions: SEVR
Stops flameouts/compressor stalls/overtemps
Engine speed regulated via throttle position
Variable geometry system (positions inlet guide vanes and air bleed valves)
Reduces fuel flow at low power settings

50
Q

What are the AB fuel control inputs?

A

DENT
compressor Discharge pressure
EGT (T-5)
Nozzle position
Throttle position

51
Q

What is T2 cutback and how do you fix it?

A

At low airspeeds and low outside air temperatures, engine RPM and EGT indications are below normal operating limits for MIL and MAX. To correct, exchange altitude for airspeed before moving throttles.

52
Q

What is EGT Droop and how do you fix it?

A

At high airspeeds and low altitude, engine EGT indications are below normal operating limits for MIL with nozzle indicating 3% or less. To correct, exchange airspeed for altitude before moving throttles.

53
Q

What is Idle Decay and how do you prevent it?

A

At altitudes above 20,000 feet with the throttles at IDLE and airspeed 200 knots or below, in flight idle RPM can decay to less than ground idle (46-50%) and the generator lights may illuminate. Avoid Idle Decay by maintaining RPM above 80% when less than 200 KCAS above 20,000 feet. If it happens, correct by leaving the affected throttle in idle and increasing airspeed above 200 KCAS.

54
Q

Afterburner provides what percent thrust augmentation above MIL power?

A

10-50% according to Section V of the Dash 1, but the checkride guide says 5-40%

55
Q

How can you deactivate the nosewheel steering system?

A

Release the NWS button, either throttle in MAX, or rotate to get weight off the nose gear

56
Q

Nosewheel tires can be severely damaged when maximum deflection turns are attempted at ground speeds in excess of ____ knots.

A

10 knots

57
Q

What is minimum taxi spacing? Staggered taxi spacing?

A

300 ft trail / 150 ft staggered

58
Q

How is Joker fuel defined?

A

A prebriefed fuel needed to terminate an event and transition to the next phase of flight.

59
Q

How is Bingo fuel defined?

A

A prebriefed fuel state which allows the aircraft to return to the base of intended landing or alternate, if required, using preplanned recovery parameters and arriving with normal recovery fuel.

60
Q

What is emergency fuel for the T-38?

A

400 pounds

61
Q

What are the crosswind limits?

A

Dry, dual, full stop - 30 kts
Dry, dual, touch n go - 20 kts
Wet, dual, full stop - 20 kts
Wet, dual, touch n go - 15 kts
Form T/O or crosswind procedures - 15 kts
Solo dry - 15 kts
Solo wet - 10 kts
Snow/slush/standing water - 10 kts

62
Q

When should you land at an alternate based on landing roll, if possible?

A

When landing distance exceeds 80% of runway length

63
Q

What are the no-flap crosswind landing restrictions?

A

Do not perform no-flap touch-and-go landings on runways without a suitable barrier when the crosswind component exceeds 15 knots

64
Q

What are the crosswind restrictions when there is no suitable barrier available?

A

If crosswinds exceed 15 knots, the minimum runway length for 60- and 100-percent flap touch-and-go’s on runways without a suitable barrier is 10,000 feet

65
Q

What are the minimum items for an OPS check?

A

Engine instruments, fuel quantities/balance, G-suit connection (when appropriate), oxygen system, and cabin altitude

66
Q

How do you know when it is safe to operate a system on the ground?

A

The crew chief will repeat ground visual signals

67
Q

Are you allowed to taxi an aircraft with a single generator malfunction or failure?

A

No

68
Q

What is the minimum runway length required for a T-38 takeoff? Can it be changed?

A

8000 ft // OG/CC can waive to 7000 ft

69
Q

What is the minimum altitude to do TP stalls? Maximum altitude?

A

8000 ft AGL // FL200

70
Q

What is the maximum altitude for nose high recoveries and instrument unusual attitudes?

A

FL240

71
Q

Can pilots reduce gross weight by burning down fuel to a predetermined usable fuel weight prior to taking the runway for takeoff?

A

Yes, with squadron supervisor approval

72
Q

Maximum taxi speed is ___ kts GS in congested areas and the parking rows, and ____ kts otherwise.

A

10 // 25

73
Q

What DME must you remain within on a breakout from the VFR pattern?

A

7 DME

74
Q

What is the minimum landing spacing for the same side of the runway? Opposite sides?

A

6000 ft // 3000 ft

75
Q

How many T-38s may occupy taxiway Juliet at one time?

A

2

76
Q

Off the center runway, you are told by Lariat “Center, continue straight ahead.” What should you do?

A

Maintain RWY heading and VFR at or below 1600’ until pattern entry clearance is received

77
Q

Under Restricted Patterns, what is the primary way to enter the VFR pattern?

A

ZADOM Procedure

78
Q

Aircraft full stopping on the hot side of the runway should not transition to the cold side until past _____

A

The 2,000’ remaining sign (2 board)

79
Q

What are the tolerances for the HSI?

A

Within 8 degrees of the magnetic compass and within 5 degrees of a known heading

80
Q

When do you execute a stall recovery in the traffic pattern?

A

If stall indications or an excessive sink rate occur in the traffic pattern, immediately execute a stall recovery

81
Q

When may we combine the climb check and level off check?

A

When the cruise altitude is at or below FL180

82
Q

What are the entry parameters for a Cuban 8? How much altitude do you need? How much distance?

A

500 knots, MIL power // 8-10k feet above you // 1 mile ahead and 2 miles behind

83
Q

What are the entry parameters for a Cloverleaf? How much altitude do you need? How much distance?

A

450 knots, MIL power // 8-10k feet above you // 3 nm forward; 2 nm in direction of first turn; 3 nm opposite direction of first turn

84
Q

Rolling takeoffs increase takeoff roll approximately _____

A

150-300ft

85
Q

When do you need a wing-walker? What is the minimum obstacle clearance for taxiing?

A

Any time taxiing within 25 feet of an obstacle (unless behind equipment lines) // 10 feet

86
Q

What is the minimum speed to start a closed pull-up? What is the minimum speed during a closed pull-up?

A

240 KIAS // 200 KIAS

87
Q

When you approach the break how do you ensure 3000 or 6000 foot spacing?

A

45 degrees off on inside downwind for 3000 ft spacing // abeam for 6000 ft spacing

88
Q

What minimum airspeed should be maintained on inside downwind?

A

Final turn airspeed

89
Q

How do rolling takeoffs affect takeoff roll and critical field length?

A

Increases both by 150-300 feet

90
Q

Is it permissible to descend in slow flight?

A

Yes, if MIL power will not hold level flight

91
Q

What is normal recovery fuel for dual aircraft at Laughlin? Solo?

A

800 lbs dual // 1000 lbs solo

T-38 Trans Check GK (3 decks)

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