Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Medical Science > Human Structure and Function > Flashcards

Human Structure and Function Flashcards

0
Q

What are the 11 systems of the human body?

A
  1. Integumentary system
  2. Skeletal system
  3. Muscular system
  4. Nervous system
  5. Endocrine system
  6. Cardiovascular system
  7. Lymphatic system
  8. Respiratory system
  9. Digestive system
  10. Urinary system
  11. Reproductive system
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

What are the 6 levels of structural organisation in the human body?

A
  1. Chemical Level
  2. Cellular Level
  3. Tissue Level
  4. Organ Level
  5. System Level
  6. Organismal Level
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the respiratory system composed of?

A

Lungs, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchial tubes, and the alveoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How does the respiratory system contribute to homeostasis?

A
  • Transfers oxygen from inhaled air to blood
  • Transfers carbon dioxide from blood to exhaled air
  • Helps regulate acid/base balance of body fluids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the skeletal system composed of?

A

Bones and joints of the body, and their associated cartilages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How does the skeletal system help maintain homeostasis?

A
  • Supports and protects the body
  • Provides surface area for muscle attachment
  • Aids body movement
  • Houses cells that produce blood cells
  • Stores minerals and lipids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the muscular system composed of?

A

Skeletal muscle tissue — muscle usually attached to bones

Other muscle tissues include smooth and cardiac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How does the muscular system contribute to homeostasis?

A
  • Participates in body movements
  • Maintains posture
  • Produces heat
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the integumentary system composed of?

A

Skin and associated structures (hair, nails, sweat and oil glands)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How does the integumentary system contribute to homeostasis?

A
  • Protects the body
  • Helps regulate body temperature
  • Eliminates some waste
  • Helps make vitamin D
  • Detects sensation (touch, cold, hot)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the nervous system composed of?

A

Brain, spinal cord, nerves, and special sense organs (eyes, ears)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the function of the nervous system?

A
  • Generates action potentials to regulate body activities
  • Detects changes in body’s internal and external environments
  • Interprets changes and responds by causing muscular contractions or glandular secretions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the endocrine system composed of?

A
  • Hormone producing glands (pineal gland, hypothalamus, pituitary gland, thymus, thyroid gland, parathyroid glands, adrenal glands, pancreas, ovaries, testes)
  • Hormone producing cells in several other organs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the function of the endocrine system?

A

Regulates body activities by releasing hormones into the blood stream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the lymphatic system composed of?

A

Lymphatic fluid and vessels, thymus, lymph nodes, tonsils

Cells that carry out immune responses (B cells, T cells, and others)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the function if the lymphatic system?

A
  • Returns proteins and fluid to the blood
  • Carries lipids from the gastrointestinal tract
  • Contains sites of maturation and proliferation of B cells and T cells that protect against disease-causing microbes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the components of the digestive system?

A

Mouth, pharynx, oesophagus, stomach, small and large intestines, anus

Salivary glands, liver, gall bladder, and pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the function of the digestive system?

A
  • Achieves physical and chemical breakdown of food
  • Absorbs nutrients
  • Eliminates solid waste
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the components of the urinary system?

A

Kidney, ureters, urinary bladder, and urethra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the function of the urinary system?

A
  • Produces, stores and eliminates urine
  • Eliminates wastes and regulates volume and chemical composition of blood
  • Helps maintain acid/base balance of body fluids
  • Maintains body’s mineral balance
  • Helps regulate production of red blood cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the components of the reproductive system in a female?

A

Ovaries (gonads), uterine tubes, uterus, vagina and mammary glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the components of the reproductive system in a male?

A

Testes (gonads), epididymides, ductus deferens, seminal vesicles, and penis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the function of the reproductive system?

A
  • Gonads produce gametes (sperm or oocytes) that unite to form a new organism
  • Gonads also release hormones that regulate reproduction and other body processes
  • Associated organs transport and store gametes
  • Mammary glands produce milk
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What do the gonads produce?

A

Gametes (sex cells)

Ova or sperm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What does the scrotum contain?

A

The testes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Why are the testes outside of the body?

A

To provide a lower temperature, which is required for sperm production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is each testis covered externally by?

A

A tunica albuginea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What does each lobule of the testis contain?

A

Sperm-producing seminiferous tubules

Interstitial cells that produce androgens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the erectile tissue of the penis made of?

A

Corpus spongiosum and corpora cavernosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The male perineum is the region encompassed by…?

A

The pubic symphysis, ischial tuberosities and the coccyx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The ___________ hugs the external surface of the testis and serves as a site for _______ ___________ and ___________

A

Epididymis

Sperm maturation

Storage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The _________ ______________, extending from the epididymis to the ______________ duct, propels sperm into the urethra by ___________ during ejaculation

A

Ductus deferens

Ejaculatory

Peristalsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The accessory glands produce the bulk of the __________, which contains fructose from the _____________ __________, activating fluid from the ___________ gland, and mucus from the ______________ glands

A

Semen

Seminical vesicles

Prostate

Bulbourethral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the structures that draw an ovulated oocyte into the female duct system?

A

Cilia and fimbriae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the usual site for embryo implantation?

A

The uterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the male homologue of the female clitoris?

A

The penis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are secondary sex characteristics a result of?

A

The increasing amount of sex hormones during puberty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What produces the male sex hormones?

A

The interstitial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What will occur as a result of nondescent of the testes?

A

Viable sperm will not be produced

Due to increased temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the normal diploid number of human chromosomes?

A

46

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which hormones directly regulate the ovarian cycle?

A

FSH and LH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which chemicals in males inhibit the pituitary-testicular axis?

A

Inhibin and testosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Which hormone makes cervical mucus viscous?

A

Progesterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What potentiates the activity of testosterone on spermatogenic cells

A

Androgen-binding protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What exerts feedback inhibition on the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary in females?

A

Oestrogens, progesterone and inhibin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What hormone stimulates the secretion of testosterone?

A

LH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

The menstrual cycle can be divided into three continuous phases

Starting from the first day of the cycle, what is their consecutive order?

A

Menstrual, proliferative, secretory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Spermatozoa are to seminiferous tubules as oocytes are to…?

A

Ovarian follicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

The corpus luteum is formed at the site of the…?

A

Ovulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

The sex of a child is determined by…?

A

The sex chromosome contained in the sperm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

A drug that “reminds the pituitary” to produce gonadotropins might be useful as a ____________

A

Fertility drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Describe the function of the scrotum in protecting the testes from temperature fluctuations

A

The location of the scrotum and the contraction of its muscle fibres regulate the temperature of the testes

In response to cold temperatures, the cremaster and dartos muscles contract, moving the testes closer to the body, where they can absorb heat.

Contraction of the dartos muscle causes the scrotum to become tight, which reduces heat loss.

Exposure to warmth reverses these actions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the groups of reproductive organs in males, and what are the functions of each group?

A

The gonads (testes) produce gametes (sperm) and hormones

The ducts transport, store and receive gametes

The accessory glands secrete materials that support the gametes

The penis assists in the delivery and joining of gametes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Which muscles help regulate the temperature of the testes?

A

The cremaster and dartos muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What tissue layers cover and protect the testes?

A

The tunica vaginalis and tunica albuginea are tissue layers that cover and protect the testes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Which cells secrete testosterone?

A

The Leydig (interstitial) cells of the testes secrete testosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the outcome of meiosis I?

A

The number of chromosomes in each cell is halved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What are the functions of each part of the sperm cell?

A

The sperm head contains the nucleus, with 23 highly condensed chromosomes and an acrosome that contains enzymes for penetration of a secondary oocyte

The neck of the sperm contains centrioles that produce microtubules for the rest of the tail

The midpiece contains mitochondria for ATP production for locomotion and metabolism

The end pieces of the tail provide motility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Which cells secrete inhibin?

A

Serotoli cells secrete inhibin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Which hormones inhibit secretion of FSH and LH by the anterior pituitary?

A

Testosterone inhibits secretion of LH, and inhibin inhibits secretion of FSH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What accessory gland contributes the majority of seminal fluid?

A

The seminal vesicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Which tissue masses from the erectile tissue of the penis, and why do they become rigid during sexual arousal?

A

Two corpus cavernosa penis and one corpus spongiosum penis contain blood filled sinuses that fill with blood that cannot flow out of the penis as quickly as it flows in

The trapped blood engorges and stiffens the tissue, producing an erection

The corpus spongiosum penis keeps the spongy urethra open so that ejaculation can occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

To which structures do the mesovarium, ovarian ligament and suspensory ligament anchor the ovary?

A

The mesovarium anchors the ovary to the broad ligament of the uterus and the uterine tube

The ovarian ligament anchors the ovary to the uterus

The suspensory ligament anchors the ovary to the pelvic wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Which structures in males are homologous to the ovary, the clitoris, the paraurethral glands and the greater vestibular glands?

A

Ovaries — Testes

Clitoris — Glans penis

Paraurethral glands — Prostate

Greater vestibular glands — bulbourethral glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What structures in the ovary contain endocrine tissue, and what hormones to the secrete?

A

Ovarian follicles secrete oestrogen

The corpus luteum secretes progesterone, oestrogen, relaxin and inhibin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What happens to most ovarian follicles?

A

Most ovarian follicles undergo atresia (degeneration)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

How does the age of a primary oocyte in females compare with the age of a primary spermatocyte in males?

A

Primary oocytes are present in the ovary at birth, so they are as old as the woman

Primary spermatocytes are continually being formed from stem cells (spermatogonia), and thus are only a few days old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Where does fertilisation usually occur?

A

Fertilisation most often occurs in the ampulla of the uterine tubes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What type of cells line the uterine tubes?

A

Ciliated columnar epithelial cells and nonciliated (peg) cells with microvilli line the uterine tubes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What structural features of the endometrium and myometrium contribute to their functions?

A

The endometrium is a highly vascularised, secretory epithelium that provides the oxygen and nutrients needed to sustain a fertilised egg

The myometrium is a thick smooth muscle layer that supports the uterine wall during pregnancy and contracts to expel the fetus at birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the structural significance of the stratum basalis of the endometrium?

A

The stratum basalis of the endometrium provide cells to replace those that are shed (the stratum functionalis) during each menstruation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What surfaces are anterior to the vaginal opening?

A

The mons pubis, clitoris, prepuce, and external urethral orifice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What surfaces are lateral to the vaginal opening?

A

The labia minors and labia majora

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Why is the anterior potion of the female peritoneum called the urogenital triangle?

A

Because it’s borders form a triangle that encloses the urethral (uro-) and vaginal (-genital) orifices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What hormones regulate the synthesis of milk?

A

Prolactin, oestrogen and progesterone regulate the synthesis of milk

Oxytocin regulates the ejection of milk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Of the several oestrogens, which one exerts the major effect?

A

The principle oestrogen is ß-estradiol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Which hormone is responsible for the proliferative phase of endometrial growth?

A

Oestrogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Which hormone is responsible for ovulation?

A

LH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Which hormone is responsible for growth of the corpus luteum?

A

LH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Which hormone is responsible for the mid cycle surge of LH?

A

Oestrogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is the effect of rising but still moderate levels of oestrogens on the secretion of GnRH, LH and FSH?

A

Negative feedback inhibition of the secretion of GnRH, LH and FSH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

When declining levels oestrogens and progesterone stimulate secretion of GnRH, is this a positive or negative feedback effect? Why?

A

This is negative feedback, because the response is opposite to the stimulus.

A reduced amount of negative feedback due to declining levels oestrogens and progesterone stimulates the release of GnRH, which in turn increases the production and release of FSH and LH, ultimately stimulating the secretion of oestrogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Which gene is responsible for the development of the gonads into testes?

A

The SRY gene on the Y chromosome is responsible for the development of gonads into testes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Which hormone is responsible for the differentiation of the external genitals?

A

The presence of dihydrotestosterone (DHT) stimulates differentiation of the external genitals in males

It’s absence allows differentiation of the external genitals in females

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is the function of the ovaries?

A

The ovaries produce secondary oocytes and hormones, including progesterone and oestrogens (female sex hormones), inhibin, and relaxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is the function of the oviducts?

A

The oviducts transport a secondary oocyte to the uterus and normally are the sites where fertilisation occurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is the function of the uterus?

A

The uterus is the site of implantation of a fertilised ovum, development of the foetus during pregnancy, and labour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is the function of the vagina?

A

The vagina receives the penis during sexual intercourse. And is a passageway for childbirth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is the function of the mammary glands?

A

The mammary glands synthesise, secrete and eject milk for nourishment of the newborn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is the function testes?

A

The testes produce sperm and the male sex hormone testosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is the function of the system of ducts in the male reproductive system?

A

The ducts transport, store, and assist in maturation of sperm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is the function of the male accessory sex glands?

A

The accessory glands secrete most of the liquid portion of semen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is the function of the penis?

A

The penis contains the urethra, which is a common passageway for ejaculation of semen and excretion of urine

93
Q

What are some key differences in function among the four tissue types?

A

Epithelial tissues cover the body, line various structures, and form glands

Connective tissues protect, support, bind organs together, store energy, and help provide immunity

Muscular tissue contracts and generates force and heat

Nervous tissue detects changes in the environment and generates nerve impulses that activate muscular contraction and glandular secretion

94
Q

Which type of cell junction functions in communication between adjacent cells?

A

Gap junctions allow cellular communication via passage of electrical and chemical signals between adjacent cells

95
Q

What relationship between epithelial tissues and connective tissues is important for the survival and function of epithelial tissues?

A

Since epithelial tissues are avascular, they depend on blood vessels in connective tissues for oxygen, nutrients, and waste disposal

96
Q

What are the functions of the basement membrane?

A

The basement membrane provides physical support for the epithelium and plays a part in growth and wound healing, restriction of molecule movement between tissues, and blood filtration in the kidneys

97
Q

Which cell shape is best adapted for the rapid movement of substances from one cell to another?

A

Because the cells are so thin, substances move most rapidly through squamous cells

98
Q

How do simple multicellular exocrine glands differ from compound ones?

A

Simple multicellular exocrine glands have a non branched duct; compound multicellular exocrine glands have a branched duct

99
Q

What class of glands are sebaceous (oil) glands?

A

Sebaceous glands are Holocene glands

100
Q

What class of glands are salivary glands?

A

Salivary glands are merocrine glands

101
Q

What is the function of fibroblasts?

A

Fibroblasts secrete the fibres and ground substances of the extracellular matrix

102
Q

What is an epithelial membrane?

A

An epithelial membrane is a membrane that consists of an epithelial layer and an underlying layer of connective tissue

103
Q

What are the four types of tissue?

A

Epithelial, muscular, connective and nervous

104
Q

What two criteria is epithelial tissue classified by?

A

Cell shape and the arrangement of cells in layers

105
Q

Which muscular tissue can be voluntary controlled?

A

Skeletal muscle

106
Q

Why does damaged cartilage heal so slowly?

A

Cartilage is avascular, so materials needed for repair must diffuse from surrounding tissue

107
Q

Which of the following is a subdiscipline of anatomy?

a) Biochemistry
b) Endocrinology
c) Psychology
d) Embryology
e) Exercise Physiology

A

Embryology

108
Q

Histology could be defined as a study of

a) cells.
b) tissues.
c) chemistry of cells.
d) gross structures of the body
e) function

A

Tissues

109
Q

The term smooth refers to what type of tissue?

a) Connective
b) Glandular
c) Epithelial
d) Muscle
e) Nervous

A

Muscle

110
Q

Which of the following best describes the relationship between the right shoulder and the navel?

a) The right shoulder is inferior and medial to the navel.
b) The right shoulder is inferior and lateral to the navel.
c) The right shoulder is superior and medial to the navel.
d) The right shoulder is superior and lateral to the navel.
e) The right shoulder is superior and proximal to the navel.

A

The right shoulder is superior and lateral to the navel

111
Q

Which two systems are responsible for the control of all of the other body systems?

a) Respiratory and cardiovascular
b) Skeletal and muscular
c) Nervous and endocrine
d) Immune and Reproductive
e) Integumentary and Skeletal

A

Nervous and endocrine

112
Q

The cranial cavity is

a) where the brain is located.
b) lined by the meninges.
c) part of the ventral body cavity.
d) A and B only are correct.
e) A, B, and C are all correct.

A

A and B only are correct

113
Q

Microvilli and goblet cells are characteristic of

a) areolar connective tissue.
b) simple squamous epithelium.
c) simple columnar epithelium.
d) skeletal muscle tissue.
e) All of these could have microvilli and goblet cells.

A

Simple columnar epithelium

114
Q

Cilia are commonly seen on cells in tissues that

a) line the blood vessels.
b) line the respiratory tract.
c) form the skin.
d) move from one place to another.
e) All of these are correct.

A

Line the respiratory tract

115
Q

The surface area for diffusion across the membranes of cells in simple columnar epithelium is increased by the presence of

a) goblet cells.
b) microvilli.
c) cilia.
d) desmosomes.
e) All of the above increase the surface area.

A

Microvilli

116
Q

A change in membrane potential from +30mV to -70mV is an example of…?

a) Depolarisation
b) Hyperpolarisation
c) Polarisation
d) Repolarisation
e) Zero polarisation

A

Repolarisation

117
Q
  1. A threshold potential is

a) the potential achieved when two opposing forces acting upon an ion (concentration and electrical gradients) achieve a state of equilibrium
b) the peak potential achieved during an action potential
c) the point at which ther si an explosive increase in Na+ permeability
d) the potential at which K+ permeability increases
e) always a positive potential

A

The point at which ther si an explosive increase in Na+ permeability

118
Q

The nodes of Ranvier are

a) Action potential recordings
b) Breaks in the myelin covering
c) Lipid paths
d) Spaces between neurones
e) Specialised Cells

A

Breaks in the myelin covering

119
Q

The nucleus of a neuron is housed in the

a) axon
b) axon hillock
c) cell body
d) collaterals
e) dendrites

A

Cell body

120
Q

Which of the following is not part of the peripheral nervous system?

a) motor neurones
b) sympathetic nervous system
c) spinal cord
d) afferent division
e) autonomic nervous system

A

Spinal cord

121
Q

Afferent neurones

a) transmit information to effector organs
b) have motor function
c) transmit messages to the spinal cord
d) connect different parts of the brain
e) control involuntary body functions

A

Transmit messages to the spinal cord

122
Q

Which characteristic is relevant to the endocrine system rather than the nervous system?

a) releases chemicals into synaptic clefts
b) chemical signals operate at very short distances
c) speed of response is very rapid
d) signalling may affect a wide range of cells
e) anatomically ‘wired’ system

A

Signalling may affect a wide range of cells

123
Q

Which statement regarding endocrine glands is INCORRECT?

a) They produce hormones
b) They secrete their products into the blood
c) They are comprised of epithelial tissue
d) They are all controlled by the nervous system
e) They are ductless

A

They are all controlled by the nervous system

124
Q

Which structure in the human body secretes insulin and glucagon?

a) Posterior pituitary
b) Liver
c) Pancreas
d) Stomach
e) Adrenal medulla

A

Pancreas

125
Q

Sperm are stored for maturation in the

a) anterior pituitary
b) ductus deferens
c) epididymis
d) Leydig cells
e) urethra

A

Epididymis

126
Q

Testosterone:

a) is responsible for the male secondary sexual characteristics
b) stimulates spermatogenesis
c) acts in negative feedback fashion on the anterior pituitary and hypothalamus
d) secretion is stimulated by LH
e) all of the above

A

All of the above

127
Q

Which of the following help move the oocyte into and through the uterine tube?

a) peristalsis
b) cilia
c) flagella
d) fimbriae
e) All of the above except flagella.

A

All of the above except flagella

128
Q

At day 4 after fertilization, the solid ball of cells that has formed is called the

a) zygote.
b) blastocyst.
c) gastrula.
d) morula.
e) embryo.

A

Morula

129
Q

Chondroblasts

a) are mature cartilage cells located in spaces called lacunae.
b) are within the cartilage divide and secrete new matrix.
c) are located deep to the perichondrium divide and secrete new matrix on the external surface of the cartilage.
d) Both B and C are correct.
e) None are correct

A

Both B and C are correct

130
Q

The function of the epiphyseal plate is to

a) allow more flexibility in a long bone.
b) allow a means by which the bone can increase in diameter.
c) allow a means by which the bone can increase in length.
d) provide nourishment to isolated osteocytes.
e) Both B and C are correct.

A

Allow a means by which the bone can increase in length

131
Q

Osteons are typical of the structure of

a) compact bone.
b) epiphyseal plates.
c) spongy bone.
d) the endosteum.
e) All of these contain osteons.

A

Compact bone

132
Q

Collagen is secreted by

a) mesenchyme cells.
b) osteoblasts.
c) osteoclasts.
d) hydroxyapatites.
e) Both B and C are correct.

A

Osteoblasts

133
Q

Which of the following is TRUE regarding the skeletal system?

a) It provides support and protection.
b) It stores minerals.
c) It assists in body movements.
d) It houses cells that give rise to blood cells.
e) All of the above are true.

A

All of the above are true

134
Q

Bone grows in diameter by

a) appositional growth on the periosteal side of the bone.
b) interstitial growth.
c) activity at the epiphyseal plate.
d) activity of the hemopoietic tissue.
e) A, B, and C are all correct.

A

Appositional growth on the periosteal side of the bone

135
Q

The evidence for bipedality in early hominins includes

a) the position of the foramen magnum
b) fossilized footprints
c) the postcranial skeleton
d) all of the above
e) none of the above

A

All of the above

136
Q

Bipedalism may have been favoured by natural selection because

a) it is an efficient way of moving on the ground.
b) it keeps the hands free for carrying things.
c) an erect posture helps maintain a cooler body temperature.
d) all of the above
e) none of the above

A

All of the above

137
Q

What are the 3 sections of the brain?

A

Forebrain, midbrain and hindbrain

138
Q

What is the forebrain associated with?

A

Chemical senses – taste and smell

139
Q

What is the midbrain associated with?

A

Vision

140
Q

What is the hindbrain associated with?

A

Vibration (hearing)

141
Q

How is the spinal cord separated?

A

With a dorsal and ventral side

142
Q

What do the dorsal roots into the spinal cord do?

A

They accept incoming sensory information

143
Q

What do the ventral roots into the spinal cord do?

A

They send out motor commands to the body

144
Q

What is the hindbrain made up of?

A

The medulla oblongata, the cerebellum and the fourth ventricle

145
Q

What does the medulla oblongata do?

A

It controls the autonomic homeostatic system, so it controls changes in the body, adjusting the conditions to keep it constant

Any damage to the medulla oblongata is fatal

146
Q

What does the cerebellum do?

A

It integrates information about the body’s position with motor commands

147
Q

What does the Pons do?

A

It is the part of the brain stem that forms a “bridge” between the medulla oblongata and the midbrain, anterior to the cerebellum

148
Q

What is the central aqueduct and what are the structures in it?

A

In the midbrain

The roof is called the tectum, and separates into the superior and inferior colliculi

149
Q

Define membrane

A

A thin, flexible sheet of tissue that cover or line a part of the body

150
Q

Which tissue does all other connective tissues eventually arise?

A

Mesenchyme

151
Q

What connective tissue has a clear liquid matrix, and flows in lymphatic vessels?

A

Lymph

152
Q

What connective tissue consists of several kinds of cell, containing all three fiber types randomly arranged, and is found in the subcutaneous layer deep to the skin?

A

Areolar connective tissue

153
Q

What loose connective tissue is specialise for triglyceride storage?

A

Adipose connective tissue

154
Q

Which tissue contains reticular fibres, reticular cells and forms the stromatolites of certain organs, such as the spleen?

A

Reticular connective tissue

155
Q

Which tissue has irregularly arranged collagen fibres found in the dermis of the skin?

A

Dense irregular connective tissue

156
Q

Which tissue is found in the lungs, that is strong and can recoil back to its original shape after being stretched?

A

Elastic connective tissue

157
Q

What tissue afford flexibility at the joints, and reduces joint friction?

A

Hyaline cartilage

158
Q

What tissue provides strength and rigidity, and is the strongest of the three types of cartilage?

A

Fibrocartilage

159
Q

What tissue is composed of bundles of collagen arranged in parallel patterns, and composes tendons and ligaments?

A

Dense regular connective tissue

160
Q

What tissue contains a network of elastic fibres, providing strength, elasticity, and maintenance of shape, and is located in the external ear?

A

Elastic cartilage

161
Q

What connective tissue with formed elements is suspended in a liquid matrix called plasma?

A

Blood

162
Q

What is a mucous membrane?

A

A membrane that lines cavities that open to the exterior, such as the gastrointestinal tract

163
Q

What is a serous menpmbrane!

A

A membrane that lines closed cavities, and cover organs in the cavities

These organs consist of parietal and visceral layer

164
Q

What is the cutaneous membrane?

A

The skin.

It covers the entire body and consists of a superficial epidermis (epithelium) and deep dermis (connective tissue)

165
Q

What is a sinovial membrane

A

A membrane that lines joint cavities and consists of areola connective-tissue

166
Q

What do muscular tissues consist of?

A

Muscle fibres or myocytes that are specialised for contraction

167
Q

What is the function of muscular tissue?

A

Muscular tissue provides motion, maintenance of posture, heat production, and protection.

168
Q

Where is skeletal muscle tissue attached?

A

Skeletal muscle tissue attaches to the bones

169
Q

Where is smooth muscle tissue found?

A

Smooth muscle tissue is found in the walls of hollow internal structures (Blood vessels and viscera)

170
Q

What is the nervous system composed of?

A

The nervous system is composed of neurons (nerve cells) and neuroglia (protective and supporting cells)

171
Q

How do neurons respond to stimuli?

A

Neurons respond by converting stimuli into electrical signals called nerve action potentials (nerve impulses), and conducting nerve impulses to other cells

172
Q

What do most neurons consist of?

A

Most neurons consist of a cell body and two types of processes, dendrites and axons

173
Q

What is electrical excitability?

A

Electrical excitability is the ability to respond to certain signals by producing electrical signals such as action potentials

174
Q

Name two types of excitable cells

A

Because neurons and muscle fibres exhibit electrical excitability, they are considered excitable cells

175
Q

Define tissue repair

A

Tissue repair is the replacement of worn out, damaged, or dead cells by healthy ones

176
Q

How do stem cells assist in tissue repair?

A

Stem cells may divide to replace lost or damaged cells

177
Q

What is involved in tissue repair?

A

Is the injury superficial, tissue repair involves parenchymal regeneration

If damage is extensive, granulation tissue is involved

178
Q

What is vital to tissue repair?

A

Good nutrition and blood circulation are vital to tissue repair

179
Q

Define a tissue

A

A tissue is a group of cells, usually with similar embryological origin, that is specialised for a particular function

180
Q

What is a cell junction?

A

Cell junctions are points of contact between adjacent plasma membranes

181
Q

What is the function of a tight junction?

A

Tight junctions for fluid tight seals between cells

182
Q

What is the function of adherens junctions, desmosomes, and hemidesmosomes?

A

They anchor themselves to one another or to the basement membrane

183
Q

What is the function of a gap junction?

A

Gap junctions permit electrical and chemical signals to pass between cells

184
Q

Compare epithelial and connective tissues

A

Epithelial tissues have many cells tightly packed together and are avascular

Connective tissues have relatively few cells with lots of extra cellular material

185
Q

What are the subtypes of epithelial tissues?

A

The subtypes of epithelial tissues include covering and lining epithelia and glandular epithelia

186
Q

Where is simple squamous epithelium found in the body?

A

It is found in parts of the body where filtration or diffusion is a priority process.

One type, called endothelium, lines the heart and blood vessels.

Another type, called mesothelium, form the serous membranes the line the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities and cover organs within them

187
Q

Where is simple cuboidal epithelium found?

A

Simple cuboid or epithelium consists of a single layer of cube shaped cells that function in secretion and absorption.

It is found covering the ovaries, in the kidneys and eyes, and lining some of the glandular ducts

188
Q

Where is nonciliated simple columnar epithelium found?

A

Non-ciliated simple columnar epithelium is a single layer of non-ciliated rectangular cells, which lines most of the gastrointestinal tract and contain specialised cells that perform absorption and secrete mucus.

189
Q

Where is ciliated simple columnar epithelium found?

A

Ciliated simple columnar epithelium, which consists of a single layer of ciliated rectangular cells, is found in a few portions of the upper respiratory tract, where it moves foreign particles trapped in mucus out of the respiratory tract.

190
Q

What is the difference between ciliated and non-ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium?

A

The ciliated variety contains goblet cells and lines most of the upper respiratory tract. The ciliated variety moves mucus in the respiratory tract.

The nonciliated variety have no goblet cells and lines ducts of many glands, epididymis, and part of the male urethra. The non-ciliated variety of functions in absorption and protection

191
Q

What does transitional epithelium consist of?

A

Transitional epithelium consists of several layers of cells whose appearance varies with the degree stretching

It lines the urinary bladder

192
Q

List two physiological responses that will counteract a fall in body temperature

A

Shivering

Vasoconstriction

193
Q

Identify two physiological responses that occur in response to a rise in body temperature

A

Sweating

Vasodilation

194
Q

The fluid part of blood is known as _______

A

Plasma

195
Q

The blood volume in adults is approximately __________

A

5-6 litres

196
Q

Blood vessels that carry blood away from the heart are __________

A

Arteries

197
Q

The normal pulse rate (at rest) is around _________ beats per minute

A

65-75

198
Q

What is the function of the lymph nodes?

A

Filtering of microorganisms and other material from lymph

199
Q

Name the two parts of the central nervous system

A

Brain and spinal cord

200
Q

The grey matter of the nervous system is formed by _________

A

Cell bodies

201
Q

Groups of cell bodies in the central nervous are usually described as ________

A

Nuclei

202
Q

White matter of the nervous system is formed by _________

A

Axons

203
Q

Nerve fibres that carry impulses from the central nervous system are described as _________

A

Efferent

204
Q

Groups of cell bodies in the peripheral nervous system are described as __________

A

Ganglia

205
Q

A neurone receives incoming impulses at the _________

A

Dendrites

206
Q

Outline the function of the blood-brain barrier

A

Protects the brain from potentially toxic substances and chemical variations in the blood

207
Q

What is access to the epidural space used for in clinical medicine?

A

Insertion of dyes for diagnostic purposes, or for administration of drugs

208
Q

Name the fluid found in the ventricles of the brain

A

Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

209
Q

CSF is secreted by choroid plexuses situated in _________

A

The ventricles

210
Q

CSF circulation is assisted by __________ ?

A

Breathing, pulsation of blood vessels, and changes in position

211
Q

CSF returns to the blood _________

A

Through the arachnoid villi when CSF pressure is greater that venous pressure

212
Q

The approximate volume of CSF in adults is _________

A

150ml

213
Q

Normal constituents of CSF include:

A

Water, glucose, albumin, leukocytes

214
Q

Normal CSF pressure when lying down is around _________

A

10cm H2O

215
Q

Outline the functions of CSF

A

Supports the brain in the cranial cavity

Maintains uniform pressure around the brain and spinal cord

Protects the brain and spinal cord by acting as a shock absorber between the brain and cranial bones

Keeps the brain and spinal cord moist

May allow exchange of substances between CSF and nerve cells

216
Q

Define articulating surface

A

The part of the bone that enters into the formation of a joint

217
Q

Define articulation

A

A joint between two or more bones

218
Q

What is a bony sinus?

A

A hollow cavity within a bone

219
Q

Define border

A

A ridge of bone separating two surfaces

220
Q

What is a condyle?

A

A smooth rounded projection of bone that forms part of a joint

221
Q

What is a facet?

A

A small, generally rather flat, articulating surface

222
Q

What is a fissure or cleft?

A

A narrow slit

223
Q

What is a foramen? (Plural: foramina)

A

A hole in a structure

224
Q

What is a fossa? (Plural: fossae)

A

A hollow or depression

225
Q

Define meatus

A

A tube-shaped cavity within a bone

226
Q

What is a septum?

A

A partition separating two cavities

227
Q

Define spine, spinous process, or crest

A

A sharp ridge of bone

228
Q

What is a suture?

A

An immovable joint

E.g. Between the bones of the skull

229
Q

What is a styloid process?

A

A sharp, downward projection of bone that gives attatchment to muscles and ligaments

230
Q

Define trochanter, tuberosity, or tubercle

A

Roughened bony projections, usually for attachment of muscles of ligaments

The different names are used according to the size of the projection

Trochanters are the largest and tubercles, the smallest

Medical Science (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions