PUO Flashcards

1
Q

What criteria define the classic PUO? Give 3 aetiologies

A

Temp >38.3
>3w
>,3 OP evaluations/ >,3d IP
Infection, Malignancy, Collagen vascular disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What criteria define the nosocomial PUO? Give 3 aetiologies

A

Temp >38.3
Patient hospitalised >24h but no fever or incubating on admission
>,3d evaluation
C. diff enterocolitis, Drug induced, PE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What criteria define the immune deficient PUO? Give 4 aetiologies

A

Temp >,38.3
Neutrophils ,<500/mm3
>,3d evaluation
Opportunistic bacterial infections, Aspergillosis, Candidiasis, HSV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What criteria define the HIV-associated PUO? Give 3 aetiologies

A

Temp >38.3
>4w OP / >3d IP
HIV+
CMV, Mycobacterium avium complex, PCP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the trend in the number of patients with no identified diagnosis presenting with PUO? Why?

A

Increasing
Ageing populaiton
Development of immunosuppressive drugs
Increasingly survivable chronic conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How does PUO differ with geographic trends?

A

European: 11-26% due to infectious cause
India: 55% due to infectious cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What broad causes predominate in children with PUO?

A

Infection 44%
No diagnosis 43%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which 7 features should not be missed in taking a PUO history?

A

B-Sx
Localising Sx
DH: doses + initiation
Contact hx, Pets, Animal exposure
IVDU
Sexual hx
Travel, accommodation + activities abroad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Give 5 example risk activities that should be enquired about in PUO

A

White water rafting: water borne pathogens
Caving: bat poo
Safari: Tick bites
Prostitutes: STIs
Medical elective: sick contacts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Give 6 aspects of examination in PUO

A

Head to toe
Fundoscope: infective endocarditis
ENT: oral thrush- HIV seroconversion
Erythema migraines: Rickettsias
Thump Spine: many infections have predilection for vertebrae
Temporal artery palpation: Temporal arteritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What 7 basic investigations may be taken in A+E for PUO?

A

FBC
U+Es
LFT
CRP
Urine dip
Blood cultures
CXR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the most useful test to confirm EBV infection 2 weeks after exposure in an immunocompetent patient?

A

EBV IgM
Rises in 1-2w, stays high for 2-4w, then decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does and FDG-PET CT scan show?

A

Radiolabelled glucose accumulates in hyper metabolic cells (infection, inflammation, malignancy)
Identifies focus (doesn’t determine cause)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which criteria is used in diagnosing infective endocarditis? Give the 3 major criteria

A

Duke’s criteria
Persistent bacteraemia >2 BC +ve
Echo: vegetation
+ve serology for Bartonella, Coxiella or Brucella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Give the 6 minor criteria in Duke’s criteria

A

Predisposition (murmur, IVDU)
Inflammatory markers (Fever, CRP high)
Immune complexes: splinters, RBCs in urine
Embolic phenomena: Janeway lesions, CVA
Atypical echo
1 +ve BC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When suspecting an infective cause of PUO, what blood tests do you request?

A

Rare + Imported Pathogens Laboratory bloods (RIPL)

17
Q

What go to inflammatory cause of PUO should be considered in young patients and old patients?

A

Young: Adult-onset Stills
Old: GCA

18
Q

What are 4 major criteria of adult-onset stills disease?

A

Temp >39 for >1w
Leukocytosis >10,000
Salmon pink rash
Arthralgias >2w

19
Q

What measurement may be high and help diagnose adult onset Stills disease?

A

Serum ferritin
Due to macrophage activation syndrome

20
Q

What is adult onset stills disease?

A

Rare inflammatory arthritis
Monophonic, Intermittent or Chronic

21
Q

Give 5 minor criteria for adult onset stills disease

A

Sore throat
Lymphadenopathy
Splenomegaly/ hepatomegaly
Abnormal LFT
ANA + RF -ve

22
Q

Give 3 investigations for GCA

A

High ESR + CRP
Duplex US
Temporal Artery Biopsy (GS)

23
Q

How should suspected GCA be treated?

A

High dose glucocorticoids STAT e.g. Prednisolone
Involve rheumatology

24
Q

Give 4 malignant causes of PUO

A

Lymphoma esp. non Hodgkins
Leukaemia: BM biopsy
Renal cell carcinoma +/- haematuria
Hepatocellular carcinoma/ liver mets

25
Q

Why is PUO in lymphoma a difficult diagnosis?

A

Often advanced disease with aggressive subtype
Presentation overlaps with infectious causes e.g. TB
Raised LDH, weight loss, lymphadenopathy

26
Q

Give a miscellaneous cause of PUO

A

Drug fever (ADR)
Idiosyncratic reaction / affect on thermoregulation
+/- Eosinophilia
+/- rash

27
Q

Give 5 causes of PUO which warrant urgent treatment pre-confirmation

A

Infective endocarditis
Disseminated TB
CNS TB
GCA
Sepsis

28
Q

Give 3 features raising suspicion of infective endocarditis and 3 investigations

A

New cardiac murmur
Splinter haemorrhages
Hx of valvular pathology /IVDU

BC
Echo
Serology for Brucella, Bartonella, Q fever

29
Q

Give 4 features raising suspicion of disseminated TB and 4 investigations

A

Weight loss
Drenching night sweats
Cough
Travel/ time spent in endemic region

Mycobacteria BC
Sputum culture for acid-fast bacilli
HIV test
CXR

30
Q

Give 3 features raising suspicion of CNS TB and 3 investigations

A

Headaches
Reduced level of consciousness
Travel/ time spent in endemic region

Cerebral MRI/ CT with contrast
LP
HIV test

31
Q

Give 3 features raising suspicion of GCA

A

Unilateral headache
Jaw claudication
Scalp tenderness
Polymyalgia rheumatica
Visual loss

ESR
Temporal artery biopsy
Visual acuity assessment

32
Q

Give 4 features raising suspicion of sepsis. What investigations/ management is necessary?

A

Resp rate >20
SBP <100
HR > 90
Altered mental status

Blood cultures
Urine output: measure- catheter
Fluids
Abx
Lactate
O2