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KA-400 > Autopilot Flight Director System > Flashcards

Autopilot Flight Director System Flashcards

1
Q

How does the AFDS control the the flight controls?

A

3 FCC, that power 3 A/P servos through hydraulics.

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2
Q

What is the FCC?

A

Flight Control Computer

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3
Q

What is the difference between land 2 or land 3 with regard to the AFDS?

A

Land 3 used all 3 FCC and A/P servos and is used for auto land
Land 2 only uses 2

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4
Q

What happens when the FD are selected on?

A

Engages TO/GA for roll and pitch on the FMA

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5
Q

What are the thrust modes on takeoff?

A

THR REF once TO/GA is pressed and TO thrust is set.
HOLD once 65 kias is reached

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6
Q

Minimum AP engagement?

A

250’

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7
Q

What is a limitation of the aileron trim?

A

Use of aileron trim while the autopilot is engaged is prohibited.

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8
Q

What are the limitations for a single autopilot approach?

A
  • Without LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciated, the A/P must not remain engaged below 100 feet RA.
    -The A/P must be disengaged before the airplane descends more than 50 feet below the MDA unless it is coupled to an ILS glideslope and localizer or in the go-around mode.
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9
Q

What are the limitations for autoland?

A

Headwind/Crosswind - 25 knots
Tailwind - 15 knots
CAT II/III Crosswind - 15 knots
3.25° to 2.5° Glideslope
Flaps 25 or 30

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10
Q

What are the A/T FMA annunciations?

A

THR
THR REF
IDLE
HOLD
SPD

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11
Q

What are the ROLL FMA annunciations?

A

TO/GA
LNAV
HDG SEL
HDG HOLD
LOC
ROLLOUS
ATT

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12
Q

What are the PITCH FMA annunciations?

A

TO/GA
VNAV SPD
VNAV PTH
VNAV ALT
V/S
FLCH SPD
ALT
G/S
FLARE

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13
Q

When does LNAV become active?

A

50’ after takeoff

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14
Q

What changes on the FMA when the AP is engaged?

A

CMD is displayed

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15
Q

When will the AFDS display autoland?

A

Passing through 1,500’

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16
Q

The maximum headwind on an autoland approach is ______.

A

25 kts

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17
Q

T/F: During single A/P controlled flight the rudder is operated by an A/P servo.

A

False

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18
Q

Which ATS thrust mode engages after a TO/GA switch is pressed during takeoff?

A

THR REF

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19
Q

What is the initial FD pitch on takeoff?

A

8° to V2 + 10 to V2 + 25

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20
Q

What will the FMA display in flight if the FD are turned on?

A

HDG HOLD and V/S unless the bank is more than 5° then ATT will be displayed

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21
Q

What indicates the A/T are armed?

A

The A/T switch position

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22
Q

When are the A/T no available?

A

If both FMCs fail or two or more engines are shutdown

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23
Q

What does the THR switch do?

A
  1. If pressed when the pitch mode is VNAV, FLCH, or TO/GA it will change the FMC reference thrust limit to armed climb thrust limit, or CON if an engine is inoperative. The light in the THR switch will remain extinguished and you may verify the operation of the selection by viewing the thrust limit change on the EICAS or the CDU THRUST LIM page.
  2. If pressed when the pitch mode is ALT, V/S, or G/S the A/T mode activates THR REF and the thrust levers will advance to the thrust limit. The light in the THR switch will illuminate.
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24
Q

When can the THR switched be used?

A

400’ after takeoff to landing

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25
Q

What does the SPD switch do?

A

The A/T controls thrust to maintain IAS or MACH displayed in the IAS/MACH window - subject to minimum and maximum speed limits.

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26
Q

When is the SPD switch inactive?

A

VNAV, FLCH SPD, TO/GA

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27
Q

What are the selectable IAS/MACH?

A

100 to 399 KIAS
.40 to .95 Mach

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28
Q

How can you enter speed intervention?

A

Press the IAS/MACH selector when in VNAV

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29
Q

How can speed intervention canceled ?

A

Activation of a different pitch mode

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30
Q

When Speed Intervention is Active, there are ________ alerts to the pilots.

A

No obvious

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31
Q

On the ground with both F/D off and the A/P disengaged, when the first F/D is turned ON, this displays in the Roll and Pitch FMA windows.

A

TO/GA

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32
Q

T/F: While a mode is armed and not active, it can be disarmed by pressing the same switch a second time.

A

True

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33
Q

When VNAV Mode is selected the IAS/MACH window _________.

A

Blanks

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34
Q

If A/T FMA is blank in flight how can you arm the A/T?

A

Cycle the A/T switch

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35
Q

When will A/T disconnect automatically?

A

-If a fault in the engaged A/T mode is detected;
-When a reverse thrust lever is raised to reverse idle;
-If the FMC master selector is switched;
-If both FMCs fail;
-If two or more engines are shut down.

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36
Q

Which A/T SPD mode does not have any speed protections?

A

V/S

37
Q

On landing when will the A/T move to IDLE?

A

25’ RA

38
Q

The Autothrottles are normally disconnected by _______.

A

Pushing an A/T disconnect switch

39
Q

Autothrottle operation is provided by both the ________ and _________.

A

MCP and CPUs

40
Q

What is the Crew Alert for Engagement of Speed Intervention?

A

There is no Alert

41
Q

What is the maximum angle a localizer can be captured?

A

120°

42
Q

When can the glideslope be captured?

A

Localizer is captured and intercept angle is within 80°

43
Q

What indicated that TO/GA is armed for landing?

A

Green “GA” on the EICAS

44
Q

When is TO/GA armed automatically?

A

Flaps are extended or GS is captured

45
Q

What happens on the FMA when descending below 1,500’ RA?

A

Land 2/3 displays
ROLLOUT and FLARE become armed

46
Q

What is indicated when a failure of land 3 occurs below 200’ RA?

A

The change is inhibited until after touchdown.

47
Q

How does the autoland provide rudder alignment?

A

Active rudder control

48
Q

The Aircraft must be within ______ degrees of the LOC Beam to capture LOC and _____ degrees within the LOC Beam to capture G/S.

A

120, 80

49
Q

After touchdown and the Reverse Thrust levers are moved back to the down position, the Autothrottle remains active until _______.

A

Flaps are moved UP and ten seconds pass

50
Q

The AFDS Status FMA window changes at ________ during Autoland.

A

1500’

51
Q

If the aircraft is below ______ the AFDS Status window will not change from LAND 3 to LAND 2.

A

200’

52
Q

What is the margin the FMC uses in speed management?

A

5 knots

53
Q

What speed modes offer speed protections?

A

VNAV, FLCH, TO/GA or all except V/S

54
Q

How does the airplane offer speed protection in VNAV, FLCH, and TO/GA?

A

Through elevator

55
Q

When would speed protections not be available during engine failure?

A

When the failure occurs above the engine out altitude.

56
Q

Speed Protection is NOT provided for the ___________ pitch mode.

A

V/S

57
Q

If FMC data is invalid, the _______ provide(s) the speed limits.

A

Flight Control Computers (FCC)

58
Q

What happens if you do not arm the A/T by 50 knots, on takeoff?

A

They are inhibited to 400’ RA

59
Q

When will LNAV become active on takeoff?

A

50’ above runway elevation within 2.5 miles of route

60
Q

What is the bank limit on HDG SEL when in auto?

A

15 to 25 degrees depending on TAS, flaps, and V2

61
Q

How does ATT work?

A

Become active when there is no AFDS roll mode.
5° - 30° will hold that bank angle
less than 5° it will roll to wings level HDG HOLD
Greater than 30° it will roll to 30° bank

62
Q

LNAV activates when the airplane is _______.

A

50’ above runway elevation and within 2.5 miles of route

63
Q

Selection of LNAV with the airplane not on a heading to intercept the active leg displays what message on the CDU?

A

NOT ON INTERCEPT HEADING

64
Q

Localizer (LOC) cannot capture until the aircraft is within range of the LOC beam and ____ of the LOC track.

A

120°

65
Q

To disarm the APP mode before LOC or G/S capture, the pilot would need to _______.

A

Push APP a second time
Select VNAV
Select LOC or LNAV

66
Q

What is TO/GA pitch guidance?

A

V2 + 10 or IAS at rotation +10 which ever is greater

67
Q

What happens if the initial TO/GA speed is exceeded for 5 seconds?

A

Target airspeed is reset to current airspeed but no more than V2+ 25

68
Q

How does the pop-up FD feature work?

A

FD will be displayed if TO/GA is pressed when airspeed is above 80 knots and flaps are not UP

69
Q

What happens when TO/GA is selected before climb thrust?

A

Thrust mode will switch to THR REF

70
Q

Assume your airspeed is over 80 knots and the flaps are not retracted. What action will cause the Flight Director guidance to pop-up when the Flight Director switch is off?

A

Pressing TO/GA

71
Q

What does the VNAV pitch mode provide?

A

Couple the AFDS to the FMS for automated vertical guidance

72
Q

Which A/T thrust mode is engaged after a TO/GA switch is pressed twice during a go-around?

A

THR REF

73
Q

On Takeoff what happens at 100 knots?

A

Barometric altitude is recorded for the T/O profile

74
Q

What is minimum A/P engagement altitude?

A

250’

75
Q

What is VNAV climb speed?

A

The greater of:
250 knots
Vref + 100 knots
Transition speed

76
Q

When the Aircraft accelerates through 65 knots ______.

A

The autothrottle FMA window changes to HOLD.

77
Q

When the Aircraft accelerates through 100 knots ______.

A

Current Barometric altitude is recorded

78
Q

When the Aircraft lifts off ______.

A

Pitch guidance is provided is provided for V2+10

79
Q

If LNAV is armed for takeoff it activates at ____ feet.
If VNAV is armed for takeoff it activates at ____ feet.

A

50’
400’

80
Q

When are TO/GA switches inhibited?

A

5’ RA

81
Q

What will the FMA display after 1 press of the TO/GA switch?

A

THR/ TO/GA/ TO/GA

82
Q

What will the FMA display after a second press of the TO/GA switch?

A

THR REF, setting full go around thrust

83
Q

How can go around mode be terminated?

A

Below 400’ RA: Turn off A/P and both FD
Above 400’ RA: Select a ROLL or PITCH mode

84
Q

When will the autopilot compensate for asymmetrical thrust with the rudder?

A

When 2 or more autopilots are engaged.

85
Q

T/F: During Autoland the rudder will automatically compensate for asymmetric thrust.

A

True

86
Q

TO/GA switches are inhibited ____ seconds after the radio altitude decreases through _____ feet on landing.

A

2
5

87
Q

______ will display in the Autothrottle FMA window after the first push of a TO/GA switch for a Go-Around.

A

THR

88
Q

The Go Around Mode is armed by:

A

Flap extension of G/S capture

KA-400 (33 decks)

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