SU 11 Cross-Country Flight Planning Flashcards

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1
Q

(Refer to Figure 51 on page 429.) If more than one cruising altitude is intended, which should be entered in item 15, “Level,” of the flight plan

A

Initial cruising altitude

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2
Q

(Refer to Figure 51 on page 429.) What information should be entered in item 15, “Level,” for a VFR day flight?

A

Initial cruising altitude

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3
Q

(Refer to Figure 51 on page 429.) What information should be entered into item 16, “Destination Aerodrome,” for a VFR day flight?

A

The destination airport identifier code

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4
Q

(Refer to Figure 51on page 429.) What information should be entered in item 19, “Endurance,” for a VFR day flight?

A

The total amount of usable fuel onboard expressed in hours and minutes

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5
Q

(Refer to Figure 51 on page 431.) What information should be entered in item 16. “Destination Aerodrome,” for a VFR day flight?

A

The ICAO four-letter indicator of destination airport if no stopover for more than 1 hour is anticipated.

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6
Q

(Refer to Figure 51 on page 431.) What information should be entered in item 19, “Endurance,” for a VFR day flight?

A

The amount of usable fuel on board expressed in time

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7
Q

(Refer to Figure 51 on page 431.) The international Flight Plan, FAA Form 7233-4, is used

A

for domestic and international flights under VFR and IFR

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8
Q

(Refer to Figure 51 on page 431.) If you are going to conduct a flight partially under VFR and partially under IFR, you should

A

file two flight plans, one for each portion of the flight.

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9
Q

How should a VFR flight plan be closed at the completion of the flight at a controlled airport

A

The pilot must close the flight plan with the nearest FSS or other FAA facility upon landing

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10
Q

During the preflight inspection who is responsible for determining the aircraft as safe for flight?

A

The pilot in command

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11
Q

Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in airworthy condition?

A

Owner or operator

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12
Q

How should an aircraft preflight inspection be accomplished for the first flight of the day?

A

Thorough and systematic means recommended by the manufacturer.

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13
Q

Upon encountering severe turbulence, which flight condition should the pilot attempt to maintain?

A

level flight attitude

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14
Q

The most important rule to remember in the event of a power failure after becoming airborne is to

A

immediately establish the proper gliding attitude and airspeed

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15
Q

When executing an emergency approach to land in a single-engine airplane, it is important to maintain a constant glide speed because variations in glide speed will

A

nullify all attempts at accuracy in judgement of gliding distance and landing spot.

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16
Q

VFR approaches to land at night should be accomplished

A

the same as during daytime

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17
Q

If you experience an engine failure in a single-engine aircraft after takeoff, you should

A

establish the proper glide attitude

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18
Q

When taxiing with strong quartering tailwinds, which aileron positions should be used?

A

Aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing

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19
Q

Which aileron positions should a pilot generally use when taxiing in strong quartering headwinds?

A

Aileron up on the side from which the wind is blowing

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20
Q

Which wind condition would be most critical when taxiing a nosewheel equipped high-wing airplane

A

Quartering tailwind

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21
Q

(Refer to Figure 9 on page 435.) (Refer to area A.) How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tricycle-gear equipped airplane into left quartering headwind?

A

Left aileron up, elevator neutral

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22
Q

(Refer to Figure 9 below.) (Refer to area C.) How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tricycle-gear equipped airplane with a left quartering tailwind?

A

Left aileron down, elevator down

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23
Q

(Refer to Figure 9 below.) (Refer to area B.) How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tailwheel airplane into a right quartering headwind?

A

Right aileron up, elevator up.

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24
Q

(Refer to Figure 9 below.) (Refer to area C.) How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tailwheel airplane with a left quartering tailwind?

A

Left aileron down, elevator down

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25
Q

The angular difference between true north and magnetic north is

A

magnetic variation

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26
Q

(Refer to Figure 23 on page 437.) On what course should the VOR receiver (OBS) be set to navigate direct from Hampton Varnville Airport (area 1) to Savannah VORTAC (area 3)?

A

195 DEG

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27
Q

(Refer to Figure 20 on page 439.) Determine the magnetic course from First Flight Airport (area 5) to Hampton Roads Airport (area 2)

A

331 DEG

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28
Q

(Refer to Figure 26 on page 441.) Determine the magnetic course from Cooperstown Airport (area 2) to Jamestown Airport (area 4)

A

210 DEG

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29
Q

(Refer to Figure 21 on page 443.) What course should be selected on the omni bearing selector (OBS) to make a direct flight from Mercer County Regional Airport (area 3) to the Minot Vortac (area 1) with TO indication

A

359 DEG

30
Q

(Refer to Figure 24 on page 445.) Determine the magnetic course from Airpark East Airport (area 1) to Winnsboro Airport (area 2). magnetic variation is 6 DEG 30’E.

A

075 DEG

31
Q

(Refer to Figure 24 on page 445.) On what course should the VOR receiver (OBS) be set in order to navigate direct from Majors Airport (area 1) to Quitman VOR-DME (area 2)?

A

101 DEG

32
Q

(Refer to Figure 24 on page 445.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Majors Airport (area 1) to Winnsboro Airport (area 2). The wind is from 340 DEG at 12 knots, the true airspeed is 136 knots, and the magnetic variation is 6 DEG 30’E

A

091 DEG

33
Q

(Refer to Figure 21 on page 447.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Mercer County Regional Airport (area 3) to Minot International (area 1). The wind is from 330 DEG at 25 knots =, the true airspeed is 100 knots, and the magnetic variation is 10 E

A

352 DEG

34
Q

(Refer to Figure 22 on page 449.) What is the magnetic heading for a flight from Priest River Airport (area 1) to Shoshone County Airport (area 3)? The wind is from 030 DEG at 12 knots and the true airspeed

A

121 DEG

35
Q

(Refer to Figure 22 on page 449.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from St. Maries Airport (area 4) to Priest River Airport (area 1). The wind is from 340 DEG at 10 knots and the true airspeed is 90 knots.

A

330 DEG

36
Q

(Refer to Figure 22 on page 449.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Sandpoint Airport (area 1) to St. Maries Airport (area 4). The wind is from 215 DEG at 25 knots and the True airspeed is 125 knots

A

172 DEG

37
Q

If a true heading of 135 DEG results in a ground track of 130 DEG and a true airspeed of 135 knots results in a ground speed of 140 knots, the wind would be from

A

246 DEG and 13 knots

38
Q

When converting from true course to magnetic heading, a pilot should

A

add westerly variation and subtract left wind correction angle

39
Q

(Refer to Figure 25 on page 451.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Fort Worth Meacham (area 4) to Denton Muni (area 1). The wind is from 330 DEG at 25 knots, the true airspeed is 110 knots, and the magnetic variation is 7 DEG E

A

003 DEG

40
Q

(Refer to Figure 23 on page 453.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Allendale County Airport (area 1) to Claxton-Evans County Airport (area 2). The wind is from 090 DEG at 16 knots and the true airspeed is 90 knots. Magnetic variation is 7 DEG W

A

210 DEG

41
Q

(Refer to Figure 58 below, and Figure 23 on page 453.) Determine the compass heading for a flight from Claxton-Evans County Airport (area 2) to Hampton Varnville Airport (area 1). The wind is from 280 DEG at 8 knots, and the true airspeed is 85 knots Magnetic variation is 7 DEG W.

A

044 DEG

42
Q

How far will an aircraft travel in 2-1/2 minutes with a groundspeed of 98 knots?

A

4.08 NM

43
Q

How far will an aircraft travel in 7.5 minutes with a ground speed of 114 knots?

A

14.25 NM

44
Q

On a cross-country flight, point A is crossed at 1500 hours and the plan is to reach point B at 1530 hours. Use the following information to determine the indicated airspeed required to reach point B on schedule.

Distance between A and B 70 NM
Forecast wind 310 at 15 kt.
Pressure altitude 8,000 ft
Ambient temperature -10 C
True course 270 DEG

The required indicated airspeed would be approximately

A

137 knots

45
Q

(Refer to Figure 21 on page 455.) What is the estimated time en route from Mercer County Regional airport (area 3) to Minot International (area 1)? The wind is from 330 DEG at 25 knots and the true airspeed is 100 knots. Add 3-1/2 minutes for departure and climb-out

A

48 1/2 minutes

46
Q

(Refer to Figure 22 on page 457.) Determine the estimated time en route for a flight from priest River Airport (area 1) to Shoshone County Airport (area 3). The wind is from 030 DEG at 12 knots and the true airspeed is 95 knots. Add 2 minutes for climb-out

A

31 minutes

47
Q

(Refer to Figure 22 on page 457.) What is the estimated time en route from Sandpoint Airport (area 1) to St. Maries Airport (area 4) ? The wind is from 215 DEG at 25 knots, and the true airspeed is 125 knots

A

34 minutes

48
Q

(Refer to Figure 22 on page 457.) What is the estimated time en route for a flight from St. Maries Airport (area4) to Priest River Airport (area 1)? The wind from 300 DEG at 14 knots and the true airspeed is 90 knots. Add 3 minutes for climb-out

A

43 minutes

49
Q

(Refer to Figure 23 on page 459.) While en route on Victor 185, a flight crosses the 248 DEG radial of Allendale VOR at 0953 and then crosses the 216 DEG radial of Allendale VOR at 1000. What is the estimated time of arrival at Savannah VORTAC?

A

1028

50
Q

(Refer to Figure 23 on page 459.) What is the estimated time en route for a flight from Allendale Country Airport (area 1) to Claxton-Evans County Airport (area 2)? The wind is from 100 DEG at 18 knots and the true airspeed is 115 knots. Add 2 minutes for climb-out

A

30 minutes

51
Q

(Refer to Figure 23 on page 459.) What is the estimated time en route for a flight from Claxton-Evans County Airport (area 2) to Hampton Varnville Airport (area 1)? The wind is from 290 DEG at 18 knots and the true airspeed is 85 knots. Add 2 minutes for climb-out

A

39 minutes

52
Q

(Refer to Figure 24 on page 461. ) Estimate the time en route from Majors Airport (area 1) to Winnsboro Airport (area 2). The wind is from 340 DEG at 12 knots and the true airspeed is 136 knots. Magnetic variation is 5 DEG east.

A

17 minutes 30 seconds

53
Q

(Refer to Figure 25 on page 463.) What is the estimated time en route for a flight from Denton (area 1) to Addison (area 2)? the wind is from 200 DEG at 20 knots, the true airspeed is 110 knots, and the magnetic variation is 7 DEG east

A

13 minutes

54
Q

(Refer to Figure 25 on page 463.) estimate the time en route from Addison (area 2) to Dallas Executive (area 3). the wind is from 300 DEG at 15 knots, the true airspeed is 120 knots, and the magnetic variation is 7 DEG East

A

8 minutes

55
Q

(Refer to Figure 20 below.) En route to First Flight Airport (area 5), your flight passes over Hampton Roads Airport (area 2) at 1456 and then over Chesapeake regional at 1501. At what time should your flight arrive at First Flight?

A

1526

56
Q

(Refer to Figure 68 below.) the line from point A to point B of the wind triangle represents

A

True heading and airspeed

57
Q

(Refer to Figure 68 below.) The line from point C to point B of the wind triangle represents

A

Groundspeed and true course

58
Q

(Refer to figure 68 below.) The line from point C to point A of the wind triangle represents

A

Wind direction and velocity

59
Q

(Refer to Figure 27 below.) An aircraft departs an airport in the eastern daylight time zone at 0945 EDT for a 2-hour flight to an airport located in the central daylight time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated universal time?

A

1545Z

60
Q

(Refer to Figure 27 below.) An aircraft departs and airport in the pacific standard time zone at 1030 PST for and 4-hour flight to an airport in the central standard time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated universal time?

A

2230Z

61
Q

(Refer to Figure 27 on page 466.) An aircraft departs an airport in the central standard time zone at 0930 CST for a 2-hour flight to an airport located in the mountain standard time zone. The landing should be at what time?

A

1030 MST.

62
Q

(Refer to Figure 27 on page 466.) An aircraft departs an airport in the central standard time zone at 0845 CST for a 20hour flight to an airport located in the mountain standard time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated universal time?

A

1645Z

63
Q

(Refer to Figure 27 on page 466.) An aircraft departs an airport in the mountain standard time zone at 1615 MST for a 2-hour 15 minute flight to an airport located in the pacific standard time zone. The estimated time of arrival at the destination airport should be

A

1730 PST

64
Q

(Refer to Figure 27 on page 466.) An aircraft departs an airport in the mountain standard time zone at 1515 MST for a 2-hour 30 minute flight to an airport located in the Pacific standard time zone. What is the estimated time of arrival at the destination airport?

A

1645 PST

65
Q

Select the four flight fundamentals involved in maneuvering an aircraft

A

Straight-and-level flight, turns, climbs, and descents

66
Q

(Refer to Figure 62 below.) In flying the rectangular course, when would the aircraft be turned less than 90 DEF

A

Corners 1 and 4

67
Q

(Refer to Figure 62 on page 468.) In flying the rectangular course, when should the aircraft bank vary from a steep bank to a medium bank?

A

Corner 3

68
Q

(Refer to Figure 66 below.) While practicing S-turns, a consistently smaller half-circle is made on one side of the road than on the other, and this turn is not completed before crossing the road or reference line. This would most likely occur in turn

A

4-5-6 because the bank is increased too rapidly during the early part of the turn

69
Q

To minimize the side loads placed on the landing gear during touchdown, the pilot should keep the

A

longitudinal axis of the aircraft parallel to the direction of its motion

70
Q

What should be expected when making a downwind landing? The likelihood of

A

Overshooting the intended landing spot and faster groundspeed at touchdown.