IP Connectivity Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which pairing reflects a correct protocol-and-metric relationship?
    A. EIGRP and link cost.
    B. RIPv2 and number of hops.
    C. OSPF and number of hops and reliability.
    D. IS-IS and delay and reliability.
A
  1. Which pairing reflects a correct protocol-and-metric relationship?
    A. EIGRP and link cost.
    B. RIPv2 and number of hops.
    C. OSPF and number of hops and reliability.
    D. IS-IS and delay and reliability.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which two statements describe the advantages to the use of RIP over the use of OSPF? (Choose two).
A. RIP has a more accurate metric.
B. RIP is less complex to configure.
C. RIP requires less time to converge.
D. RIP uses less bandwidth.
E. RIP demands fewer router resources.

A

Which two statements describe the advantages to the use of RIP over the use of OSPF? (Choose two).
A. RIP has a more accurate metric.
B. RIP is less complex to configure.
C. RIP requires less time to converge.
D. RIP uses less bandwidth. E. RIP demands fewer router resources.
E. RIP demands fewer router resources.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A router receives information about network 192.168.10.0/ 24 from multiple sources. What will the router consider the most reliable information about the path to that network?
A. An OSPF update for network 192.168.0.0/ 16.
B. A RIP update for network 192.168.10.0/ 24.
C. A default route with a next hop address of 192.168.10.1.
D. A static route to network 192.168.10.0/ 24.
E. A directly connected interface with an address of 192.168.10.254/ 24.
F. A static route to network 192.168.10.0/ 24 with a local serial interface configured as the next hop.

A

A router receives information about network 192.168.10.0/ 24 from multiple sources. What will the router consider the most reliable information about the path to that network?
A. An OSPF update for network 192.168.0.0/ 16.
B. A RIP update for network 192.168.10.0/ 24.
C. A default route with a next hop address of 192.168.10.1.
D. A static route to network 192.168.10.0/ 24.
E. A directly connected interface with an address of 192.168.10.254/ 24.
F. A static route to network 192.168.10.0/ 24 with a local serial interface configured as the next hop.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What functions do routers perform in a network? (Choose two).
A. Access layer security.
B. Microsegmentation of broadcast domains.
C. Packet switching.
D. Path selection.
E. VLAN membership assignment. F. Bridging between LAN segments.

A

What functions do routers perform in a network? (Choose two).
A. Access layer security.
B. Microsegmentation of broadcast domains.
C. Packet switching.
D. Path selection.
E. VLAN membership assignment. F. Bridging between LAN segments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which command can you enter to set the default route for all traffic to an interface?
A. router( config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 GigabitEthernet0/ 1

B. router( config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 GigabitEthernet0/ 1

C. router( config-router)# default-information originate

D. router( config-router)# default-information originate always

A

Which command can you enter to set the default route for all traffic to an interface?
A. router( config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 GigabitEthernet0/ 1

B. router( config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 GigabitEthernet0/ 1

C. router( config-router)# default-information originate

D. router( config-router)# default-information originate always

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which three statements about static routing are true? (Choose three).
A. It uses consistent route determination.
B. It is best used for small-scale deployments.
C. Routing is disrupted when links fail.
D. It requires more resources than other routing methods.
E. It is best used for large-scale deployments.
F. Routers can use update messages to reroute when links fail.

A

Which three statements about static routing are true? (Choose three).
A. It uses consistent route determination.
B. It is best used for small-scale deployments.
C. Routing is disrupted when links fail.
D. It requires more resources than other routing methods.
E. It is best used for large-scale deployments.
F. Routers can use update messages to reroute when links fail

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Some routers have been configured with default routes. What are some of the advantages of using default routes? (Choose two).
A. They establish routes that will never go down.
B. They keep routing tables small.
C. They require a great deal of CPU power.
D. They allow connectivity to remote networks that are not in the routing table.
E. They direct traffic from the internet into corporate networks.

A

Some routers have been configured with default routes. What are some of the advantages of using default routes? (Choose two).
A. They establish routes that will never go down.
B. They keep routing tables small.
C. They require a great deal of CPU power.
D. They allow connectivity to remote networks that are not in the routing table.
E. They direct traffic from the internet into corporate networks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What two things does a router do when it forwards a packet? (Choose two).
A. It switches the packet to the appropriate outgoing interfaces.
B. It computes the destination host address.
C. It determines the next hop on the path.
D. It updates the destination IP address.
E. It forwards ARP requests.

A

What two things does a router do when it forwards a packet? (Choose two).
A. It switches the packet to the appropriate outgoing interfaces.
B. It computes the destination host address.
C. It determines the next hop on the path.
D. It updates the destination IP address.
E. It forwards ARP requests.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

If IP routing is enabled, which two commands set the gateway of last resort to the default gateway? (Choose two).
A. ip route 172.16.2.1 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
B. ip default-gateway 0.0.0.0
C. ip default-network 0.0.0.0
D. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1
E. ip default-route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1

A

If IP routing is enabled, which two commands set the gateway of last resort to the default gateway? (Choose two).
A. ip route 172.16.2.1 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
B. ip default-gateway 0.0.0.0
C. ip default-network 0.0.0.0
D. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1
E. ip default-route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which two are advantages of static routing when compared to dynamic routing? (Choose two).
A. An efficient algorithm is used to build routing tables, using automatic updates.
B. Routing traffic load is reduced when used in stub network links.
C. Security increases because only the network administrator may change the routing table.
D. Routing tables adapt automatically to topology changes.
E. Configuration complexity decreases as network size increases.
F. Routing updates are automatically sent to neighbors. G. Route summarization is computed automatically by the router.

A

Which two are advantages of static routing when compared to dynamic routing? (Choose two).
A. An efficient algorithm is used to build routing tables, using automatic updates.
**B. Routing traffic load is reduced when used in stub network links. **
C. Security increases because only the network administrator may change the routing table.
D. Routing tables adapt automatically to topology changes.
E. Configuration complexity decreases as network size increases.
F. Routing updates are automatically sent to neighbors. G. Route summarization is computed automatically by the router.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which two statements are characteristics of a distance vector routing protocol? (Choose two).
A. Convergence is usually faster than with link state protocols.
B. RIP is an example of distance vector routing protocols. C. The protocol can be useful in hub-and-spoke and hierarchical networks.
D. Updates are periodic and include the entire routing table.
E. Each router has its own view of the topology.
F. Routing updates are sent only after topology changes.

A

Which two statements are characteristics of a distance vector routing protocol? (Choose two).
A. Convergence is usually faster than with link state protocols.
B. RIP is an example of distance vector routing protocols.
C. The protocol can be useful in hub-and-spoke and hierarchical networks.
D. Updates are periodic and include the entire routing table.
E. Each router has its own view of the topology.
F. Routing updates are sent only after topology changes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which parameter can be tuned to affect the selection of a static route as a backup, when a dynamic protocol is also being used?
A. link delay
B. administrative distance
C. hop count
D. link bandwidth
E. link cost

A

Which parameter can be tuned to affect the selection of a static route as a backup, when a dynamic protocol is also being used?
A. link delay
B. administrative distance
C. hop count
D. link bandwidth
E. link cost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which statement is true about classful or classless routing?
A. EIGRP and OSPF are classful routing protocols and summarize routes by default.
B. Automatic summarization at classful boundaries can cause problems on discontiguous subnets.
C. RIPv1 and OSPF are classless routing protocols.
D. Classful routing protocols send the subnet mask in routing updates.

A

Which statement is true about classful or classless routing?
A. EIGRP and OSPF are classful routing protocols and summarize routes by default.
B. Automatic summarization at classful boundaries can cause problems on discontiguous subnets.
C. RIPv1 and OSPF are classless routing protocols.
D. Classful routing protocols send the subnet mask in routing updates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which three statements are correct about RIPv2? (Choose three).
A. It has a lower default administrative distance than RIP version 1.
B. It is a classless routing protocol.
C. It has the same maximum hop count as version 1.
D. It does not send the subnet mask in updates.
E. It supports authentication.
F. It uses broadcasts for its routing updates.

A

Which three statements are correct about RIPv2? (Choose three).
A. It has a lower default administrative distance than RIP version 1.
B. It is a classless routing protocol.
C. It has the same maximum hop count as version 1.
D. It does not send the subnet mask in updates.
E. It supports authentication.
F. It uses broadcasts for its routing updates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Refer to the exhibit.
What is the simplest way to configure routing between the regional office network 10.89.0.0/20 and the corporate network?

A. router1(config)#ip route 10.89.0.0 255.255.240.0 10.89.16.2
B. router2(config)#ip route 10.89.3.0 255.255.0.0 10.89.16.2
C. router1(config)#ip route 10.89.0.0 255.255.240.0 10.89.16.1
D. router2(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.89.16.1

A

Refer to the exhibit.
What is the simplest way to configure routing between the regional office network 10.89.0.0/20 and the corporate network?

A. router1(config)#ip route 10.89.0.0 255.255.240.0 10.89.16.2
B. router2(config)#ip route 10.89.3.0 255.255.0.0 10.89.16.2
C. router1(config)#ip route 10.89.0.0 255.255.240.0 10.89.16.1
D. router2(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.89.16.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Refer to the exhibit.
Which command would you use to configure a static route on Router1 to network 192.168.202.0/24 with a no default administrative distance?
A. router1(config)#ip route 1 192.168.201.1 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2
B. router1(config)#ip route 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 1
C. router1(config)#ip route 5 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2
D. router1(config)#ip route 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 5

A

Refer to the exhibit.
Which command would you use to configure a static route on Router1 to network 192.168.202.0/24 with a no default administrative distance?
A. router1(config)#ip route 1 192.168.201.1 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2
B. router1(config)#ip route 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 1
C. router1(config)#ip route 5 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2
D. router1(config)#ip route 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does administrative distance refer to?
A. The cost of a link between two neighboring routers.
B. The advertised cost to reach a network.
C. The cost to reach a network that is administratively set.
D. A measure of the trustworthiness of a routing information source.

A

What does administrative distance refer to?
A. The cost of a link between two neighboring routers.
B. The advertised cost to reach a network.
C. The cost to reach a network that is administratively set.
D. A measure of the trustworthiness of a routing information source.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The command ip route 192.168.100.160 255.255.255.224 192.168.10.2 was issued on a router. No routing protocols or other static routes are configured on the router. Which statement is true about this command?
A. The interface with IP address 192.168.10.2 is on this router.
B. The command sets a gateway of last resort for the router.
C. Packets that are destined for host 192.168.100.160 will be sent to 192.168.10.2.
D. The command creates a static route for all IP traffic with the source address 192.168.100.160.

A

The command ip route 192.168.100.160 255.255.255.224 192.168.10.2 was issued on a router. No routing protocols or other static routes are configured on the router. Which statement is true about this command?
A. The interface with IP address 192.168.10.2 is on this router.
B. The command sets a gateway of last resort for the router.
C. Packets that are destined for host 192.168.100.160 will be sent to 192.168.10.2.
D. The command creates a static route for all IP traffic with the source address 192.168.100.160.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which two of these functions do routers perform on packets? (Choose two).
A. Examine the Layer 2 headers of inbound packets and use that information to determine the next hops for the packets.
B. Update the Layer 2 headers of outbound packets with the MAC addresses of the next hops.
C. Examine the Layer 3 headers of inbound packets and use that information to determine the next hops for the packets.
D. Examine the Layer 3 headers of inbound packets and use that information to determine the complete paths along which the packets will be routed to their ultimate destinations.
E. Update the Layer 3 headers of outbound packets so that the packets are properly directed to valid next hops. F. Update the Layer 3 headers of outbound packets so that the packets are properly directed to their ultimate destinations.

A

Which two of these functions do routers perform on packets? (Choose two).
A. Examine the Layer 2 headers of inbound packets and use that information to determine the next hops for the packets.
B. Update the Layer 2 headers of outbound packets with the MAC addresses of the next hops.
C. Examine the Layer 3 headers of inbound packets and use that information to determine the next hops for the packets.
D. Examine the Layer 3 headers of inbound packets and use that information to determine the complete paths along which the packets will be routed to their ultimate destinations.
E. Update the Layer 3 headers of outbound packets so that the packets are properly directed to valid next hops. F. Update the Layer 3 headers of outbound packets so that the packets are properly directed to their ultimate destinations.

The basic function of a router is to receive incoming packets and then forward them to their required destination. This is done by reading layer 3 headers of inbound packets and update the info to layer 2 for further hopping.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Refer to the exhibit.
Which two statements are correct? (Choose two).
A. This is a default route.
B. Adding the subnet mask is optional for the ip route command.
C. This will allow any host on the 172.16.1.0 network to reach all known destinations beyond RouterA.
D. This command is incorrect, it needs to specify the interface, such as s0/0/0 rather than an IP address.
E. The same command needs to be entered on RouterA so that hosts on the 172.16.1.0 network can reach network 10.0.0.0.

A

Refer to the exhibit.
Which two statements are correct? (Choose two).
A. This is a default route.
B. Adding the subnet mask is optional for the ip route command.
C. This will allow any host on the 172.16.1.0 network to reach all known destinations beyond RouterA.
D. This command is incorrect, it needs to specify the interface, such as s0/0/0 rather than an IP address.
E. The same command needs to be entered on RouterA so that hosts on the 172.16.1.0 network can reach network 10.0.0.0.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which router command will configure an interface with the IP address 10.10.80.1/19?
A. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1/19
B. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.0.0
C. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.255.0 D. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.224.0 E. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.240.0 F. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.255.240

A

Which router command will configure an interface with the IP address 10.10.80.1/19?
A. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1/19
B. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.0.0
C. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.255.0 D. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.224.0
E. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.240.0 F. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.255.240

A /19 is CIDR notation for the 255.255.224.0 subnet mask. To configure this address on a router interface, you must be in interface mode (config-if).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Why will a switch never learn a broadcast address?
A. Broadcasts only use network layer addressing.
B. A broadcast frame is never forwarded by a switch.
C. A broadcast address will never be the source address of a frame.
D. Broadcast addresses use an incorrect format for the switching table.
E. Broadcast frames are never sent to switches.

A

Why will a switch never learn a broadcast address?
A. Broadcasts only use network layer addressing.
B. A broadcast frame is never forwarded by a switch.
C. A broadcast address will never be the source address of a frame.
D. Broadcast addresses use an incorrect format for the switching table.
E. Broadcast frames are never sent to switches.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What two things will a router do when running a distance vector routing protocol? (Choose two).
A. Send periodic updates regardless of topology changes.
B. Send entire routing table to all routers in the routing domain.
C. Use the shortest-path algorithm to the determine best path.
D. Update the routing table based on updates from their neighbors.
E. Maintain the topology of the entire network in its database.

A

What two things will a router do when running a distance vector routing protocol? (Choose two).
A. Send periodic updates regardless of topology changes.
B. Send entire routing table to all routers in the routing domain.
C. Use the shortest-path algorithm to the determine best path.
D. Update the routing table based on updates from their neighbors.
E. Maintain the topology of the entire network in its database.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Refer to the exhibit.
The output is from a router in a large enterprise. From the output, determine the role of the router.

A. A Core router.
B. The HQ Internet gateway router.
C. The WAN router at the central site.
D. Remote stub router at a remote site.

A

Refer to the exhibit.
The output is from a router in a large enterprise. From the output, determine the role of the router.

A. A Core router.
B. The HQ Internet gateway router.
C. The WAN router at the central site.
D. Remote stub router at a remote site.

Since the routing table shows only a single default route using the single interface serial 0/0, we know that this is most likely a remote stub site with a single connection to the rest of the network. All the other answer options would mean that this router would have more connections and would contain more routes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Refer to the exhibit.
PC1 pings PC2. What three things will CORE router do with the data that is received from PC1? (Choose three).
A. The data frames will be forwarded out interface FastEthernet0/1 of CORE router.
B. The data frames will be forwarded out interface FastEthernet1/0 of CORE router.
C. CORE router will replace the destination IP address of the packets with the IP address of PC2.
D. CORE router will replace the MAC address of PC2 in the destination MAC address of the frames.
E. CORE router will put the IP address of the forwarding FastEthernet interface in the place of the source IP address in the packets.
F. CORE router will put the MAC address of the forwarding FastEthernet interface in the place of the source MAC address.

A

Refer to the exhibit.
PC1 pings PC2. What three things will CORE router do with the data that is received from PC1? (Choose three).
A. The data frames will be forwarded out interface FastEthernet0/1 of CORE router.
B. The data frames will be forwarded out interface FastEthernet1/0 of CORE router.
C. CORE router will replace the destination IP address of the packets with the IP address of PC2.
D. CORE router will replace the MAC address of PC2 in the destination MAC address of the frames.
E. CORE router will put the IP address of the forwarding FastEthernet interface in the place of the source IP address in the packets.
F. CORE router will put the MAC address of the forwarding FastEthernet interface in the place of the source MAC address.

The router will forward the frames out the interface toward the destination, B is correct. Since the Router will have the end station already in its MAC table as seen by the “show arp” command, it will replace the destination MAC address to that of PC2 – D is correct. The router will then replace the source IP address to 172.16.40.1 – E is correct.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Refer to the exhibit.
The host in Kiev sends a request for an HTML document to the server in Minsk. What will be the source IP address of the packet as it leaves the Kiev router?
A. 10.1.0.1
B. 10.1.0.5
C. 10.1.0.6
D. 10.1.0.14
E. 10.1.1.16
F. 10.1.2.8

A

Refer to the exhibit.
The host in Kiev sends a request for an HTML document to the server in Minsk. What will be the source IP address of the packet as it leaves the Kiev router?
A. 10.1.0.1
B. 10.1.0.5
C. 10.1.0.6
D. 10.1.0.14
E. 10.1.1.16
F. 10.1.2.8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Refer to the exhibit.
Mary is sending an instant message to Robert. The message will be broken into a series of packets that will traverse all network devices. What addresses will populate these packets as they are forwarded from Router1 to Router2?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E

A

Refer to the exhibit.
Mary is sending an instant message to Robert. The message will be broken into a series of packets that will traverse all network devices. What addresses will populate these packets as they are forwarded from Router1 to Router2?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Refer to the exhibit.
What must be configured to establish a successful connection from Host A to switch SW-A through router RT-A?
A. VLAN 1 on RT-A
B. IP routing on SW-A
C. default gateway on SW-A
D. crossover cable connecting SW-A and RT-A

A

Refer to the exhibit.
What must be configured to establish a successful connection from Host A to switch SW-A through router RT-A?
A. VLAN 1 on RT-A
B. IP routing on SW-A
C. default gateway on SW-A
D. crossover cable connecting SW-A and RT-A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Refer to the exhibit.
What two things can the technician determine by successfully pinging from this computer to the IP address 172.16.236.1? (Choose two).
A. The network card on the computer is functioning correctly.
B. The default static route on the gateway router is correctly configured.
C. The correct default gateway IP address is configured on the computer.
D. The device with the IP address 172.16.236.1 is reachable over the network.
E. The default gateway at 172.16.236.1 is able to forward packets to the internet.

A

Refer to the exhibit.
What two things can the technician determine by successfully pinging from this computer to the IP address 172.16.236.1? (Choose two).
A. The network card on the computer is functioning correctly.
B. The default static route on the gateway router is correctly configured.
C. The correct default gateway IP address is configured on the computer.
D. The device with the IP address 172.16.236.1 is reachable over the network.
E. The default gateway at 172.16.236.1 is able to forward packets to the internet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Refer to the exhibit.
The network administrator is testing connectivity from the branch router to the newly installed application server. What is the most likely reason for the first ping having a success rate of only 60 percent?
A. The network is likely to be congested, with the result that packets are being intermittently dropped.
B. The branch router had to resolve the application server MAC address.
C. There is a short delay while NAT translates the server IP address.
D. A routing table lookup delayed forwarding on the first two ping packets.
E. The branch router LAN interface should be upgraded to FastEthernet.

A

Refer to the exhibit.
The network administrator is testing connectivity from the branch router to the newly installed application server. What is the most likely reason for the first ping having a success rate of only 60 percent?
A. The network is likely to be congested, with the result that packets are being intermittently dropped.
B. The branch router had to resolve the application server MAC address.
C. There is a short delay while NAT translates the server IP address.
D. A routing table lookup delayed forwarding on the first two ping packets.
E. The branch router LAN interface should be upgraded to FastEthernet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Refer to the exhibit. Host A is sending a packet to Host B for the first time. What destination MAC address will Host A use in the ARP request?
A. 192.168.0.1
B. 172.16.0.50
C. 00-17-94-61-18-b0
D. 00-19-d3-2d-c3-b2
E. ff-ff-ff-ff-ff-ff
F. 255.255.255.255

A

Refer to the exhibit. Host A is sending a packet to Host B for the first time. What destination MAC address will Host A use in the ARP request?
A. 192.168.0.1
B. 172.16.0.50
C. 00-17-94-61-18-b0
D. 00-19-d3-2d-c3-b2
E. ff-ff-ff-ff-ff-ff
F. 255.255.255.255

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The internetwork infrastructure of company XYZ consists of a single OSPF area as shown in the graphic. There is concern that a lack of router resources is impeding internetwork performance. As part of examining the router resources, the OSPF DRs need to be known. All the router OSPF priorities are at the default and the router IDs are shown with each router. Which routers are likely to have been elected as DR? (Choose two).
A. Corp-4
B. Branch-1
C. Corp-2
D. Corp-1
E. Branch-2
F. Corp-3

A

The internetwork infrastructure of company XYZ consists of a single OSPF area as shown in the graphic. There is concern that a lack of router resources is impeding internetwork performance. As part of examining the router resources, the OSPF DRs need to be known. All the router OSPF priorities are at the default and the router IDs are shown with each router. Which routers are likely to have been elected as DR? (Choose two).
A. Corp-4
B. Branch-1
C. Corp-2
D. Corp-1
E. Branch-2
F. Corp-3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Refer to the exhibit.
Which two statements are true about the loopback address that is configured on RouterB? (Choose two).
A. It decreases the metric for routes that are advertised from RouterB.
B. It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB. C. It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be 10.0.0.1.
D. It indicates that RouterB should be elected the DR for the LAN.
E. It ensures that data will be forwarded by RouterB.

A

Refer to the exhibit.
Which two statements are true about the loopback address that is configured on RouterB? (Choose two).
A. It decreases the metric for routes that are advertised from RouterB.
B. It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB.
C. It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be 10.0.0.1.
D. It indicates that RouterB should be elected the DR for the LAN.
E. It ensures that data will be forwarded by RouterB.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are three characteristics of the OSPF routing protocol? (Choose three).
A. It uses the DUAL algorithm to determine the best route.
B. OSPF is a classful routing protocol.
C. It uses cost to determine the best route.
D. It converges quickly.
E. OSPF routers discover neighbors before exchanging routing information.
F. OSPF routers send the complete routing table to all directly attached routers.

A

What are three characteristics of the OSPF routing protocol? (Choose three).
A. It uses the DUAL algorithm to determine the best route.
B. OSPF is a classful routing protocol.
C. It uses cost to determine the best route.
D. It converges quickly.
E. OSPF routers discover neighbors before exchanging routing information.
F. OSPF routers send the complete routing table to all directly attached routers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What information does a router running a link-state protocol use to build and maintain its topological database? (Choose two).
A. hello packets
B. SAP messages sent by other routers
C. LSAs from other routers
D. beacons received on point-to-point links
E. routing tables received from other link-state routers
F. TTL packets from designated routers

A

What information does a router running a link-state protocol use to build and maintain its topological database? (Choose two).
A. hello packets
B. SAP messages sent by other routers
C. LSAs from other routers
D. beacons received on point-to-point links
E. routing tables received from other link-state routers
F. TTL packets from designated routers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the default maximum number of equal-cost paths that can be placed into the routing table of a Cisco OSPF router?
A. 4
B. 16
C. unlimited
D. 2

A

What is the default maximum number of equal-cost paths that can be placed into the routing table of a Cisco OSPF router?
A. 4
B. 16
C. unlimited
D. 2

4 is the default number of routes that OSPF will install in routing table if more than 4 equal cost routes exist for the same subnet. OSPF can include up to 16 equal cost routes in the routing table and perform load balancing. In order to configure this feature, use the OSPF subcommand “maximum-paths”.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states?
A. show ip ospf link-state
B. show ip ospf neighbors
C. show ip ospf database
D. show ip ospf lsa database

A

Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states?
A. show ip ospf link-state
B. show ip ospf neighbors
C. show ip ospf database
D. show ip ospf lsa database

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cost in Cisco routers?
A. Bandwidth, MTU, Reliability, Delay, and Load
B. Bandwidth
C. Bandwidth, Delay, and MTU
D. Bandwidth and Delay

A

Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cost in Cisco routers?
A. Bandwidth, MTU, Reliability, Delay, and Load
B. Bandwidth
C. Bandwidth, Delay, and MTU
D. Bandwidth and Delay

The cost (also called metric) of an interface in OSPF is an indication of the overhead required to send packets across a certain interface. The cost of an interface is inversely proportional to the bandwidth of that interface. A higher bandwidth indicates a lower cost. There is more overhead (higher cost) and time delays involved in crossing a 56k serial line than crossing a 10M Ethernet line.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Refer to the exhibit.
Assume that all router interfaces are operational and correctly configured. In addition, assume that OSPF has been correctly configured on router R2. How will the default route configured on R1 affect the operation of R2?
A. Any packet destined for a network that is not referenced in the routing table of router R2 will be directed to R1. R1 will then send that packet back to R2 and a routing loop will occur.
B. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R2 will be dropped immediately.
C. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R2 will be dropped immediately because of the lack of a gateway on R1.
D. The networks directly connected to router R2 will not be able to communicate with the 172.16.100.0, 172.16.100.128, and 172.16.100.64 subnetworks.
E. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R1 will be dropped.

A

Refer to the exhibit.
Assume that all router interfaces are operational and correctly configured. In addition, assume that OSPF has been correctly configured on router R2. How will the default route configured on R1 affect the operation of R2?
A. Any packet destined for a network that is not referenced in the routing table of router R2 will be directed to R1. R1 will then send that packet back to R2 and a routing loop will occur.
B. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R2 will be dropped immediately.
C. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R2 will be dropped immediately because of the lack of a gateway on R1.
D. The networks directly connected to router R2 will not be able to communicate with the 172.16.100.0, 172.16.100.128, and 172.16.100.64 subnetworks.
E. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R1 will be dropped.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which of the following terms describe characteristics of OSPF? (Choose two).
A. Uses hop count as its metric.
B. Uses cost as its metric.
C. Uses the Bellman-Ford algorithm.
D. Has a default administrative distance of 90.
E. Elects a DR on each multiaccess network.
F. Is vendor specific.

A

Which of the following terms describe characteristics of OSPF? (Choose two).
A. Uses hop count as its metric.
B. Uses cost as its metric.
C. Uses the Bellman-Ford algorithm.
D. Has a default administrative distance of 90.
E. Elects a DR on each multiaccess network.
F. Is vendor specific.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

OSPF routing uses the concept of areas. What are the characteristics of OSPF areas? (Choose three).
A. Each OSPF area requires a loopback interface to be configured.
B. Areas may be assigned any number from 0 to 65535. C. Area 0 is called the backbone area.
D. Hierarchical OSPF networks do not require multiple areas.
E. Multiple OSPF areas must connect to area 0.
F. Single area OSPF networks must be configured in area 1.

A

OSPF routing uses the concept of areas. What are the characteristics of OSPF areas? (Choose three).
A. Each OSPF area requires a loopback interface to be configured.
B. Areas may be assigned any number from 0 to 65535. C. Area 0 is called the backbone area.
D. Hierarchical OSPF networks do not require multiple areas.
E. Multiple OSPF areas must connect to area 0.
F. Single area OSPF networks must be configured in area 1.

Definition of OSPF areas: An OSPF network may be structured, or subdivided, into routing areas to simplify administration and optimize traffic and resource utilization. Areas are identified by 32-bit numbers, expressed either simply in decimal, or often in octet-based dot-decimal notation, familiar from IPv4 address notation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Which items are correct about the routing protocol OSPF? (Choose three).
A. It supports VLSM.
B. It is used to route between autonomous systems.
C. It confines network instability to one area of the network.
D. It increases routing overhead on the network.
E. It allows extensive control of routing updates.
F. It is simpler to configure than RIP v2.

A

Which items are correct about the routing protocol OSPF? (Choose three).
A. It supports VLSM.
B. It is used to route between autonomous systems.
C. It confines network instability to one area of the network.
D. It increases routing overhead on the network.
E. It allows extensive control of routing updates.
F. It is simpler to configure than RIP v2.

OSPF can carry multiple subnet information for the same major network whereas other protocols such as RIP and IGRP cannot. An OSPF network can be divided into areas that are logical groupings of hosts and networks. Each area maintains a separate link-state database whose information may be summarized towards the rest of the network by the connecting router. Thus, the topology of an area is unknown outside the area. This reduces the routing traffic between parts of an autonomous system. OSPF uses IP multicast to send link-state updates. This ensures less processing on routers that are not listening to OSPF packets. Also, updates are only sent in case routing changes occur instead of periodically. This ensures a better use of bandwidth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which of the following describe the process identifier that is used to run OSPF on a router? (Choose two).
A. It is locally significant.
B. It is globally significant.
C. It is needed to identify a unique instance of an OSPF database.
D. It is an optional parameter required only if multiple OSPF processes are running on the router.
E. All routers in the same OSPF area must have the same process ID if they are to exchange routing information.

A

Which of the following describe the process identifier that is used to run OSPF on a router? (Choose two).
A. It is locally significant.
B. It is globally significant.
C. It is needed to identify a unique instance of an OSPF database.
D. It is an optional parameter required only if multiple OSPF processes are running on the router.
E. All routers in the same OSPF area must have the same process ID if they are to exchange routing information.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Refer to the exhibit.
A network associate has configured OSPF with the command: City(config-router)# network 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.63 area 0 After completing the configuration, the associate discovers that not all the interfaces are participating in OSPF. Which three of the interfaces shown in the exhibit will participate in OSPF according to this configuration statement? (Choose three).

A. FastEthernet0/0
B. FastEthernet0 /1
C. Serial0/0
D. Serial0/1.102
E. Serial0/1.103
F. Serial0/1.104

A

Refer to the exhibit.
A network associate has configured OSPF with the command:
City(config-router)# network 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.63 area 0
After completing the configuration, the associate discovers that not all the interfaces are participating in OSPF.
Which three of the interfaces shown in the exhibit will participate in OSPF according to this configuration statement? (Choose three).

A. FastEthernet0/0
B. FastEthernet0 /1
C. Serial0/0
D. Serial0/1.102
E. Serial0/1.103
F. Serial0/1.104

The network 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.63 equals to network 192.168.12.64/26. This network has a block size of 64 in the fourth octet. The network address is 192.168.12.64, the broadcast address is 192.168.12.127. Interfaces in the range of this network will join OSPF. Answers B, C, and D are correct.

45
Q

Refer to the exhibit.
When running OSPF, what would cause two routers directly connected to not form an adjacency?

A. The loopback addresses are on different subnets.
B. The values of the dead timers on the routers are different.
C. Router summarization is enabled on both routers.
D. The process identifier on router A is different than the process identifier on router B.

A

Refer to the exhibit.
When running OSPF, what would cause two routers directly connected to not form an adjacency?

A. The loopback addresses are on different subnets.
B. The values of the dead timers on the routers are different.
C. Router summarization is enabled on both routers.
D. The process identifier on router A is different than the process identifier on router B.

46
Q

Given the output of the show ip route command, what does the “128” refer to?
ROUTER#show ip route 192.168.12.0/24 is variably subnetted, 9 subnets, 3 masks
C 192.168.12.232 /30 is directly connected, Serial0 O 192.168.12.240/30 <b>[110/128]</b> via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial 0
A. OSPF cost
B. OSPF priority
C. OSPF hop count
D. OSPF ID number
E. OSPF administrative distance

A

Given the output of the show ip route command, what does the “128” refer to?
ROUTER#show ip route 192.168.12.0/24 is variably subnetted, 9 subnets, 3 masks
C 192.168.12.232 /30 is directly connected, Serial0 O 192.168.12.240/30 <b>[110/128]</b> via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial 0
A. OSPF cost
B. OSPF priority
C. OSPF hop count
D. OSPF ID number
E. OSPF administrative distance

47
Q

What is the default administrative distance of the OSPF routing protocol?
A. 90
B. 100
C. 110
D. 20
E. 130
F. 170

A

What is the default administrative distance of the OSPF routing protocol?
A. 90
B. 100
C. 110
D. 20
E. 130
F. 170

48
Q

Which address are OSPF hello packets addressed to on point-to-point networks?
A. 223.0.0.1
B. 172.16.0.1
C. 192.168.0.5
D. 224.0.0.5
E. 254.255.255.255

A

Which address are OSPF hello packets addressed to on point-to-point networks?
A. 223.0.0.1
B. 172.16.0.1
C. 192.168.0.5
D. 224.0.0.5
E. 254.255.255.255

OSPF hello packets have a destination address of 224.0.0.5 (The “all ospf routers” multicast address).

49
Q

A(n) ____________is an OSPF data packet containing link-state and routing information that are shared among OSPF routers.
A. LSA
B. TSA
C. Hello
D. SPF
E. None of the above

A

A(n) ____________is an OSPF data packet containing link-state and routing information that are shared among OSPF routers.
A. LSA
B. TSA
C. Hello
D. SPF
E. None of the above

Link-state advertisements (LSA) are basic communications for the OSPF routing protocol. It communicates the router’s local routing topology to all other local routers in the same OSPF area. OSPF is designed for scalability, so some LSAs are not flooded out on all interfaces, but only on those that belong to the appropriate area.

50
Q

If routers in a single area are configured with the same priority value, what value does a router use for the OSPF router ID in the absence of a loopback interface?
A. The lowest IP address of any physical interface.
B. The highest IP address of any physical interface.
C. The lowest IP address of any logical interface.
D. The highest IP address of any logical interface.

A

If routers in a single area are configured with the same priority value, what value does a router use for the OSPF router ID in the absence of a loopback interface?
A. The lowest IP address of any physical interface.
B. The highest IP address of any physical interface.
C. The lowest IP address of any logical interface.
D. The highest IP address of any logical interface.

51
Q

Updates addressed to 224.0.0.6 are destined for which type of OSPF router?
A. DR
B. ASBR
C. ABR
D. All OSPF routers

A

Updates addressed to 224.0.0.6 are destined for which type of OSPF router?
A. DR
B. ASBR
C. ABR
D. All OSPF routers

OSPF traffic is multicast either to address 224.0.0.5 (All OSPF routers) or 224.0.0.6 (All Designated Routers).

52
Q

Why do large OSPF networks use a hierarchical design (Choose three).
A. To speed up convergence.
B. To decrease latency by increasing bandwidth.
C. To reduce routing overhead.
D. To lower costs by replacing routers with distribution layer switches.
E. To reduce complexity of router configuration.
F. To confine network instability to single areas of the network.

A

Why do large OSPF networks use a hierarchical design (Choose three).
A. To speed up convergence.
B. To decrease latency by increasing bandwidth.
C. To reduce routing overhead.
D. To lower costs by replacing routers with distribution layer switches.
E. To reduce complexity of router configuration.
F. To confine network instability to single areas of the network

53
Q

Refer to the graphic.
R1 is unable to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with R3. What are possible reasons for this problem? (Choose two).

A. All of the routers need to be configured for backbone Area 1.
B. R1 and R2 are the DR and BDR, so OSPF will not establish neighbor adjacency with R3.
C. A static route has been configured from R1 to R3 and prevents the neighbor adjacency from being established. D. The hello and dead interval timers are not set to the same values on R1 and R3.
E. EIGRP is also configured on these routers with a lower administrative distance.
F. R1 and R3 are configured in different areas.

A

Refer to the graphic.
R1 is unable to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with R3. What are possible reasons for this problem? (Choose two).

A. All of the routers need to be configured for backbone Area 1.
B. R1 and R2 are the DR and BDR, so OSPF will not establish neighbor adjacency with R3.
C. A static route has been configured from R1 to R3 and prevents the neighbor adjacency from being established. D. The hello and dead interval timers are not set to the same values on R1 and R3.
E. EIGRP is also configured on these routers with a lower administrative distance.
F. R1 and R3 are configured in different areas.

54
Q

What are two drawbacks of implementing a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two).
A. The sequencing and acknowledgment of link-state packets.
B. The requirement for a hierarchical IP addressing scheme for optimal functionality.
C. The high volume of link-state advertisements in a converged network.
D. The high demand on router resources to run the link-state routing algorithm.
E. The large size of the topology table listing all advertised routes in the converged network.

A

What are two drawbacks of implementing a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two).
A. The sequencing and acknowledgment of link-state packets.
B. The requirement for a hierarchical IP addressing scheme for optimal functionality.
C. The high volume of link-state advertisements in a converged network.
D. The high demand on router resources to run the link-state routing algorithm.
E. The large size of the topology table listing all advertised routes in the converged network.

55
Q

Refer to the exhibit. Given the output for this command, if the router ID has not been manually set, what router ID will OSPF use for this router?

A. 10.1.1.2
B. 10.154.154.1
C. 172.16.5.1
D. 192.168.5.3

A

Refer to the exhibit. Given the output for this command, if the router ID has not been manually set, what router ID will OSPF use for this router?

A. 10.1.1.2
B. 10.154.154.1
C. 172.16.5.1
D. 192.168.5.3

56
Q

Which two statements describe the process identifier that is used in the command to configure OSPF on a router? (Choose two).
Router(config)# router ospf 1
A. All OSPF routers in an area must have the same process ID.
B. Only one process number can be used on the same router.
C. Different process identifiers can be used to run multiple OSPF processes.
D. The process number can be any number from 1 to 65,535.
E. Hello packets are sent to each neighbor to determine the processor identifier.

A

Which two statements describe the process identifier that is used in the command to configure OSPF on a router? (Choose two).
Router(config)# router ospf 1
A. All OSPF routers in an area must have the same process ID.
B. Only one process number can be used on the same router.
C. Different process identifiers can be used to run multiple OSPF processes.
D. The process number can be any number from 1 to 65,535.
E. Hello packets are sent to each neighbor to determine the processor identifier.

The process identifier used in OSPF is required and locally significant, which means it does not need to be the same on other OSPF routers and is not passed between routers. It is a unique instance that ranges from 1 to 65,535.

57
Q

Which commands are required to properly configure a router to run OSPF and to add network 192.168.16.0/24 to OSPF area 0? (Choose two).
A. Router(config)# router ospf 0
B. Router(config)# router ospf 1
C. Router(config)# router ospf area 0
D. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 0
E. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
F. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 255.255.255.0 area 0

A

Which commands are required to properly configure a router to run OSPF and to add network 192.168.16.0/24 to OSPF area 0? (Choose two).
A. Router(config)# router ospf 0
B. Router(config)# router ospf 1
C. Router(config)# router ospf area 0
D. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 0
**E. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 **
F. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 255.255.255.0 area 0

58
Q

Refer to the exhibit.
You are connected to the router as user Mike. Which command allows you to see output from the OSPF debug command?

A. terminal monitor
B. show debugging
C. show sessions
D. show ip ospf interface

A

Refer to the exhibit.
You are connected to the router as user Mike. Which command allows you to see output from the OSPF debug command?

A. terminal monitor
B. show debugging
C. show sessions
D. show ip ospf interface

By default terminal sessions do not display syslog or debug messages. The function of logging monitor is to be able to control the severity level of messages displayed to a terminal session. The terminal monitor command will display syslog and debug messages.

59
Q

A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and R2. The routers cannot establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link. The graphic shows the output of the show ip ospf interface e0 command for routers R1 and R2. Based on the information in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem?

A. The OSPF area is not configured properly.
B. The priority on R1 should be set higher.
C. The cost on R1 should be set higher.
D. The hello and dead timers are not configured properly.

A

A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and R2. The routers cannot establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link. The graphic shows the output of the show ip ospf interface e0 command for routers R1 and R2. Based on the information in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem?

A. The OSPF area is not configured properly.
B. The priority on R1 should be set higher.
C. The cost on R1 should be set higher.
D. The hello and dead timers are not configured properly.

60
Q

Refer to the exhibit.
OSPF is configured using default classful addressing. With all routers and interfaces operational, how many networks will be in the routing table of R1 that are indicated to be learned by OSPF?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
F. 7

A

Refer to the exhibit.
OSPF is configured using default classful addressing. With all routers and interfaces operational, how many networks will be in the routing table of R1 that are indicated to be learned by OSPF?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
F. 7

61
Q

Which characteristics are representative of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose three).
A. Provides common view of entire topology.
B. Exchanges routing tables with neighbors.
C. Calculates shortest path.
D. Utilizes event-triggered updates.
E. Utilizes frequent periodic updates.

A

Which characteristics are representative of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose three).
A. Provides common view of entire topology.
B. Exchanges routing tables with neighbors.
C. Calculates shortest path.
D. Utilizes event-triggered updates.
E. Utilizes frequent periodic updates.

62
Q

Refer to the exhibit.
The network is converged. After link-state advertisements are received from Router A, what information will Router E contain in its routing table for the subnets 208.149.23.64 and 208.149.23.96?

A. 208.149.23.64[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:07, FastEthemet0/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0

B. 208.149.23.64[110/1] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/3] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0

C. 208.149.23.64[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0

D. 208.149.23.64[110/3] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/3] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial1/0

A

Refer to the exhibit.
The network is converged. After link-state advertisements are received from Router A, what information will Router E contain in its routing table for the subnets 208.149.23.64 and 208.149.23.96?

A. 208.149.23.64[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:07, FastEthemet0/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0

B. 208.149.23.64[110/1] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/3] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0

C. 208.149.23.64[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0

D. 208.149.23.64[110/3] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/3] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial1/0

63
Q

Which two statements about the OSPF Router ID are true? (Choose two).
A. It identifies the source of a Type 1 LSA.
B. It should be the same on all routers in an OSPF routing instance.
C. By default, the lowest IP address on the router becomes the OSPF Router ID.
D. The router automatically chooses the IP address of a loopback as the OSPF Router ID.
E. It is created using the MAC Address of the loopback interface.

A

Which two statements about the OSPF Router ID are true? (Choose two).
A. It identifies the source of a Type 1 LSA.
B. It should be the same on all routers in an OSPF routing instance.
C. By default, the lowest IP address on the router becomes the OSPF Router ID.
D. The router automatically chooses the IP address of a loopback as the OSPF Router ID.
E. It is created using the MAC Address of the loopback interface.

LSA Type 1 advertisements are generated by each router for each area it belongs to. They describe the states of the router’s link to the area. These are only flooded within a particular area. OSPF routers will choose the highest loopback interface as its OSPF router ID (if available).

64
Q

What are two benefits of using a single OSPF area network design? (Choose two).
A. It is less CPU intensive for routers in the single area.
B. It reduces the types of LSAs that are generated.
C. It removes the need for virtual links.
D. It increases LSA response times.
E. It reduces the number of required OSPF neighbor adjacencies.

A

What are two benefits of using a single OSPF area network design? (Choose two).
A. It is less CPU intensive for routers in the single area.
B. It reduces the types of LSAs that are generated.
C. It removes the need for virtual links.
D. It increases LSA response times.
E. It reduces the number of required OSPF neighbor adjacencies.

65
Q

When a router undergoes the exchange protocol within OSPF, in what order does it pass through each state?
A. exstart state > loading state > exchange state > full state
B. exstart state > exchange state > loading state > full state
C. exstart state > full state > loading state > exchange state
D. loading state > exchange state > full state > exstart state

A

When a router undergoes the exchange protocol within OSPF, in what order does it pass through each state?
A. exstart state > loading state > exchange state > full state
B. exstart state > exchange state > loading state > full state
C. exstart state > full state > loading state > exchange state
D. loading state > exchange state > full state > exstart state

66
Q

Refer to the exhibit.
If the router Cisco returns the given output and has not had its router ID set manually, what value will OSPF use as its router ID?
A. 192.168.1.1
B. 172.16.1.1
C. 1.1.1.1
D. 2.2.2.2

A

Refer to the exhibit.
If the router Cisco returns the given output and has not had its router ID set manually, what value will OSPF use as its router ID?
A. 192.168.1.1
B. 172.16.1.1
C. 1.1.1.1
D. 2.2.2.2

The Router ID (RID) is an IP address used to identify the router and is chosen using the highest IP address assigned to a loopback (logical) interface. If a loopback interface is not defined, the highest IP address of all active router’s physical interfaces will be chosen, and can be manually assigned. The Router ID uniquely identifies a router in an autonomous system, no two routers in an OSPF autonomous system can have the same router-id.

67
Q

What OSPF command, when configured, will include all interfaces into area 0?
A. network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0
B. network 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 area 0
C. network 255.255.255.255 0.0.0.0 area 0
D. network all-interfaces area 0

A

What OSPF command, when configured, will include all interfaces into area 0?
A. network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0
B. network 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 area 0
C. network 255.255.255.255 0.0.0.0 area 0
D. network all-interfaces area 0

68
Q

Refer to the exhibit.
To allow or prevent load balancing to network 172.16.3.0/24, which of the following commands could be used in R2? (Choose two).
A. R2(config-if)#clock rate
B. R2(config-if)#bandwidth
C. R2(config-if)#ip ospf cost
D. R2(config-if)#ip ospf priority E. R2(config-router)#distance ospf

A

Refer to the exhibit.
To allow or prevent load balancing to network 172.16.3.0/24, which of the following commands could be used in R2? (Choose two).
A. R2(config-if)#clock rate
B. R2(config-if)#bandwidth
C. R2(config-if)#ip ospf cost
D. R2(config-if)#ip ospf priority E. R2(config-router)#distance ospf

69
Q

Refer to the exhibit.
After the network has converged, what type of messaging, if any, occurs between R3 and R4?

A. No messages are exchanged
B. Hellos are sent every 10 seconds.
C. The full database from each router is sent every 30 seconds.
D. The routing table from each router is sent every 60 seconds.

A

Refer to the exhibit.
After the network has converged, what type of messaging, if any, occurs between R3 and R4?

A. No messages are exchanged
B. Hellos are sent every 10 seconds.
C. The full database from each router is sent every 30 seconds.
D. The routing table from each router is sent every 60 seconds.

70
Q

Refer to the exhibit.
Computer 1 is consoled into Switch A. Telnet connections and pings run from the command prompt on Switch A fail. Which of the following could cause this problem?
By looking at the output, there is no IP address associated with interface VLAN1. To remote access to a Switch, it must have a management IP address on a VLAN on that switch. Traditionally, we often use VLAN 1 as the management VLAN.
A. Switch A is not directly connected to router JAX
B. Switch A does not have an IP address
C. Switch A does not have a cdp entry for Switch B or router JAX
D. Port 1 on Switch A should be an access port rather than a trunk port
E. Switch A does not have a default gateway assigned

A

Refer to the exhibit.
Computer 1 is consoled into Switch A. Telnet connections and pings run from the command prompt on Switch A fail. Which of the following could cause this problem?
By looking at the output, there is no IP address associated with interface VLAN1. To remote access to a Switch, it must have a management IP address on a VLAN on that switch. Traditionally, we often use VLAN 1 as the management VLAN.
A. Switch A is not directly connected to router JAX
B. Switch A does not have an IP address
C. Switch A does not have a cdp entry for Switch B or router JAX
D. Port 1 on Switch A should be an access port rather than a trunk port
E. Switch A does not have a default gateway assigned

71
Q

Which protocol is the Cisco proprietary implementation of FHRP?
A. HSRP
B. VRRP
C. GLBP
D. CARP

A

Which protocol is the Cisco proprietary implementation of FHRP?
A. HSRP
B. VRRP
C. GLBP
D. CARP

72
Q

What are two requirements for an HSRP group? (Choose two).
A. Exactly one active router.
B. One or more standby routers.
C. One or more backup virtual routers.
D. Exactly one standby active router.
E. Exactly one backup virtual router.

A

What are two requirements for an HSRP group? (Choose two).
A. Exactly one active router.
B. One or more standby routers.
C. One or more backup virtual routers.
D. Exactly one standby active router.
E. Exactly one backup virtual router.

73
Q

Which standards-based First Hop Redundancy Protocol is a Cisco supported alternative to Hot Standby Router Protocol?
A. VRRP
B. GLBP
C. TFTP
D. DHCP

A

Which standards-based First Hop Redundancy Protocol is a Cisco supported alternative to Hot Standby Router Protocol?
A. VRRP
B. GLBP
C. TFTP
D. DHCP

Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) is one of the First Hop Redundancy Protocols that is supported by Cisco. Unlike HSRP and GLBP (which are Cisco proprietary protocols), VRRP is an industry standard protocol.

74
Q

Which value to use in HSRP protocol election process?
A. Interface
B. Virtual IP address
C. Priority
D. Router ID

A

Which value to use in HSRP protocol election process?
A. Interface
B. Virtual IP address
C. Priority
D. Router ID

75
Q

Which keyword enables an HSRP router to take the active role immediately when it comes online?
A. preempt
B. priority
C. version
D. IP address

A

Which keyword enables an HSRP router to take the active role immediately when it comes online?
A. preempt
B. priority
C. version
D. IP address

76
Q

Which three statements about HSRP operation are true? (Choose three).
A. The virtual IP address and virtual address are active on the HSRP Master router.
B. The HSRP default timers are a 3 second hello interval and a 10 second dead interval.
C. HSRP supports only clear-text authentication.
D. The HSRP virtual IP address must be on a different subnet than the routers’ interfaces on the same LAN.
E. The HSRP virtual IP address must be the same as one of the router’s interface addresses on the LAN.
F. HSRP supports up to 255 groups per interface, enabling an administrative form of load balancing.

A

Which three statements about HSRP operation are true? (Choose three).
A. The virtual IP address and virtual address are active on the HSRP Master router.
B. The HSRP default timers are a 3 second hello interval and a 10 second dead interval.
C. HSRP supports only clear-text authentication.
D. The HSRP virtual IP address must be on a different subnet than the routers’ interfaces on the same LAN.
E. The HSRP virtual IP address must be the same as one of the router’s interface addresses on the LAN.
F. HSRP supports up to 255 groups per interface, enabling an administrative form of load balancing.

77
Q

Which configuration command can you apply to a HSRP router so that its local interface becomes active if all other routers in the group fail?
A. No additional config is required.
B. standby 1 track ethernet
C. standby 1 preempt
D. standby 1 priority 250

A

Which configuration command can you apply to a HSRP router so that its local interface becomes active if all other routers in the group fail?
A. No additional config is required.
B. standby 1 track ethernet
C. standby 1 preempt
D. standby 1 priority 250

When all other routers in the group fail, the local router will not receive any HSRP Hello messages so it will become “active”. The “preempt” command is only useful when the local router receives a HSRP Hello message from the active HSRP router with a lower priority, then the local router will decide to take over the active role.

78
Q

Which HSRP feature was new in HSRPv2?
A. VLAN group numbers that are greater than 255.
B. Virtual MAC addresses.
C. Tracking.
D. Preemption.

A

Which HSRP feature was new in HSRPv2?
A. VLAN group numbers that are greater than 255.
B. Virtual MAC addresses.
C. Tracking.
D. Preemption.

Both HSRP version 1 & version 2 support the preempt command. In HSRP version 1, group numbers are restricted to the range from 0 to 255. HSRP version 2 expands the group number range from 0 to 4095.

79
Q

Which value is used to determine the active router in an HSRP default configuration?
A. Router loopback address
B. Router IP address
C. Router priority
D. Router tracking number

A

Which value is used to determine the active router in an HSRP default configuration?
A. Router loopback address
B. Router IP address
C. Router priority
D. Router tracking number

Basic HSRP configuration consists of configuring an IP address on interface (cannot be the same as HSRP virtual IP), enabling the interface, and configure the HSRP group and virtual IP address using the standby command.

80
Q

Which one of these is a valid HSRP Virtual Mac Address?
A. 0000.0C07.AC15
B. 0000.5E00.01A3
C. 0007.B400.AE01
D. 0007.5E00.B301

A

Which one of these is a valid HSRP Virtual Mac Address?
A. 0000.0C07.AC15
B. 0000.5E00.01A3
C. 0007.B400.AE01
D. 0007.5E00.B301

With HSRP, two or more devices support a virtual router with a fictitious MAC address and unique IP address. There are two version of HSRP. With HSRP version 1, the virtual routers MAC address is 0000.0c07.ACxx , in which xx is the HSRP group. With HSRP version 2, the virtual MAC address if 0000.0C9F.Fxxx, in which xxx is the HSRP group.

81
Q

Which protocol advertises a virtual IP address to facilitate transparent failover of a Cisco routing device?
A. FHRP
B. DHCP
C. RSMLT
D. ESRP

A

Which protocol advertises a virtual IP address to facilitate transparent failover of a Cisco routing device?
A. FHRP
B. DHCP
C. RSMLT
D. ESRP

First Hop Redundancy Protocol (FHRP) is a protocol that enables two or more devices to work together in a group, sharing a single IP address, the virtual IP address. One router is elected to handle all requests sent to the virtual IP address. With HSRP, this is the active router. An HSRP group has one active router and at least one standby router.

82
Q

Which two options describe benefits of aggregated chassis technology? (Choose two).
A. It requires only three IP addresses per VLAN.
B. It supports HSRP, VRRP, and GLBP.
C. It requires only one IP address per VLAN.
D. It reduces management overhead.
E. It supports redundant configuration files.
F. Switches can be located anywhere regardless of their physical distance from one another.

A

Which two options describe benefits of aggregated chassis technology? (Choose two).
A. It requires only three IP addresses per VLAN.
B. It supports HSRP, VRRP, and GLBP.
C. It requires only one IP address per VLAN.
D. It reduces management overhead.
E. It supports redundant configuration files.
F. Switches can be located anywhere regardless of their physical distance from one another.

83
Q

Which protocol is the Cisco proprietary implementation of FHRP?
A. HSRP
B. VRRP
C. GLBP
D. CARP

A

Which protocol is the Cisco proprietary implementation of FHRP?
A. HSRP
B. VRRP
C. GLBP
D. CARP

First Hop Redundancy Protocol (FHRP) is a Cisco routing redundancy designed to allow for transparent fail-over at the first-hop IP router. In HSRP , one router is elected to handle all requests sent to the virtual IP address. With HSRP, this is the active router. An HSRP group has one active router, at least one standby router, and perhaps many listening routers.

84
Q

Refer to the exhibit.
R1 is configured with the default configuration of OSPF. From the following list of IP addresses configured on R1, which address will the OSPF process select as the router ID?
A. 192.168.0.1
B. 172.16.1.1
C. 172.16.2.1
D. 172.16.2.225

A

Refer to the exhibit.
R1 is configured with the default configuration of OSPF. From the following list of IP addresses configured on R1, which address will the OSPF process select as the router ID?
A. 192.168.0.1
B. 172.16.1.1
C. 172.16.2.1
D. 172.16.2.225

85
Q

Which standards-based First Hop Redundancy Protocol is a Cisco supported alternative to Hot Standby Router Protocol?
A. VRRP
B. GLBP
C. TFTP
D. DHCP

A

Which standards-based First Hop Redundancy Protocol is a Cisco supported alternative to Hot Standby Router Protocol?
A. VRRP
B. GLBP
C. TFTP
D. DHCP

Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) is one of the First Hop Redundancy Protocols that is supported by Cisco. Unlike HSRP and GLBP (which are Cisco proprietary protocols), VRRP is an industry standard protocol.

86
Q

Refer to the exhibit.
To allow or prevent load balancing to network 172.16.3.0/24, which of the following commands could be used in R2? (Choose two).
A. R2(config-if)#clock rate
B. R2(config-if)#bandwidth
C. R2(config-if)#ip ospf cost
D. R2(config-if)#ip ospf priority E. R2(config-router)#distance ospf

A

Refer to the exhibit.
To allow or prevent load balancing to network 172.16.3.0/24, which of the following commands could be used in R2? (Choose two).
A. R2(config-if)#clock rate
B. R2(config-if)#bandwidth
C. R2(config-if)#ip ospf cost
D. R2(config-if)#ip ospf priority E. R2(config-router)#distance ospf

87
Q

Which keyword enables an HSRP router to take the active role immediately when it comes online?
A. preempt
B. priority
C. version
D. IP address

A

Which keyword enables an HSRP router to take the active role immediately when it comes online?
A. preempt
B. priority
C. version
D. IP address

If a router in a HSRP group fails, the standby router will become active. If the failing router comes back online, it will become the standby router in the group. In order to have this router return to the active role, the preempt command is used.

88
Q

Which three statements about HSRP operation are true? (Choose three).
A. The virtual IP address and virtual address are active on the HSRP Master router.
B. The HSRP default timers are a 3 second hello interval and a 10 second dead interval.
C. HSRP supports only clear-text authentication.
D. The HSRP virtual IP address must be on a different subnet than the routers’ interfaces on the same LAN.
E. The HSRP virtual IP address must be the same as one of the router’s interface addresses on the LAN.
F. HSRP supports up to 255 groups per interface, enabling an administrative form of load balancing.

A

Which three statements about HSRP operation are true? (Choose three).
A. The virtual IP address and virtual address are active on the HSRP Master router.
B. The HSRP default timers are a 3 second hello interval and a 10 second dead interval.
C. HSRP supports only clear-text authentication.
D. The HSRP virtual IP address must be on a different subnet than the routers’ interfaces on the same LAN.
E. The HSRP virtual IP address must be the same as one of the router’s interface addresses on the LAN.
F. HSRP supports up to 255 groups per interface, enabling an administrative form of load balancing.

89
Q

Which configuration command can you apply to a HSRP router so that its local interface becomes active if all other routers in the group fail?
A. No additional config is required.
B. standby 1 track ethernet
C. standby 1 preempt
D. standby 1 priority 250

A

Which configuration command can you apply to a HSRP router so that its local interface becomes active if all other routers in the group fail?
A. No additional config is required.
B. standby 1 track ethernet
C. standby 1 preempt
D. standby 1 priority 250

90
Q

Which HSRP feature was new in HSRPv2?
A. VLAN group numbers that are greater than 255.
B. Virtual MAC addresses.
C. Tracking.
D. Preemption.

A

Which HSRP feature was new in HSRPv2?
A. VLAN group numbers that are greater than 255.
B. Virtual MAC addresses.
C. Tracking.
D. Preemption.

91
Q

Which value is used to determine the active router in an HSRP default configuration?
A. Router loopback address
B. Router IP address
C. Router priority
D. Router tracking number

A

Which value is used to determine the active router in an HSRP default configuration?
A. Router loopback address
B. Router IP address
C. Router priority
D. Router tracking number

92
Q

Which one of these is a valid HSRP Virtual Mac Address? A. 0000.0C07.AC15
B. 0000.5E00.01A3
C. 0007.B400.AE01
D. 0007.5E00.B301

A

Which one of these is a valid HSRP Virtual Mac Address? A. 0000.0C07.AC15
B. 0000.5E00.01A3
C. 0007.B400.AE01
D. 0007.5E00.B301

93
Q

Which protocol advertises a virtual IP address to facilitate transparent failover of a Cisco routing device? A. FHRP
B. DHCP
C. RSMLT
D. ESRP

A

Which protocol advertises a virtual IP address to facilitate transparent failover of a Cisco routing device? A. FHRP
B. DHCP
C. RSMLT
D. ESRP

First Hop Redundancy Protocol (FHRP) is a protocol that enables two or more devices to work together in a group, sharing a single IP address, the virtual IP address. One router is elected to handle all requests sent to the virtual IP address. With HSRP, this is the active router. An HSRP group has one active router and at least one standby router.

94
Q

Which two options describe benefits of aggregated chassis technology? (Choose two).
A. It requires only three IP addresses per VLAN.
B. It supports HSRP, VRRP, and GLBP.
C. It requires only one IP address per VLAN.
D. It reduces management overhead.
E. It supports redundant configuration files.
F. Switches can be located anywhere regardless of their physical distance from one another.

A

Which two options describe benefits of aggregated chassis technology? (Choose two).
A. It requires only three IP addresses per VLAN.
B. It supports HSRP, VRRP, and GLBP.
C. It requires only one IP address per VLAN.
D. It reduces management overhead.
E. It supports redundant configuration files.
F. Switches can be located anywhere regardless of their physical distance from one another.

95
Q

Running both IPv4 and IPv6 on a router simultaneously is known as what?
A. 4to6 routing
B. dual-stack routing
C. 6to4 routing
D. binary routing
E. NextGen routing

A

Running both IPv4 and IPv6 on a router simultaneously is known as what?
A. 4to6 routing
B. dual-stack routing
C. 6to4 routing
D. binary routing
E. NextGen routing

Dual stack involves running IPv4 and IPv6 at the same time. End nodes and routers/switches run both protocols, and if IPv6 communication is possible, it is the preferred protocol.

96
Q

Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router?
A. ipv6 local
B. ipv6 unicast-routing
C. ipv6 host
D. ipv6 neighbor

A

Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router?
A. ipv6 local
B. ipv6 unicast-routing
C. ipv6 host
D. ipv6 neighbor

97
Q

Which statement about RIPng is true?
A. There can be only one RIPng process per router.
B. RIPng allows for routes with up to 30 hops.
C. RIPng is enabled on each interface separately.
D. RIPng uses broadcasts to exchange routes.

A

Which statement about RIPng is true?
A. There can be only one RIPng process per router.
B. RIPng allows for routes with up to 30 hops.
C. RIPng is enabled on each interface separately.
D. RIPng uses broadcasts to exchange routes.

The Routing Information Protocol next generation (RIPng) is an interior gateway protocol (IGP) that uses a distance-vector algorithm to determine the best route to a destination, using the hop count as the metric. RIPng is a routing protocol that exchanges routing information used to compute routes and is intended for Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6)-based networks. RIPng is enabled on each interface separately.

98
Q

Which IPV6 routing protocol uses multicast group FF02::8 to send updates?
A. RIPng
B. IS-IS
C. OSPFv3
D. static

A

Which IPV6 routing protocol uses multicast group FF02::8 to send updates?
A. RIPng
B. IS-IS
C. OSPFv3
D. static

99
Q

Which three approaches can be used while migrating from an IPv4 addressing scheme to an IPv6 scheme? (Choose three).
A. Enable dual-stack routing.
B. Configure IPV6 directly.
C. Use proxying and translation to translate IPV6 packets into IPV4 packets.
D. Use DHCPv6 to map IPV4 addresses to IPV6 addresses.
E. Statically map IPV4 address to IPV6 addresses.
F. Configure IPv4 tunnels between IPv6 islands.

A

Which three approaches can be used while migrating from an IPv4 addressing scheme to an IPv6 scheme? (Choose three).
A. Enable dual-stack routing.
B. Configure IPV6 directly.
C. Use proxying and translation to translate IPV6 packets into IPV4 packets.
D. Use DHCPv6 to map IPV4 addresses to IPV6 addresses.
E. Statically map IPV4 address to IPV6 addresses.
F. Configure IPv4 tunnels between IPv6 islands.

100
Q

Which two statements about IPv6 and routing protocols are true? (Choose two).
A. Link-local addresses are used to form routing adjacencies.
B. OSPFv3 was developed to support IPv6 routing.
C. EIGRP, OSPF, and BGP are the only routing protocols that support IPv6.
D. Loopback addresses are used to form routing adjacencies.
E. EIGRPv3 was developed to support IPv6 routing.

A

Which two statements about IPv6 and routing protocols are true? (Choose two).
A. Link-local addresses are used to form routing adjacencies.
B. OSPFv3 was developed to support IPv6 routing.
C. EIGRP, OSPF, and BGP are the only routing protocols that support IPv6.
D. Loopback addresses are used to form routing adjacencies.
E. EIGRPv3 was developed to support IPv6 routing.

101
Q

A static route of 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 fa0/0 was configured on a router. During your connectivity testing, routes are not being learned by the router. What command will remove this configuration?
A. erase ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 fa0/0
B. rem ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 fa0/0
C. del ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 fa0/0 D.
no ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 fa0/0

A

A static route of 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 fa0/0 was configured on a router. During your connectivity testing, routes are not being learned by the router. What command will remove this configuration?
A. erase ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 fa0/0
B. rem ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 fa0/0
C. del ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 fa0/0
D. no ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 fa0/0

102
Q

Users on the 172.17.22.0 network cannot reach the server located on the 172.31.5.0 network. The network administrator connected to router Coffee via the console port, issued the show ip route command, and was able to ping the server. Based on the output of the show ip route command and the topology shown in the graphic, what is the cause of the failure?
A. The network has not fully converged.
B. IP routing is not enabled.
C. A static route is configured incorrectly.
D. The FastEthernet interface on Coffee is disabled.
E. The neighbor relationship table is not correctly updated.
F. The routing table on Coffee has not updated

A

Users on the 172.17.22.0 network cannot reach the server located on the 172.31.5.0 network. The network administrator connected to router Coffee via the console port, issued the show ip route command, and was able to ping the server. Based on the output of the show ip route command and the topology shown in the graphic, what is the cause of the failure?
A. The network has not fully converged.
B. IP routing is not enabled.
C. A static route is configured incorrectly.
D. The FastEthernet interface on Coffee is disabled.
E. The neighbor relationship table is not correctly updated.
F. The routing table on Coffee has not updated

The default route or the static route was configured with incorrect next-hop ip address 172.19.22.2 The correct ip address will be 172.18.22.2 to reach server located on 172.31.5.0 network. Ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.18.22.2

103
Q

Why did the device return this message? Router1#show lo % Ambiguous command: “show lo” Router1#
A. The command requires additional options or parameters
B. There is no show command that starts with lo.
C. The command is being executed from the wrong router mode.
D. There is more than one show command that starts with the letters lo.

A

Why did the device return this message? Router1#show lo % Ambiguous command: “show lo” Router1#
A. The command requires additional options or parameters
B. There is no show command that starts with lo.
C. The command is being executed from the wrong router mode.
D. There is more than one show command that starts with the letters lo.

104
Q

Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity problem on the serial interfaces. The output from the show interfaces command on both routers shows that the serial interface is up, line protocol is down. Given the partial output for the show running-config in the exhibit, what is the most likely cause of this problem?
A. The serial cable is bad.
B. The MTU is incorrectly configured.
C. The Layer 2 framing is misconfigured.
D. The IP addresses are not in the same subnet.

A

Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity problem on the serial interfaces. The output from the show interfaces command on both routers shows that the serial interface is up, line protocol is down. Given the partial output for the show running-config in the exhibit, what is the most likely cause of this problem?
A. The serial cable is bad.
B. The MTU is incorrectly configured.
C. The Layer 2 framing is misconfigured.
D. The IP addresses are not in the same subnet.

Rtr3 is configured to use PPP encapsulation, but, Rtr1 has not been configured for any kind of encapsulation. The default on Cisco router serial interfaces is HDLC, not PPP, so there is an encapsulation mismatch.

105
Q

Refer to the exhibit.
A technician pastes the configurations in the exhibit into the two new routers shown. Otherwise, the routers are configured with their default configurations. A ping from Host1 to Host2 fails, but the technician is able to ping the S0/0 interface of R2 from Host1. The configurations of the hosts have been verified as correct. What is the cause of the problem?
A. The serial cable on R1 needs to be replaced.
B. The interfaces on R2 are not configured properly.
C. R1 has no route to the 192.168.1.128 network.
D. The IP addressing scheme has overlapping subnetworks.
E. The ip subnet-zero command must be configured on both routers.

A

Refer to the exhibit.
A technician pastes the configurations in the exhibit into the two new routers shown. Otherwise, the routers are configured with their default configurations. A ping from Host1 to Host2 fails, but the technician is able to ping the S0/0 interface of R2 from Host1. The configurations of the hosts have been verified as correct. What is the cause of the problem?
A. The serial cable on R1 needs to be replaced.
B. The interfaces on R2 are not configured properly.
C. R1 has no route to the 192.168.1.128 network.
D. The IP addressing scheme has overlapping subnetworks.
E. The ip subnet-zero command must be configured on both routers.

106
Q

Refer to the exhibit.
The network administrator has found the following problem. The remote networks 172.16.10.0, 172.16.20.0, and 172.16.30.0 are accessed through the Central router’s serial 0/0 interface. No users are able to access 172.16.20.0. After reviewing the command output shown in the graphic, what is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. No gateway of last resort on Central.
B. Central router’s not receiving 172.16.20.0 update.
C. Incorrect static route for 172.16.20.0.
D. 172.16.20.0 not located in Central’s routing table.

A

Refer to the exhibit.
The network administrator has found the following problem. The remote networks 172.16.10.0, 172.16.20.0, and 172.16.30.0 are accessed through the Central router’s serial 0/0 interface. No users are able to access 172.16.20.0. After reviewing the command output shown in the graphic, what is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. No gateway of last resort on Central.
B. Central router’s not receiving 172.16.20.0 update.
C. Incorrect static route for 172.16.20.0.
D. 172.16.20.0 not located in Central’s routing table.

107
Q

Refer to the exhibit.
A packet with a source IP address of 192.168.2.4 and a destination IP address of 10.1.1.4 arrives at the AcmeB router. What action does the router take?
A. Forwards the received packet out the Serial0/0 interface.
B. Forwards a packet containing an EIGRP advertisement out the Serial0/1 interface.
C. Forwards a packet containing an ICMP message out the FastEthemet0/0 interface.
D. Forwards a packet containing an ARP request out the FastEthemet0/1 interface.

A

Refer to the exhibit.
A packet with a source IP address of 192.168.2.4 and a destination IP address of 10.1.1.4 arrives at the AcmeB router. What action does the router take?
A. Forwards the received packet out the Serial0/0 interface.
B. Forwards a packet containing an EIGRP advertisement out the Serial0/1 interface.
C. Forwards a packet containing an ICMP message out the FastEthemet0/0 interface.
D. Forwards a packet containing an ARP request out the FastEthemet0/1 interface.

Looking at the output above, there is no IP route for 10.1.1.4 address on AcmeB routing table. If the router cannot find a specific path in its routing table to a particular route, the router will inform the source host with an ICMP message that the destination is unreachable and this will be through the same interface it has received the packet.

108
Q

Refer to the exhibit.
OSPF is configured using default classful addressing. With all routers and interfaces operational, how many networks will be in the routing table of R1 that are indicated to be learned by OSPF?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
F. 7

A

Refer to the exhibit.
OSPF is configured using default classful addressing. With all routers and interfaces operational, how many networks will be in the routing table of R1 that are indicated to be learned by OSPF?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
F. 7

OSPF is configured using default classful addressing, but OSPF is a link-state routing protocol so it will always send the subnet mask of each network in their advertised routes. Therefore, R1 will learn the complete subnets. The four networks will be in the routing table of R1 - 172.16.2.64/30, 172.16.2.228/30, 172.16.2.232/30, and 172.16.3.0/24. Other networks will be learned as “Directly connected” networks (marked with letter “C”).

109
Q

Refer to the exhibit. After the network has converged, what type of messaging, if any, occurs between R3 and R4?
A. No messages are exchanged. B. Hellos are sent every 10 seconds. C. The full database from each router is sent every 30 seconds. D. The routing table from each router is sent every 60 seconds.

Lammle, Todd. Cisco CCNA 200-301 PassFast: Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA 200-301 (Todd Lammle Authorized Study Guides) (p. 187). LammlePress, LLC. Kindle Edition.
Lammle, Todd. Cisco CCNA 200-301 PassFast: Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA 200-301 (Todd Lammle Authorized Study Guides) (p. 187). LammlePress, LLC. Kindle Edition.

A