Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Small Animal Infectious Diseases > Test 2 > Flashcards

Test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What animals often get canine brucellosis (brucella canis)

A

animals in breeding stock/ animals with exposure to aborted fetuses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

how is brucella canis spread

A

through exposure to aborted fetuses, vaginal/seminal discharges, urine, or a blood transfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what disease causes an enlarged epididymis/scrotum

A

brucellosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

in females what can brucellosis cause

A

conception failures, abortions, still births, and fading puppies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How can you test for brucellosis

A

There are many tests but tube agglutination test is best for screening and can confirm with a PCR or culture (PCR and culture bad screening test)

will also see immature sperm, deformed tails and acrosomes, detached heads on semen evaluation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What must you tell owners regarding brucellosis

A

it is zoonotic!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

is brucellosis reportable?

A

potentially

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How is tularemia spread

A

Tick borne or predation of rabbits or rodents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What animal is most susceptible to tularemia

A

Cats, rare in dogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the prominent symptoms with Tularemia

A

Prominent lymphadenopathy, high fever, lethargy, oral ulcers, icterus, high mortality rate in CATS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

If you send out a necropsy and you are suspicious for Tularemia what should you do

A

Make sure to label it! Tularemia is aerosolized very easily and an infective dose is very low and it is zoonotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What disease is reportable and is a bioterrorism risk

A

Tularemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the vector for T. cruzi (Chaga’s disease)

A

Kissing bugs aka tritomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the three potential forms of T. cruzi infection

A

Acute- sudden myocarditis and arrhythmias, diarrhea, lymphadenomegaly, meningoencephalitis
Latent- normal presentation
Chronic- chronic myocarditis with cardiac dilation and heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are two ways to diagnose t. cruzi

A

you can see it in a blood film for the acute form or you can send off for IFA antibody detection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the three modes of transmission of toxoplasma

A

congenital, ingestion of infected tissues or contaminated water or food

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what are the clinical signs of toxoplasmosis

A

inflammation of the liver, lungs, and CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When doing the serology for toxoplasma what is important to do

A

you must have both IgG and IgM, IgG may just show exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is the treatment for toxoplasmosis

A

clindamycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the vector for Leishmania

A

a sand fly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

T/F leishmania is zoonotic

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What disease can cause skin lesions, stomatitis, kidney injury, affects GI, heart, and lungs and is in macrophages

A

leishmania

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are hemotropic mycoplasmas

A

wall-less bacteria that attach and grow on RBCs- on the outside of the RBC!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Can you culture mycoplasmas and how do they stain

A

no and they stain gram negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what are the mycoplasmas in cats

A

M. haemofelis, Candidatus Mycoplasma haemominutum, and candidatus mycoplasma turicensis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the mycoplasmas in dogs

A

M. haemocanis and candidatus mycoplasma haematoparvum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what is the most common clinical disease associated with mycoplasma

A

anemia (usually regenerative)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what are three ways mycoplasma is transmitted

A

fleas, queens to newborns, and blood transfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what are the four stages of mycoplasma haemofelis

A

preparasitemic
acute- some cats die in this phase and there is a decrease in hematocrit- infected erythrocytes destroyed by body- need blood!
recovery phase
carrier phase- appear clinically healthy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

T/F Candidatus mycoplasma haemominutum causes severe illness

A

false it is very rare to have clinical illness or severe anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what disease can flare up/ cause clinical signs in dogs that have had a splenectomy

A

Mycoplasma haemocanis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what specific type of anemia is seen with M. haemofelis

A

regenerative anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Will treatment with pradofloxacin (antibiotic) clear mycoplasma from an animal

A

nope!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the two forms of Cytauxzoon felis

A

Schizont- nonerythrocytic
Piroplasm- erythrocytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Who is at risk of Cytauxzoonosis and how is it spread

A

Outdoor cats in the spring and summer especially but any cat that gets infected with a lone star tick is at risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

A cat has survived Cytauxzoon miraculously will it have a complete recovery?

A

Yes, but it may have persist piroplasms in the RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How do you diagnose Cytauzoonosis

A

You can look at a blood smear for “signet rings” and those are the piroplasms but these are not present in all infected cats or you look for schizonts in the mononuclear cells on an FNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Both Cytauxzoon felis and Mycoplasma haemofelis are on red blood cells! How would you tell the organisms apart?

A

M. haemofelis are present on the OUTSIDE of the RBC and are epicelluar cocci/rods/ or rings and are smaller than C. felis. It also causes a regenerative anemia and with cytauxzoonosis there is a pancytopenia and no regenerative anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the antiprotozoals used in treatment of cytauxzoonosis

A

Atovaquone and azithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the large canine babesia and the small canine babesia (in the US)

A

Large- Babesia canis—> Babesia canis vogeli
Small- Babesia gibsoni

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

How is babesiosis trasmitted and what is the most common type of transmission

A

Via ticks, dog bites, or transplacentally
Non-vector forms most common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the pathogenesis of babesiosis

A

The body forms antibodies against the antigens on the surface of the RBC which leads to immune-mediated anemia—> Hemolytic anemia and Thrombocytopenia (low platelets)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are two breeds that are prone to having babesiosis

A

Greyhounds and American Pit Bull Terrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

If an examination of a blood smear is negative for babesiosis is it ruled out

A

Nope it has poor sensitivity and is not recommended as a sole test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How can you improve the sensitivity of a babesia blood smear test

A

Examine the Buffy coat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the most sensitive and specific test for babesia

A

PCR, but a negative still doesn’t rule out the disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the curative treatment for babesia canis

A

Imidocarb dipropionate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the curative treatment for Babesia gibsoni

A

Atovaquone and Azithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Which babesia do greyhounds usually get? What about pit bulls?

A

Greyhounds- babesia canis
Pit bulls- babesia gibsoni

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Sepsis definition now and how it has changed

A

A life-threatening, organ dysfunction caused by a dysregulated host response to infection. This has gotten rid of the SIRS reference because the criteria is not specific enough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is septic shock

A

A subset of sepsis in which underlying circulatory and cellular/metabolic abnormalities are profound enough to substantially increase mortality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

All bacteremic patients are septic but…

A

Not all septic patients are bacteremic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What does LPS cause to be activated and what type of sepsis is this?

A

Both pro-inflammatory and anti-inflammatory mediators (acts as a PAMP), gram-negative sepsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

When does clinical sepsis develop in terms of cytokines

A

When the balance between the pro and anti-inflammatory cytokines becomes imbalanced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What does overproduction of NO cause in sepsis and what does it look like clinically

A

Vasodilation (loss of vasomotor tone), you will see red mucous membranes and a rapid capillary refill time and tachycardia—> can lead to vasodilatatory shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What are the three disrupted homeostatic mechanisms in sepsis

A

vasomotor tone (dilation), inflammatory and coagulation cascade, Microvascular changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What role does Tumor necrosis factor have in inflammation and coagulation, especially in sepsis

A

It initiates the coagulation cascade by binding to factor VII which leads to initiation of platelets but in sepsis the tissue factor inhibitor (and other anti-coagulant factors) are down regulated—> microthrombi formation (rare to see bleeding in septic patients)= prothrombotic state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What does cryptic shock cause

A

A decrease in microcirculatory perfusion and may have normal hemodynamic parameters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is cytoplasmic hypoxia

A

Mitochondrial changes induced by sepsis which make the mitochondria unable to appropriately use oxygen to make ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are the early clinical signs of sepsis in dogs

A

Tachycardia, bounding pulses, rapid capillary refill time, red mucous membranes , fever, decreased BG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are the signs of late sepsis in dogs

A

Hypoglycemia, thready pulses, prolonged capillary refill time, pale mucous membranes, cool extremities, stupor, hypothermia, multiple organ failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What are the signs of sepsis in cats

A

No hyperdynamic phase, lethargic, pale mucous membranes, tachypnea, weak pulses, hypotension, hypothermia, icterus, diffuse abdominal pain and may have tachycardia or bradycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What do you do if a patient with sepsis after receiving resuscitation fluids (assuming you have repeated the boluses) still is hypotensive

A

Vasopressors (norepinephrine, vasopressin, dopamine) or positive inotropes (dobutamine or dopamine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

When should antibiotics be started in septic patients

A

Within one hour, don’t let getting a culture interfere with starting of antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What type of antibiotics should be used before receiving culture results in a septic patient

A

Broad spectrum, gram negative and gram positive and anaerobic organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is the mortality rate in dogs with sepsis

A

50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

How is rabies transmitted

A

Bite of infected animal or in some cases inhalation of excreted virus (bats), ingesting infected tissue, transplacental

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

why isn’t there a blood test for rabies

A

Because it is not in the bloodstream ever, it is in nervous tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

How does rabies spread within a victim

A

Passive spread through peripheral axons to the forebrain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Once an animal has rabies in its saliva where has it gotten in the body

A

in the brain already

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Recovery from rabies is very rare but what must the body have to have any chance of elimination

A

cell-mediated immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

what are the two types of rabies

A

The furious or psychotic type and the paralytic or dumb type

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What do you see with furious rabies

A

Restless, roaming, vicious, muscle incoordination, hyperresponsive to stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What do you see with paralytic rabies

A

Flaccid paralysis, laryngeal paralysis, excessive salivation, dropped jaw, coma—> respiratory failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

How do you get a definitive diagnosis of rabies

A

Direct fluorescent antibody test for the antigen in brain tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What will you see on histopath for an animal with rabies

A

Intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies (negri bodies) in brain tissue

77
Q

Should you try supportive care on an animal that may have rabies and it is symptomatic

A

no

78
Q

What should happen to animals under the suspicion of contracting rabies but are not symptomatic and are vaccinated

A

Revaccinate and have owner quarantine for 45 days

79
Q

What should you do if an unvaccinated animal has been exposed to rabies (aka exposed to wild animal that tested positive for rabies)

A

Quarantine pet for 4 months (if dog or cat) if owner declines euthanasia

80
Q

What does leptospirosis look like

A

A filamentous, flexible, spiral-shaped, gram-negative bacteria

81
Q

Can an animal get leptospirosis if they have been vaccinated?

A

Yes because there are many different serovars and the vaccine doesn’t contain all of them

82
Q

Where is leptospirosis prevalent

A

warm, moist climates

83
Q

How is leptospirosis maintained and spread with the reservoir hosts

A

The reservoir hosts are usually asymptomatic and the organism goes to the kidneys to be spread via the urine in an indirect fashion because the urine then contaminates water and soil

84
Q

Is lepto shed in incidental host’s urine

A

very minimally

85
Q

How does lepto enter hosts and what is the pathogenesis

A

Enters via mucous membranes and it can cause vascular damage through leptospiremia resulting in clinical disease (renal damage, hepatic dysfunction, coagulopathy)

86
Q

T/F all lepto serovar cases look the same

A

False, depends on serovar

87
Q

What are the four types of infection of leptospirosis and the signs associated with each one

A

Peracute- death
Acute- fever, respiratory, paraspinal pain, liver failure, kidney infection, retinal hemorrhage or iritis
Subacute- anorexia, lethargy, PU/PD, gastrointestinal signs
Chronic- fever of unknown origin and renal/hepatic disease

88
Q

What does lepto do in the kidneys

A

Replicates in the epithelial cells causing tubulointersitial nephritis, kidney swelling, ischemic damage, and acute kidney disease

89
Q

what does lepto do in the liver

A

Subcellular damage, hepatic necrosis, chronic active hepatitis

90
Q

What may you see on bloodwork of a patient with lepto

A

Thrombocytopenia, azotemia, ALP more elevated than ALT, hyperbilirubinemia and globulinemia, hypoalbuminema, isothenuria, prolonged PT and PTT

91
Q

Which test is affected by if the animal has been vaccinated or not for lepto, what about if the animal has received antibiotics

A

The MAT test is affected by the vaccine and not as much antibiotics and the PCR test is not affected by the vaccine but it is affected by if the animal has been treated with antibiotics

92
Q

What do you use for the MAT lepto test, what about PCR

A

MAT- serum
PCR- blood, urine, body fluids

93
Q

If doing the MAT test for lepto how do you determine what the animal is infected by

A

The highest titer is the infecting serovar (most likely)

94
Q

What does the MAT test look at and how often should you run the test if you suspect an animal has lepto

A

Mainly IgM some IgG, at presentation and then 3-4 weeks later

95
Q

What does the snap lepto test detect

A

IgG and/or IgM antibodies

96
Q

How do you determine a definitive diagnosis of lepto (gold standard)

A

Clinical presentation + PCR (blood mixed with urine) + MAT

97
Q

What are the antibiotics used with lepto

A

Penicillin for the leptospiremic stage
Doxycycline to eliminate carrier state

98
Q

How does the old lepto vaccine differ from the new one, but what may you still need to do even with vaccination

A

There are 2 new serovars in the new vaccine (Canicola and icterohaemorrhagiae of the old plus Pomona and grippotyphosa) but vaccine usually only gives protection for 6 months so you may need to vaccinate 2x a year and avoid high-risk areas no matter what

99
Q

What are risks to zoonotic spread of lepto

A

Contact with urine and mucosal contact, contact with reservoir, gardening and outside

100
Q

Generally how long do ticks need to be attached to the host to spread disease

A

48 hours

101
Q

what are common clinical signs of tick-borne diseases

A

Polymyositis, polyarthritis, thrombocytopenia, FAD (fever, anorexia, depression)

102
Q

T/F Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever often causes a chronic disease

A

False, it is usually an acute disease and animals are usually either dead or better within weeks (most recover with appropriate treatment)

103
Q

What are clinical signs of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

A

Fever, reluctance to move, lymphadenomegaly, malaise, CNS signs, vasculopathy (can result in external necrosis of skin)

104
Q

What laboratory abnormalities and lab results will you see with RMSF

A

Thrombocytopenia, IgG 4-fold change (>1:1024)

105
Q

Will an animal still have positive antibodies for RMSF even after clearing the pathogen

A

yes

106
Q

How do you treat RMSF

A

tetracycline

107
Q

What is the target cells for ehrichia canis and what about ehrichia ewingii and ehrichia chaffeensis

A

Canis- monocytes and macrophages
Ewingii- neutrophils or eosinophils
Chaffeensis- monocytes and neutrophils

108
Q

What are the three phases of ehrichia canis and signs

A

Acute- thrombocytopenia, multisystemic signs
Subacute
Chronic- pancytopenia, hyperglobulinemia

More severe disease than other ehrichia varieties

109
Q

What do you see with ehrichia chaffeensis

A

Uveitis and hyperglobulinemia

110
Q

What is the target cell of anaplasma

A

neutrophils

111
Q

What does anaplasma phagocytophilum cause

A

Acute illness- lameness, FAD with low platelets and eosinophils

112
Q

Do antibodies protect a host from reinfection of anaplasma

A

no

113
Q

What does anaplasma platys cause

A

Infectious cyclic thrombocytopenia (likes platelets not white cells!)

114
Q

What are two tests for ehrlichia or anaplasma

A

The antibody snap test (same one as Lyme and heartworm) and/or the PCR antigen test

115
Q

How do you treat Ehrlichiosis/anaplasma

A

Minocycline-doxycycline and chloramphenicol

116
Q

What may you see on the skin of patients with Lyme disease (Borrelia burgdorferi)

A

Red, round lesions

117
Q

How soon do animals start showing signs of Lyme and what clinical signs do they have

A

2-5 mo after incubation, FAD, lymphadenomegaly, PLN (protein losing neuropathy)

118
Q

What antibodies are targets of the Lyme vaccine

A

Osp protein A and C

119
Q

What do you test for to show the Lyme organism is in the host and there is an active infection

A

C6 peptide a part of the variable lipoprotein surface-exposed protein (VlsE)

120
Q

How do you treat Lyme disease

A

tetracyclines

121
Q

What are features of Bartonella that make it hard to detect

A

Stimulates a minimal immune attack and causes minimal disease in the host

122
Q

Where can bartonella localize

A

in the heart

123
Q

In cats many have what type of infection of bartonella

A

Subclinical but stress may activate it

124
Q

What are unnatural hosts for Bartonella henselae and what can it cause

A

Dogs and humans and it can cause granulomatous lymphadenomegaly (pyogranulomatous disease)

125
Q

What does Bartonella vinsonii ssp. Berkhofii cause

A

In dogs it causes lameness and fever and granulomatous disease

126
Q

What is the treatment for bartonella

A

Tetracyclines and macrolides

127
Q

Can a dog with hepatozoonosis be cured

A

no

128
Q

What is the target cell for Hepatozoon americanum and where does it lodge in a host

A

Monocyte and lodges in a cyst in the muscle

129
Q

Why is it important clinically that hepatozoon can encyst

A

Drugs can’t kill the cysts and they can periodically release merozoites

130
Q

What would make you suspicious a dog has hepatozoon

A

Cachexia (muscle wasting), progressive wasting illness, outrageous leukocytosis (high WBC count), periosteal reaction (bone reaction)
Clinical signs- fever, lethargy, anorexia, weight loss, hyperesthesia (increased sensitivity to stimulation)

131
Q

What are laboratory findings with hepatozoon

A

Leukocytosis, hypoglycemia, increased ALP, hypoalbuminemia

132
Q

What is the triple therapy to treat Hepatozoon and if the animal survives then what do you treat with

A

Trimethoprim-sulfonamide, clindamycin, Pyrimethamine
Then treat with decoquinate

133
Q

For serologic testing of tick-borne diseases a positive test could mean what and what is the exception

A

It could be vaccines except for Lyme because that tests for the C6 antibody (acts like antigen test)

134
Q

What tick-borne diseases are treated with doxycycline

A

Ehrlichia, Rickettsia, Anaplasma, Borrelia

135
Q

What type of soil/enviornment is Blastomyces dermatitidis found in

A

Sandy, acidic, deep soil near water, Eastern river valleys

136
Q

What type of soil/enviornment is Histoplasma capsulatum found in

A

Soil rich in organic nitrogen in warm, humid conditions (temperate, subtropical), Ohio river valley

137
Q

Who is more likely to get Blastomyces and who is more likely to get Histoplasma

A

Dogs are more likely to get Blastomyces and cats are more likely to get Histoplasma

138
Q

What is the signalment for Blastomyces

A

Males more than females, sporting dogs or doing outdoor activity, 1-5 years

139
Q

What is the signalment for Histoplasma

A

If not cats (of any age, esp. Persian cats) then sporting and working dogs (esp, pointers, weimaraners, spaniels, terriers), over 5 years of age

140
Q

What is the pathogenesis of Blastomyces

A

Inhalation of spores that infect lungs and then disseminates through the body extracellularly causing clinical disease (eyes, lymph nodes, skin, bone, subcutaneous tissue)

141
Q

What is the pathogenesis of histoplasma

A

Inhalation of microconidia, infects lower respiratory tract, phagocytosed and disseminated intracellularly throughout body (GI, skin) or may stay in lungs, many are asymptomatic

142
Q

What causes fever, cough, bone lesions, ocular disease, draining tracts, and CNS signs in dogs and sometimes cats

A

Blastomycosis

143
Q

What can cause weight loss, cough, large bowel diarrhea (with blood), enlarged lymph nodes, and chronic illness in dogs or they may be asymptomatic

A

Histoplasmosis

144
Q

T/F both cats and dogs have GI signs from Histoplasmosis

A

False, dogs usually just get it

145
Q

What are you looking for on histopathology for Blastomycosis

A

Big, blue, broad-based budding yeast + pyogranulomatous inflammation (extracellular)

146
Q

What are you looking for on histopathology for Histoplasmosis

A

Small intracellular yeast with narrow based budding and “halo” around edge + pyogranulomatous inflammation

147
Q

What test should you send off to a lab for Histoplasmosis or Blastomycosis

A

Antigen test of the urine

148
Q

When treating for Histoplasma or Blastomyces what should you warn the owner

A

The pet will start getting worse before it gets better and that means the treatment is working

149
Q

What is the most common systemic mycosis of cats

A

Cryptococcus

150
Q

How is Cryptococcus spread

A

Through pigeon or other bird droppings in nitrogen rich environments

151
Q

What is the pathogenesis of Cryptococcus

A

Colonization of nasal cavity (through inhalation maybe but not proven) and spreads to CNS, eye, and skin from there

152
Q

What fungi causes upper respiratory signs in cats commonly and may also cause CNS, eye, or skin lesions/signs

A

Cryptococcus

153
Q

What does Cryptococcus look like on histopathology

A

Large capsule, narrow-based budding + thin cell wall

154
Q

What does serologic testing look for for Cryptococcus

A

Cryptococcal polysaccharide capsule antigen

155
Q

You treat a cat for Cryptococcus and it seems to respond, are you in the clear?

A

No, 1/3 of cats may relapse

156
Q

What fungi is found in the southwest, Mexico, and central/South America, likes sandy, alkaline soils and low rainfall and elevation. What animal is it prevalent in and what does it cause in layman’s terms

A

Cocciciomycosis, more prevalent in dogs and causes “Valley Fever”

157
Q

What is the pathogenesis of coccidioides

A

Inhaled, arthroconidia enter bronchioles and alveoli, enter peribronchiolar tissue and are phagocytosed and spread to bones, eyes, heart, CNS, or visceral organs

158
Q

T/F many animals infected with coccidioides are asymptomatic or have mild lower respiratory tract signs

A

true

159
Q

What type of testing is unique to coccidioides compared to other fungal diseases

A

Serologic testing for antibodies instead of antigens

160
Q

Where does griseofulvin work and what should be given with it

A

Inhibits microtubule assembly and is better absorbed with a fatty meal

161
Q

What is better to use for Amphotericin B, topical or systemic forms, what is the MOA, and what is an important side effect

A

Systemic is better, it binds sterols (esp. ergosterol) which causes holes to form in the membrane, there is a side effect of nephrotoxicity

162
Q

What is MOA of Flucytosine and what does it work well against, what is a side effect

A

It inhibits DNA synthesis in yeast (good against Cryptococcus and candida), can cause skin eruptions in dogs so it is rarely used in them now

163
Q

What drug is a widely used antifungal but what drug type can it not be given with

A

Azoles but need acidic enviornments so can’t be given with antacid

164
Q

What is important about how the drug is made regarding Azoles

A

They must be micro-encapsulated

165
Q

How do Azoles work, and what is unique about how well they work in regards to concentration

A

They inhibit sterol synthesis and are fungistatic at low concentrations and fungicidal at high but high concentrations can’t be safely reached in animals

166
Q

What are 3 risks with ketoconazole (azole)

A

Can cause GI upset, likely to induce mammalian P45 enzymes, and clinical hepatitis can occur

167
Q

What antifungal is good because it can get through the BBB (so good for CNS involvement)

A

Fluconazole (azole)

168
Q

Which azole is more selective for fungal p450 enzymes

A

itraconazole

169
Q

How does terbinafine work

A

It reversibly inhibits squalene cyclase to inhibit ergosterol synthesis

170
Q

How do echinocandins work and how does the MOA impact how fast it works

A

They inhibit chitin synthesis so fungal growth is required so there is a delay in how fast it works

171
Q

What antifungal is used topically

A

Clotrimazole

172
Q

What is Greene’s selection method for antibiotics

A

Host (rug), Organism (Bug), Drug

173
Q

What are the five essentials for a drug

A

Reach the organism in the host (bug in the rug)
Achieve appropriate concentration
Microorganism susceptible
Not associated with severe adverse events
Able to be administered

174
Q

What organisms do penicillins and cephalosporins (G1) usually get

A

Gram positive aerobes and some gram negative aerobes

175
Q

What do potentiated beta-lactams get

A

Gram positive and negative anaerobes and aerobes and some pseudomonas

176
Q

What drug is restricted usually for resistant microbes and gets all gram negatives, positives and pseudomonas

A

Carbaminopenems

177
Q

What are 6 antibiotics that can get MRS (staph resistant infections)

A

G5 cephalosporins, sulfonamides, tetracycline/doxycycline, chloramphenicol, vancomycin/linezolid, lincosamides

178
Q

What drug has the broadest coverage/ is almost a 4 quadrant drug

A

Quinolones

179
Q

What antibiotic gets only gram negative aerobes and pseudomonas because it requires oxygen to work

A

Aminoglycosides

180
Q

What drug is used for a lot of atypical and intracellular bacterial infections

A

Tetracycline/doxycycline

181
Q

What antibiotics are often used in dentistry and get gram positive aerobes, gram positive and negative anaerobes, MRS, and some atypicals

A

Lincosamides

182
Q

What drug has a narrow spectrum of activity of gram positive and negative anaerobes and a few atypicals

A

Metronidazole

183
Q

What antibiotic causes aplastic anemia in humans but it gets some in all quadrants

A

chloramphenicol

184
Q

What antibiotic needs special approval to be used because it is reserved for humans (like you have to submit a request to a board)

A

Vancomycin/linezolid

185
Q

T/F antibiotic resistance in humans leads to resistance in pets

A

True, it goes both ways

186
Q

Does monotherapy or poly select for more resistance

A

Polypharmacy, the more classes you give the more you select for resistance

187
Q

Most antibiotics are what type of dependent

A

Time- have to give the drug more frequently

188
Q

T/F narrow spectrum antibiotics are better to use compared to broad spectrum because less resistance will form and we can save the broad spectrum drugs

A

False, there is no correlation between narrow spectrum antibiotics causing less resistance or being clinically superior

Small Animal Infectious Diseases (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions