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ABOMS > Dentoalveolar Surgery > Flashcards

Dentoalveolar Surgery Flashcards

1
Q

Order of impaction frequency

A

1-3rd molars
2-Max canines
3-Mandibular premolars
4-Max premolars
5-second molars

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2
Q

Rarely impacted teeth

A

1-Mandibular incisors
2-1st molarsf

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3
Q

Eruption pattern-Primary

A
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4
Q

Eruption pattern-permanent

A
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5
Q

Local vs systemic factors for tooth impaction

A
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6
Q

How to tell if a tooth is buccal or lingual from panoramic

A

If tooth is larger, out of focus, likely palatal.

If tooth is vertical, likely buccal

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7
Q

Describe cone beam computed tomography?

A

Conventional medial CT scanner uses fan-shaped beam to obtain individual image slices with each slice requiring a separate scan; slices stacked to get 3 dimensional rotation

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8
Q

Why does CBCT have less radiation

A

It is directed through middle of area and covers entire field of view, only one rotation needed; so less radiation

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9
Q

How does dose vary on CBCT

A

-slice thickness
field of view
mAs, kVP
Scan time

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10
Q

what is a gray or rad?

A

Absorption of 1 joule of radiation energy by 1 kg of matter

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11
Q

Sievert

A

Effective dose or quantification of potential radiologic detriment (cancer induction, genetic damage) from radiation

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12
Q

Bear in mind that 10,000 uSv single exposure = 1:1000 personal exposed will develop cancer.

A
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13
Q

What does it mean if an impacted canine/premolar is labial?

If palatal?

A

It means there is an arch-length deficiency.

If palatal, likely from extra space in the maxilla, excess growth, agenesis/peg lateral incisor, or stimulated eruption of lateral incisor or first premolar

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14
Q

How to help an impacted 2nd molar succeed?

A

In maxilla, remove and allow for the third molar to swing in.

That doesn’t always work in the mandible.

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15
Q

What is the ideal time to surgically uproot a canine?

A

2/3rd of root formation, with incomplete apical closure

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16
Q

What happens if you try and upright a 2nd molar too early?

A

tooth may move into wrong position.

If too late, pulpal necrosis/calcifcation maye occur leading to possible root fracture.

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17
Q

How to ensure appropriate surgical uprighting of a 2nd maxillary molar

A

1-Extract 3rd molar to posteriorly tip.
2-Need intact cortical plates for stability
3-Avoid damaging 2nd molar CEJ
4-Do not tip more than 90 degrees
5-Splint to first molar
6-Ensure tooth is out of occlusion

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18
Q

True or False? do you expose CEJ on an expose and bond?

A

False, do not expose CEJ –increased risk of root resorption, ankylosis, periodontal inflammation.

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19
Q

How to approach a mandibular premolar that is in the alveolar process?

A

Bond to the occlusal surface….apply vertical orthodontic forces until buccal surface exposed for new bracket placement.

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20
Q

Why is an apically positioned flap important

A

Allows erupting into attach mucosa and is less likely to have a periodontal defect with pocket formation.

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21
Q

What’s the normal eruption pattern of a 3rd molar
(6 stages)

A
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22
Q

What explains rotations of 3rd molars

A

1-Underdeveloped medial root-Under rotation = mesioangular impaction
2-Overdeveloped medial tooth with over rotation = distoangular impaction
3-Overdeveloped distal root (especially with medial curve) = severe mesioangular or horizontal impaction

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23
Q

By what age will tooth likely remain impacted if there is improper angulation or inadequate space?

A

18-20

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24
Q

Shorter arch or larger teeth leads to?

A

More impacted teeth

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25
Q

What is the Pell & Gregory Classification system?

A

Based on relation to occlusal plane and anterior border or ascending ramus

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26
Q

What is Winter classification

A

Baseront radiographic anatomical position of 3rd molar related to long axis of 2nd molar

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27
Q

What is the most commonly found impacted tooth?

A

Mesioangular at 45%

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28
Q

What three bacteria are often associated with pericoronitis?

A

Peptostreptococcus
Fusobacterium
Prophyromonas

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29
Q

What is the most common indication for extraction after 20

A

pericoronitis

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30
Q

What are symptoms of periocoronitis?

A

Associated with inflmmation of the operculum with pain, swelling, erythema, and purulence

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31
Q

What is the recommendation for removal of 3rds prior to surgery?

A

6-12 months to allow for adequate bony fill

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32
Q

What are periodontal considerations for wisdom toooth removal

A

1-Disrupted per ligament
2-Root resorption
3-Pocket Depths > 5 mm

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33
Q

T/F: Periodontal healing is best when…

A

3rd molars are extracted before exposure in the mouth and before bone resorption on the vital of the 2nd molar

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34
Q

Germectomy…

A

Perform when < 1/3rd root formation and radiographically discernible periodontal ligament.

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35
Q

If age is greater than 25, what are the thoughts on 3rd molar extraction?

A

1-Only remove if pathology is present
2-30% chance of increased pocket depth associated with 3rd molar removal
3-Post-operative morbidity is 1.5 times higher.
4-After age 19, preoperative and postoperative defects are the same.

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36
Q

What is the leading cyst associated with 3rd molars

A

1-Dentigerous cyst (28%)
2-OKC (3%)
3-Odontoma (0.7%)
4-Ameloblastoma (0.3%)
5-Carcinoma-(0.23%)
6-Myxoma-0.04%

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37
Q

T/F: decreased risk of neoplastic changes in 3rd molar follicle in patient’s older than 40

A

True

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38
Q

What is the indication to extract a 3rd molar for an overlying prosthesis

A

If 1-2 mm of bone or only soft tissue is overlying the tooth, then the tooth should be extracted.

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39
Q

How much do 3rd molars increase the risk of an angle fracture?

A

2.8 x fold

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40
Q

Contraindications for 3rd molar extraction

A

1-Too young (no younger than 9)
2-Too old, >40 yrs
3-Med Compromise
4-Damage to nerves

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41
Q

What is the indication to leave a root behind?

A

If root is not infection ed and less than 2 mm long, okay to leave without complications.

requires close radiographic follow up

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42
Q

If root of tooth is displaced lingually and it cannot be retrieved, how long should you wait before retrieving it?

A

3-4 weeks.

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43
Q

What is the most common root dislodged into the sinus?

A

Maxillary palatal root

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44
Q

Local measures to retrieve a root from the sinus?

A

1-Close nostrils, blow through nose
2-Fine-Tip suction
3-lavage with saline
4-pack iodoform gauze
5-Caldwell Luk in canine fossa

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45
Q

What are the borders of the infra temporal fossa?

A
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46
Q

What to do if tooth is dislodged into infra temporal space?

A

1-Finger pressure in buccal vestibule near pterygoid plates to manipulate back into the socket.
2-Access with hemostat
3-Suction
4-Close up and go again after 3-4 weeks with abx.
3 dimensional imaging, right angled hemsotat to bring back into position.

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47
Q

How to stop bleeding vessels?

A

1-Burnish bone,
2-Crush surrounding bone
3-Apply wax
4-Cautery
5-Could be contaminant nerve injury.

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48
Q

What is gelfoarm?

A

reservable porcine skin gelatin sponge that promotes platelet disruption the forms fibrin framework then blood clot.

Can be hoisted in thrombin (which activates blood coagulation factor II and converts fibrinogen to fibrin

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49
Q

What is surgicel?

A

Oxidized cellulose plat polymer of polyanhydrogucoronic acid

More efficient than sponge, but delayed healing
-Forms matrix/scaffold then artificial blood clot
-Resorbed between 7-14 days
-Creates acidic environment and not the best for overlying the nerve.

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50
Q

What is a collaplug

A

A bovine collagen plug that is resorbed in 10-14 days

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51
Q

What is thrombin?

A

A bovine or recombinant human that activates blood coagulation factor IIa, then conveys fibrinogen into fibrin

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52
Q

What is amincaproic acid?

A

Antifibrinolytic that inhibits plasmin

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53
Q

What is transexamic acid

A

Inhibits conversion of plasminogen to plasmin

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54
Q

What can you do to work up coagulopathy?

A

-CBC
-PT/INR
-PTT
-Bleeding time
-Factor 8 levels
-Ristocetin cofactor levels

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55
Q

Where is the most common place of an oroantral communication

A

The first molar site

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56
Q

How to treat oroantral communication?
for 2 mm
3-6 mm
> 6 mm

A

1-If opening is greater than 2 mm, please suture over socket to support clot, no blowing nose for 1 week
2-3-6 mm, gelatin sponge pack, figure of eight suture over socket,
3-If opening > 6 mm, tension-free primary closure, excise fistula and invert into sinus.

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57
Q

What are options for closure/

A

1-Buccal advancement
2-Palatal island/finger flap. rotational flap
3-Pedicled buccal fat pad
4-Tongue flap-

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58
Q

What is the blood supply of the buccal fat pad

A

the internal maxillary artery

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59
Q

How long before you release a tongue flap?

A

2-3 weeks and the patient must be in MMF

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60
Q

What are the bacteria associated with sinus disease?

A

1-Streptococcus pneumonia
2-Haeomphilu sinflueze
3-Moraxella catarrhalis

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61
Q

What antihistamines and decongestants should be used for oroantral communications?

A

1-Amoxicillin, Augmentnin,
2-Antihstamines-Certirizine, diphenhydramine, fexofenadine, loratidine
3-Decongestants: Pseudorephedrine, tripolidine, oxymetazoline

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62
Q

Risk factors for a mandible fx with 3rds?

A

1-Pt older than 40 years
2-Male
3-Atrophic jaw
4-Associated cyst/tumor
5-osteoporosis
6-Inexperienced surgeon

Can occur 14 days after say, but can occur up to 6 weeks postoperatively

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63
Q

Where is the IAN often located?

A

buccal and apical to mandibular tooth roots?

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64
Q

What is the incidence of injury to IAN in 3rd molar surgery?

A

1-5%

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65
Q

What are the Rood criteria?

A

1-Loss of IAN canal wall–cortical (white) lines
2-3rd molar root darkening
3-Narrowing of IAN canal as it passes 3rd molar root
4-Diversion of IAN canal
5-Deflection of roots
6-Bifid root apex

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66
Q

Risk factors for nerve injury (7)

A

1-Age > 25 years
2-Female > Male
3-Tooth elevation stretching nerve
4-Instrumentation near nerve
5-Socket curettage
6-Socket medications
7-Articaine blocks

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67
Q

Indications for a coronectomy

A

1-No pathologic legion
2-No interference with future restorations or orthodontic treatment

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68
Q

How much reduction of the tooth must be performed for a coronectomy?

A

3 mm below crestal bone

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69
Q

Most common presentation of lingual nerve

A

2.5 mm medial and 2.5 mm inferior

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70
Q

How many lingual nerve occurs above the lingual plate?

A

10-15%

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71
Q

% of lingual nerves directly attached to lingual plate

A

25%

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72
Q

What often causes nerve damage?

A

Injection into epineurium can cause hematoma and transiet/permanent paresthesia.

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73
Q

Where does sensory innervation and taste of the lingual nerve come from?

A

Anterior 2/3 of tongue is supplied by CN VII carried along CN V

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74
Q

Nociceptor:

A

A receptor excited by injury/painful sensation

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75
Q

Wallerian degernation

A

Fatty degeneration of the nerve fiber

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76
Q

Layers of nerve fibers

A

Endo–>Surrounds gorupof fibers–>forms fasicle
Peri–>Surrounds group of fascicles
Epi:Outermost layer that surround the fascicle bundles and blood vessels–>protects against compressive forces.

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77
Q

What are the. 2 nerve injury classification systems?

A

1-Seddon
2-Sunderland

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78
Q

What is neuropraxia?

A

Seddon I and Sunderland I-Minor ompression/traction temporary conduction blockade

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79
Q

What is axontmesis?

A

Seddon II/Axontmesis. Minor crush/tration

80
Q

What is neurotemesis?

A

Seddon III and Sunderland V - Complete transection

81
Q

Describe the event, state of nerve sheathe, axons, Wallerian degeneration, treatment, and possible nerve recovery for both Seddon and Sunderland nerve injury systems

A
82
Q

What is Level A nerve mapping consist of

A

Mechanoreceptor (A-alpha and A-bata fibers)
1-Brush stroke direction (+/-)
2-2 pt discrimination
4 mimes normal for IAN & 3 mm for lingual.

83
Q

What is Level B of clinical nerve testing

A

Mechanoreceptors (A-beta fibers)
-Contact detection: static light tough and pressure perception
-Use cotton wisp or von Frey monofilaments

84
Q

What is Level C clinical nerve testing?

A

Nociceptors
(A-Delta (myelinated)
C fibers (unmyelinated)

Pinprick nociception: Assess free net endings
Thermal Discrimation: Hot gutta percha or Endo ice

85
Q

Dysthesia, diagnostic nerve blocks

A

Unusual sensations, if relief–>mincroneurosurgery

86
Q

If no relief from diagnostic nerve block, what is the consideration?

A

Central pain process and need for pharmacologic treatment.

87
Q

Microneurosurgery repair indications

A

Indications (best results if <10 weeks
1-Complete anesthesia > 1-2 months
2-Profound hypothesia that does not improve > 3 months
3-Early dysesthesia-
4-Clinical observation of transection or foreign body
5-Progressive/worsening symptoms
6-Pt not able to tolerate hypoesthesia

88
Q

Contraindications to nerve surgery

A

1-Centrally mediated pain, think meds like clonazepam or gabapentin, prcegablin
2-Improving sensory function
3-Symptoms are acceptable to present
4-Medically compromised patient
5-Patient age
6-Long duration since surgery

89
Q

External neruolysis?

A

1-Free up Nerve

90
Q

Internal neruolysis?

A

Open epineurium to decompress, evidence of fibrosis.

91
Q

What is neurorrhaphy

A

the surgical suturing of a divided nerve

92
Q

Tension free primary anastomosis – for IAN nerve and lingual nerve

A

> max IAN gap = 5 mm
Lingual nerve gap = 10 mm

93
Q

What nerves are good options for autogenous nerve grafts?

A

1-Sural nerve
2-Great auricular nerve

94
Q

Morbidity of a sural nerve harvest?

A

Up to 20 cm of harvest with a numb heel/lateral foot

95
Q

Greater auricular nerve harvest?

A

Ascends on SCM to innervate skin behind auricle and parotid gland.

1-2 cm

Morbidity - Numb lateral neck, posterior mandible, ear

96
Q

How much does a nerve grow a day?

A

Nerve grows about 1 mm/day within a conduit

97
Q

Success rate of nerve repair?

A

50%

98
Q

T/F: nerve repair can be delayed 6 months to a year

A

False, it should be taken care of in the first 1-2 months

99
Q

When does alveolar osteitis occur?

A

Days 2-5 with throbbing, radiating pain, fetid odor, bad taste

100
Q

Prevention of dry sockets

A

1-Copious Intraoperative and postoperative irrigation
2-Postopeartive Peridex rinse
3-Abx placement in extraction site

101
Q

Etiology of dry sockets

A

1-Increased fibrinolytic activity from tissue, saliva, or bacteria from acceralted blood clot lysis before replacement by granulation tissue.
2-Anaerobic bacteria disturb wound healing: reducing bacterial load may decrease incidence of alveolar osteitis.

102
Q

T/F: Eugenol has neurotoxic effects?

A

True

103
Q

Do you give abx for dry sockets?

A

No, unless purulence or lymphadenopathy exists.

104
Q

are dexamethasone and methylprednisolone glucocorticoids or mineralcorticoids

A

They are glucocortioids

105
Q

What do steroids do?

A

Depressing on leukocyte chemotaxis

106
Q

When are steroids contraindicated?

A

1-Peptic ulcer, active infection, psychosis

107
Q

After 24 hrs, what should be used to eliminate swelling?

A

Heat

108
Q

Subperiosteal abscess–Occurrence

A

2-6 weeks after surgery due to debris under mucoperiosteal flap

109
Q

How to treat interstitial emphysema

A

1-Abx (cephalsporin, prevents secondary infection fro possible oral bacterial nidus)
2-Systemic corticosteroids
3-Resolves in 7-10 days

110
Q

Edentulous mandible–> blood supply

A

Inferior alveolar nerve vessels string with age. Primary blood supply moves centripetally (center seeking) from periosteium

111
Q

What is the supply in a dentate mandible?

A

Centrifugal supply meaning enter fleeing from inferior alveolar artery

112
Q

Bone resorption patterns of the maxilla

A

-Inferior and lateral sides move posteriorly and superiorly from lack of attachments

113
Q

Mandible resorbs and creates what type of pseudo relatioinship

A

Class III

114
Q

Cawood and Howell classifications of edentulous ridge

I-VI

A

1-VI

115
Q

What is the minimum distance required between the max tuberosity and mandibular retromolar pad?

A

10 mm

116
Q

What must be excised during a frenectomy?

A

both the fibrous band and mucosa attachement otherwise a high recurrence rate.

117
Q

What tissues are involved in a lingual frecectomy?

A

-Mucosa, ankyloglossia, connective tissue, and superficial genioglossus muscle

118
Q

Why is a z pasty deformed for a lingual frenectomy

A

to increase tongue length and mobility

119
Q

What is important to avoid chin sag in a vestibuloplasty procedure?

A

-maintain minimum of 10 mm of mentalist muscle attachment

120
Q

If depth is inadequate or lip distortion occurs, what should be performed instead of a submucosal vestibuloplasty?

A

1-Kazanjian or transpositional vestibuloplasty instead

121
Q

What is a Kazanjian flap vestibulplasty

A

Peformed in maxilla or mandible when sub mucous vestibuloplasty is contraindicated due to inadequate labial vestibular depth

-Incision made at junction of attached and unattached gingiva; Create supraperioteal flap and suture down to greatest vestibular depth

-placed relined splint for 2-3 weeks

122
Q

Epulis fissuratum: Treatment

A

Also known as fibrous inflammatory hyperplasia

Treatment:
-Surgical excision of cryosurgery (Co2 laser)
-Reline denture and use as a stint
-Better, new fitting denture.

123
Q

Inflammatory Papillary hypoplasia etiology

A

Fungal infection (Candida, mechanical irritation, poor oral hygiene, smoking

124
Q

Inflammatory Papillary hypoplasia: Treatment

A

Antifungicides (nystatin, clotrimazole), clean dentures in bleach
-Supraperiosteal excision but avoid palatal bone exposure
-Reline denture with tissue conditioner
-Need for better fitting denture

125
Q

Odontogenic Infection: Induration

A
126
Q

Odontogenic Infection: Cellulitis

A
127
Q

Odontogenic Infection: Abscess

A
128
Q

What do aerobes do to pave the way for anaerobic bacteria?

A

Aerobes start early and cause tissue hypos and acidosis, creates an environment for anaerobes

129
Q

What do anaerobes do in an infection?

A

They destroy tissue and cause pus formation, takes about 48 hrs to culture

130
Q

Gram Positive Cocci often found in odontogenic infections

A

Streptococcus Viridans

131
Q

Gram Negative rod/bacilli found in odontogenic infections

A

Takes >48 hrs to culture, Bacteriodes (causes foul smell), Fusobacterium

132
Q

Which spaces involve the masticator space?

A

pterygomandibular, masseteric, and temporal spaces

133
Q

Lateral neck film, what are the distances from the anterior surface of the vertebrae to the posterior border of the airway to rule out retropharyngeal involvement

A

at C2- the distance should be 7 mm or less regardless of age.

At C6-The distance should be 14 more less (<15 yrs) or 22 mm (>15years)

134
Q

What are indications for inpatient treatment of an infection (7) in mind

A

1-Compromised host defenses
2-Rapid, progressive infection
3-Secondary fascial space involvement
4-Temperature over 101 F
5-Severe trismus (<10 mm)
6-Toxic appearance
7-Difficulty swallowing or breathing

135
Q

Where should a retropharyngeal space abscess be accessed?

A

2 cm vertical incision at the anterior border of the SCM (at the level of the hyoid bone) and use finger dissection

136
Q

MOA for Penicillin, amoxicillin, and ampicillin

A

Inhibits bacterial cell-wall formation

137
Q

MOA for Augmentin, zosyn, and Unasyn

A

Inhibits bacterial cell-wall formation,
Claavulonic acid, sulbactam, and tazobactam serve as beta-lactamase inhibitors.

138
Q

Unasyn

A

Ampicillin and sulbactam

139
Q

Augmentin

A

Amoxicillin and clavulonic acid

140
Q

Cephalexic and cefazolin (ancef) MOA

A

First-generation cephalosporin
Inhibits bacterial cell-wall formation

*Contraindicated for penicillin-allergic patients.

141
Q

Clindamycin MOA

A

Inhibits protein synthesis by binding to 50S ribosomal subunit

*excellent abscess penetration

142
Q

Clindamycin-Hepatic/renal patients

A

No adjustment needed for both hepatic or renal-compromised patients.

143
Q

Azithromycin and Clarithyromycin MOA

A

Inhibits protein synthesis by binding to 50S ribosomal subunit

Macrolide abx family

144
Q

Which macrolide abx had good coverage against Haemophilus influenza (sinus infection)

A

Azithromycin and clarithromycin (Z-pak)

145
Q

Ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin and moxifloxacin MOA

A

DNA gyrase inhibitor
Fluoroquinolone abx family

146
Q

Ciprofloxacin limitation

A

Cipro has limited oral flora coverage (anaerobic organisms and streptococcus)

147
Q

Fluoroquinolone has good coverage for…

A

Staphylococcus (skin infections)
Contraindicated in pediatric populations due to possible tendon rupture.

148
Q

Metronidazole MOA

A

Not well udnerstood
-Forms cytotoxic particles that interact with bacterial DNA and eventually lead to DNA strand breakage.

149
Q

Three facts about Metronidazole

A

1-Anaerobic coverage only
2-Excellent cerebrospinal fluid penetration
3-First line therapy against pseudomembranous colitis

150
Q

Vancomycin MOA

A

Inhibits cell wall formation

151
Q

What is Vancomycin typically reserved for?

A

MRSA
-Oral form is only used for pseudomembranous colitis

152
Q

Pseudomembranous Colitis is caused by

A

Superinfection of clostridium deficit due to recent abx usage

-Can be any abx but most commonly associated with clindamycin, ampicillin, and cephalsporins

153
Q

Clinical manifestations of C.Diff Pseudomembranous Colitis

A

-Profuse watery diarrhea
-Abdominal cramping
-Fever
-Elevated white blood cell count

154
Q

C. Diff tested by

A

Stool sample, and toxin assay, sigmoidoscomy

155
Q

What drug is used to treat Pseudomembranous colitis

A

-Metronidazole or vancomycin (oral form only)

156
Q

Cavernous Sinus thrombosis

A

Vascular thrombosis in cavernous sinus secondary to contiguous spread of orofacial infections in retrograde fashion (dental abscess, sinusitis, nasal furuncle)

157
Q

Cavernous sinus contents

A

CN III, IV, VI, V2, VI
Internal carotid artery

158
Q

What is the route to the cavernous sinus?

A

Anterior facial vein to superior ophthalmic vein: Dangerous zones–upper lip, tip of nose and medial cheeks,

Deep facial vein through pterygoid plexus

159
Q

Clinical manifestations of cavernous sinus thrombosis

A

-Unilateral periorbital edema
-Headache
-Photophobia
-Proptosis
-CN palsies (III, IV, V, & VI)

160
Q

What is the first line of cavernous sinus thrombosis?

A

Abducens paresis (loss of CN VI–Lateral gaze)

161
Q

MRI can show what regarding cavernous sinus thrombosis?

A

deformity of the internal carotid artery within the cavernous sinus
-Venus wall thickening as well

162
Q

Cavernous sinus thrombosis treatment:

A

-Abx IV 6-8 weeks
-Surgical debridement or incision and drainage of source
-Anticoagulation and steroid use are contraversial

163
Q

Cervicofacial necrotizing Fasciitis

A

Fulminant subcutaneous infection with spread and necrosis along fascial planes

164
Q

What are the two types of Necrotizing Fasciiitis

A

Type I-Mixed arobic and anaerobic (most common)
Type II-Streptococcu pyogenes and S aureus (gas producing)

165
Q

Risk factors for Necorizing Fascitiis

A

1-Diabetes
2-HTN
3-Obesity
4-Alcohol/drug use

166
Q

Classic appearance of drainage in necrotizing fasciitis pateints

A

Dishwater drainage

167
Q

Treatment: for open wound?

A

Surgical wound should be left open and packed with antimicrobial-soaked gauze.

168
Q

Iodoform guaze

A

Iodoform gauze is a saturated gauze fabric that uses the antimicrobial and healing properties of iodoform. Iodoform gauze dressings are often used in clinical settings for patients who have infected wounds that may have build-up of necrotic or dead tissue. The gauze is also found in dentist or orthodontic office settings to pack tooth cavities, as an antiseptic and dry socket prevention measure. Iodoform dressing medicated wound dressings are usually packaged in long strips and sealed in a bottle container. They are absorbent and are made in strips so they can be packed into a wound with substantial depth, yet will still be loose and porous enough to allow a wound drain. Iodoform strips, although soaked in the antiseptic, are not moist to the touch. They are only slightly damp to maintain the mechanical function of gauze, yet will help prevent infection and necrotic tissue from forming.

169
Q

Antiseptic

A

.
relating to or denoting substances that prevent the growth of disease-causing microorganisms.

170
Q

Actinomyces

A

Disease characterized by the formation of multiple painful abscess which often contain sulfur-like granules

Can lead to fistula formation

171
Q

Treatment for actiomyces

A

-Long-Term high-dose abx (oral penicillin for 6 weeks
-Surgery for debridement and removal of fistula tracts

172
Q

What is the most common fungal infection in the mouth?

A

Candidiasis

173
Q

What are the three clinical subtypes of candidiasis

A

1-Pseudomembranous (most common type)
2-Erythematous
3-Hyperplastic

174
Q

What is the most common subtype of candidiasis?

A

pseudomembranous-it has a white coating that can be wiped off leaving a raw surface.

Asymptoamtic

175
Q

Which is the most painful form of candidiasis?

A

Erythematous (atrophic)

Burning mouth
-Angula chelitis
-Denture related stomatitis
-Median rhomboid glossitis

176
Q

Describe hyperplstic oral candidiasis?

A

White coat that cannot be removed
Asymptomatic
Diagnosis by biopsy

177
Q

What are the risk factors for candidiasis?

A

-Immunocompromised
-Recent abx use
-Poor denture hygiene
-Xerostomia
-Smoking
-Malnutrition

178
Q

What is the treatment for candidiasis?

A

-Nystatin oral suspension 100,000 U/mL 5 mL, 4x/day 14 days
-Clotrimazole troches: 10 mg 4 x day for 14 days

179
Q

Mucromycosis (zycomycosis)

A

Fungal infection that has tendency to invade into the vascular network, which results in thrombosis and necrosis of the surrounding tissues.

-Immunocompromised patients (HIV, diabetes)

180
Q

What are the two types of mucormycosis?

A

Rhino-orbital-cerebral form (agressive)
Rhinomaxillary form (less aggressive)

181
Q

How is Mucor diagnosed and treated?

A

Diagnosis by tissue biopsy: Large, broad, nonseptate hyphae with right-angle branching

-Multiple surgical debridements
-Intravenous amphotericin B

182
Q

Noma?

A

Orofacail gangrene

-A rapidly progressive, polymicrobial, opportunitistc infeciton that can lead to painless tissue degradation and permanent disfigurment

183
Q

Where is Noma often seen?

A

Orofacial gangrene

-Seen in Africa and Asia
-Affects kids less than 12 yrs old
-80% mortality rate

184
Q

Commonly associated pathogens with Noma (orofacial gangrene)

A

Fusobacterium mecrophorum
Prevotella intermedia

185
Q

Risk factors for Noma (orofacial gangrene)

A

1-Malnutrition
2-Poor oral hygeine
3-Immunodeficiency disease

186
Q

Treatment for Noma (orofacial gangrene)

A

-Abx (intravenous ampicillin
-Debridement and I&D
-Nutritional improvement
-Reconstructive Surgery

187
Q

TADs & Indications

A

Temporary anchorage devices
-Alternative to undesired tooth mobility/movmeemtn when teeth used for orthodontic anchorage
-Retraction, protraction, uprighting, intrusion
-Also used for mild to moderate skeletal discrepancies
-Since 2006, FDA cleared them for age ?12 yrs

188
Q

Contraindications to TADs

A

-Allergy to titanium alloys
_heavy tobacco use
-Severe osteoporosis
-Uncontrolled immune/metabolic disorders (diabetes)
-Bisphosphonate use

189
Q

Two types of TADs are?

A

-Miniplates
-Miniscrews

190
Q

Describe Miniscrews TADs

A

-Placed in dense cortical bone-no osseointegration
-Disadvantage includes 15-30% failure rate

191
Q

Miniplates TADs

A

Need to wait 10-14 days to load but must load before 3 weeks or else it can become loose.

192
Q

Placement of TADS should have the following distances
away from tooth roots, incisive canal, and mid palatal suture, use paramedical placement

A

-Min 2 mm away from tooth roots and vital structures
-Min 1 cm away from incisive canal
-Avoid mid palatal suture

193
Q

Excess torque in TADs

A

-Greater than >250 g decreases stability: higher risk of failure.
-Up to 30% relapse for intrusion of molars (depends on force amount, treatment period, degree of intrusion.

194
Q

Indications for an apicoectomy (6)

A

1-Resection of undecided/unobsturated portion of root and apical curretage
-When conventional root canal retreatmetn unfeasible via coronal approach (calcification, severe root curvatures)
3-Restorative concerns, removal of post and core may cause root fracture.
4-Irretreivable material in canal (broken file, restorative material); need to remove with root apex
5-Iatrogenic failure (overfill, perforations
6-Large lesion that did not resolve after RCT

195
Q

Filling materials for apicoectomy

A

1-Amalgam,
2-Trioxide aggregate;
3-Composite resin, can be used in shallow, concave preparations (Ie molar roots, but needs dry field
4-Reinforced zinc oxide cement

196
Q

T/F: It is safe to use distilled water for irrigation

A

False, do not use because distilled water is hypotonic and can cause cells to die due to osmotic gradient which can cause cell lysis/rapid cell death.

ABOMS (9 decks)

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