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A350 Systems > LOD > Flashcards

LOD Flashcards

1
Q

Using the maximum nosewheel steering of ________, the min runway width for a 180 degree turn is _______

A

72 degrees, 174’

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2
Q

What swings the largest arc during a turn?

A

The wing tip

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3
Q

How many cabin doors are there?

A

8

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4
Q

Flight deck emergency equipment?

A

PFD
Crash axe
Halon bottle
Escape hatch
PBE
Flashlight
Gloves

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5
Q

When do emergency exit lights illuminate?

A

AC, DC, and/or emergency power supply not available

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6
Q

How long do cabin oxygen masks last?

A

22 minutes

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7
Q

When do cabin oxygen masks automatically deploy?

A

Cabin altitude above 13,800’

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8
Q

How many portable oxygen bottles are in the cabin?

A

19

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9
Q

When is the oxygen pressure number green with an amber box?

A

Pressure is 350-700 psi

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10
Q

When is the oxygen number all amber

A

Pressure below 350 psi

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11
Q

What does REGUL PR LO mean?

A
  1. Oxygen crew supply PB is off
  2. Oxygen pressure in manifold is below 47 psi
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12
Q

Max operating altitude?

A

43100

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13
Q

Max takeoff and landing tailwind?

A

15 knots

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14
Q

Max crosswind for takeoff?

A

35 knots

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15
Q

Max crosswind for landing?

A

40 knots

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16
Q

On takeoff, the autopilot must not be engaged for ________?

A

5 seconds after lift off

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17
Q

After a go around, the autopilot must not be engaged below?

A

100 feet

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18
Q

Max wind for auto land?

A

Headwind - 40 knots
Crosswind - 30 knots
Tailwind - 15 knots

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19
Q

Do not extend the flaps above?

A

20,000’

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20
Q

How many flight attendants?

A

7

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21
Q

Wingspan?

A

212’ 5”

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22
Q

Length?

A

218’ 7”

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23
Q

Height?

A

55’ 3”

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24
Q

When do I get a red “CABIN PRESSURE” in the cabin door window?

A

On the Ground

Slide is disarmed

Differential pressure above .036

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25
Q

How many cargo doors?

A

3- forward, aft, and bulk

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26
Q

When does the logo light illuminate in the AUTO position?

A

On the ground OR slats extended

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27
Q

How many nose takeoff lights are there?

A

6

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28
Q

What powers emergency lights?

A

8 Emergency Power Supply Units (EPSUs)

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29
Q

Where do EPSUs get power?

A

Non essential DC power

OR

Internal battery packs for 10 minutes

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30
Q

When do emergency lights come on automatically?

A

DC power not available

OR

DC EMERGENCY power not available

OR

115V AC not available

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31
Q

What are the three oxygen systems?

A

Flight Crew

Passenger

Portable

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32
Q

When does the oxygen pressure display an amber half box?

A

Less than 1150 PSI

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33
Q

When does the oxygen pressure display all amber?

A

Less than 350 PSI

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34
Q

What is a BOMU

A

Bleed Overheat Monitoring Unit

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35
Q

The APU can provide bleed air for pressurization up to _____?

A

25,000’ for single pack

22,500’ for dual pack

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36
Q

The APU can provide air for inflight engine start up to _____?

A

25,000’

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37
Q

What is CSAS

A

Conditioned Air Service System

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38
Q

What is FTIS?

A

Fuel Tank Inerting System

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39
Q

Which 3 valves close when you turn the Engine Bleed Push Button off?

A

Bleed valve

HP valve

Overpressure valve

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40
Q

What does the ENGINE BLEED FAULT light mean?

A

Valve position disagrees

Over temperature

Over pressure

Reverse flow protection failed

Leak detected in the duct

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41
Q

What does the APU BLEED FAULT light mean?

A

APU running and valve failed closed

Leak detected in the duct

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42
Q

When will a Pack Valve close?

A

Low pressure

FIRE PB is pressed

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43
Q

How many recirculation fans are there?

A

4

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44
Q

What is the TASOV

A

Trim air shutoff valve. It’s like the cross feed valve for trim air

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45
Q

What is the SCS

A

Supplemental Cooling System (to cool galleys)

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46
Q

What does PACK FAULT light mean?

A

Pack valve disagrees

Pack overheat

Pack failure

Bleed leak

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47
Q

What does HOT AIR FAULT light mean?

A

Overheat

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48
Q

What does BULK CARGO ISOL VALVES FAULT light mean?

A

Valves have failed OR disagree

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49
Q

The Cabin Temperature Selector at 12 o’clock sets _____

A

76 degrees F

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50
Q

What does the WING A-ICE amber message mean?

A

Valve disagree

Abnormal pressure

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51
Q

Does wing anti ice operate on the ground?

A

Yes, valves open 20 seconds then close until weight off wheels

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52
Q

Wing PB FAULT Light?

A

Without ON light,

Valve disagree, monitoring channels not in synch, leak detected

With ON light,

Valve disagree, control system faulty, abnormal pressure

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53
Q

ENG ANTI ICE PB FAULT Light?

A

FAULT LIGHT only -
Valve abnormally open

FAULT LIGHT AND ON Light -
Valve abnormally closed or system failed

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54
Q

When does PROBE AND WINDOW HEAT operate in AUTO?

A

When an engine is running

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55
Q

Wipers should not be used at speed greater than ______?

A

230 knots

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56
Q

RAIN REPELLENT is only operational when_____?

A

Engines are running

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57
Q

ENGINE ANTI ICE FAULT Light?

A

Valve disagree

System failed

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58
Q

Which slates does WING ANTI ICE heat?

A

3,4, and 5

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59
Q

When is the ice detection system operational

A

1500’ AGL

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60
Q

Wing Anti Ice valves close automatically when _____?

A

No airflow
Leak
AC power loss
SAT above 30 C
After 20 seconds on the ground

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61
Q

When can a second autopilot be engaged?

A

ILS or GLS approach after APPR PB is pushed

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62
Q

How many flight guidance computers (PRIMS)?

A

3

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63
Q

How many Flight Management Systems (FMS)?

A

3

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64
Q

On the Autoflight System Control Panel (AFS CP), which guidance has priority?

A

Selected over Managed

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65
Q

When do I get a red AUTO LAND light?

A

Below 200’ and unable to perform an auto land

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66
Q

What is the active auto thrust range with one engine inoperative?

A

Just above idle to Flex MCT

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67
Q

When FMA modes are blue they are?

A

Armed

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68
Q

How do I disengage auto thrust for the rest of the flight?

A

Hold the intuitive disconnect switch for 15 seconds

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69
Q

When is the CVR operating in the AUTO mode?

A

Engine start until 5 min after shutdown

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70
Q

What does the Auto Transformer Unit (ATU) do?

A

Converts 230V AC power to 115V AC power

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71
Q

What does the TR do?

A

The transformer rectifier converts 230V AC power to 28V DC

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72
Q

Gen FAULT PB light?

A

Generator failed or not running

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73
Q

GEN DRIVE FAULT PB Light?

A

Generator overheat or fault requiring the drive to be disconnected

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74
Q

In flight, the APU generator can replace up to _______ engine generators

A

2

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75
Q

The emergency generator is powered by the ______?

A

RAT, it deploys automatically with total AC power loss

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76
Q

What does the static inverter do?

A

Converts DC battery power to 115V AC power under certain conditions

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77
Q

What does the EMER GEN FAULT PB Light mean?

A

RAT is extending, OR

RAT is extended and not supplying power

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78
Q

How many batteries?

A

4

BAT 1+2, BAT EMER 1+2

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79
Q

BAT FAULT PB light?

A

Overcurrent
Overheat
Contractor failure
Power up test failure

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80
Q

What type of engine?

A

Rolls Royce Trent XWB-84, produces 84,200 lbs of thrust

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81
Q

How many Channels does each FADEC control?

A

2, only one is active at a time

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82
Q

At aircraft power up, the FADEC is powered for

A

15 minutes

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83
Q

The FADEC becomes self powered when?

A

Above 8% N3

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84
Q

Engine ignition must be manually selected on when?

A

Moderate rain

Moderate turbulence

Standing water or slush on runway

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85
Q

Continuous ignition is automatically activated when?

A

Inflight flameout

Heavy rain or hail

Inadvertent cycling of engine master lever

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86
Q

When does thrust go to Approach Idle?

A

Inflight, with gear extended OR flaps at 2,3, or FULL

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87
Q

Do not use max reverse below

A

70 knots

88
Q

Reverse thrust is available when?

A

On ground

One FADEC operating

Reverse selected

Engine running

89
Q

What does THR display in normal mode?

A

% of max thrust (N1) at TOGA power with bleed off

90
Q

ENGINE MASTER LEVER FAULT Light?

A

Automatic start abort

Fuel valve disagree

Overthrust

Malfunction of thrust control

91
Q

When does the engine attention getting box turn amber?

A

Engine failed

N1 or EGT Exceeds limit

Thrust reversers unlocked inflight

92
Q

If both engines are operating in the degraded mode, what happens to auto thrust?

A

It disconnects

93
Q

Min oil quantity for engine start?

A

14 quarts

94
Q

Can I use APU bleed air for Wing Anti Ice?

A

No

95
Q

APU MASTER SWITCH FAULT Light?

A

Automatic shutdown or APU failed

96
Q

APU START PB AVAIL Light?

A

APU ready to supply bleed air and electrics

97
Q

What is required to start the APU?

A

2 28 V DC batteries

230V AC power

98
Q

What happens if there’s an APU fire on the ground?

A

APU automatically shuts down

APU discharges it’s fire extinguisher after 10 seconds

99
Q

After three attempted APU starts, wait ______?

A

60 minutes

100
Q

An engine fire warning is generated when______?

A

Both loops detect a fire

One loop detects if the other is failed

Both loops fail within 5 seconds of each other

101
Q

How many fire warning loops are in the APU?

A

2

102
Q

How many fire extinguisher bottles for the APU?

A

1

103
Q

How many fire loops are in the main landing gear bay?

A

2

104
Q

How many smoke detectors are needed to trigger a cargo smoke warning light?

A

2, or 1 with the other failed

105
Q

How many smoke detector pairs in each cargo compartment?

A

Forward- 4

Aft- 3

Bulk- 1

106
Q

How many fire bottles are there for the cargo fire extinguishing system?

A

2, for either forward or aft

107
Q

How long does cargo fire bottle 2 discharge for?

A

5 hours

108
Q

How many Flight Control Computers?

A

6

3 PRIMS and 3 SECS

109
Q

What do Flight Control Computers actuate?

A

Aileron
Elevator
Rudder
Trimable Horizontal Stab (THS)
Spoilers

110
Q

How many hydraulic actuator types are there?

A

3

111
Q

Which spoilers assist in roll control?

A

3-7

112
Q

Is there aileron trim?

A

No

113
Q

When do speed brakes automatically extend?

A

VMO/MMO

EMERGENCY DESCENT MODE

114
Q

When do speedbrakes automatically retract?

A

Alpha protection active

Low speed stability active

Go around

115
Q

What is needed for speedbrake extension on landing?

A

Thrust levers idle
Spoiler armed
Gear compressed
Wheel speed greater than 72

116
Q

On a rejected takeoff, ground spoilers extend when?

A

Idle

Greater than 72 knots

117
Q

When is pitch trim automatically set for takeoff?

A

Engine start OR

Ground spoilers armed

118
Q

What is the configuration if I select flaps 1 while airborne?

A

If below 203 knots, slats 1 flaps 1

If at or above 203 knots, slats 1 only

119
Q

When is flap load relief available?

A

Configuration 2, 3, and Full

120
Q

When does flap load relief retract flaps?

A

When VFE is exceeded by 2.5 knots

121
Q

What is Normal Law?

A

The highest and most capable level of flight control automation and protection

122
Q

What is Alternate Law?

A

A high level fly by wire capability, with many stabilities and protections including autopilot

123
Q

What is Direct Law?

A

The lowest level of fly by wire capability. All protections and stabilities are lost, including autopilot.

124
Q

What is Backup Control?

A

Provides control in the event of a loss of all flight control computers

125
Q

In Normal Law, what protections are provided?

A

Pitch
Roll
Over and under speed
Angle of attack
Load factor

126
Q

What are load factor limits in Direct Law?

A

Slats retracted -1 to 2.5

Slats extended 0 to 2

127
Q

What is the bank angle limit in Normal Law?

A

67 degrees

128
Q

What is the pitch attitude limit in Normal Law?

A

-15 degrees to 30 degrees

129
Q

Side stick must be held to achieve a bank angle greater than _____?

A

33 degrees

130
Q

What is the max roll rate?

A

15 degrees per second

131
Q

What are the phases of flight for Normal Law?

A

Ground

Inflight

Flare

132
Q

When does Normal Law Flight Mode begin and end?

A

5 seconds after liftoff until 100’ on approach

133
Q

When is the Low Energy Warning available in manual flight?

A

Configuration 2, 3, or FULL

Between 100’ and 2500’ for landing

Between 200’ and 2500’ for takeoff

134
Q

When is the low energy warning available in auto flight?

A

Always

135
Q

How do I know I’m in Normal Law?

A

Green equal signs on the PFD

136
Q

How do I know I’m in Alternate Law?

A

Amber XX on the PFD

137
Q

How do I know I’m in Direct Law?

A

USE MAN PITCH TRIM message on the PFD

138
Q

When can I use the DISPLAY CYCLE Switch?

A

When the green AVAIL light is on

139
Q

What is the CRC?

A

Continuous Repetitive Chime

140
Q

What is the ECAM?

A

Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitor

141
Q

What is the OIS?

A

Onboard information system

142
Q

What is the KCCU?

A

Keyboard cursor control unit

143
Q

What does an amber half box in the Fuel on Board label mean?

A

Fuel in at least one tank is not useable

144
Q

When does TO Inhibit memo display?

A

Between takeoff thrust and 1500’ or 2 minutes after liftoff

145
Q

When does Landing Inhibit memo display?

A

Between 800’ and 60 seconds after slowing through 80 knots

146
Q

How are dispatch messages ordered?

A

Most current on top

147
Q

What does a flashing FAULT light in the IR PB mean?

A

Attitude and Heading may be recovered in ATT mode

148
Q

What does the ADIRS ON BAT light mean?

A

One or more ADIRUs are supplied by batteries

149
Q

How do I do a fast alignment?

A

Go from NAV to OFF and back to NAV in under 5 seconds

150
Q

What does each ADIRU use for position?

A

IRs

GNSS

Radio NAVAIDS

151
Q

What is an EPU

A

Estimated Position Uncertainty. NM radius around the aircraft where the aircraft is in that position 95% of the time.

152
Q

When am I in NAV PRIMARY mode?

A

NAV mode is IRS/GNSS

NAV accuracy is high (EPU<RNP)

153
Q

What flight control law am I in if PFDs display ISIS inertial data?

A

Direct law

154
Q

In the polar region (82 degrees N), what happens if I don’t manually select True North?

A

Autopilot disconnect

155
Q

Max slope

A

2 %

156
Q

Max takeoff and landing altitude

A

10,000’

157
Q

How much fuel can be carried?

A

243,400 pounds

158
Q

Wing fuel tank capacity?

A

51,600 pounds

159
Q

Max fuel imbalance?

A

6,600 pounds

160
Q

Fuel center tank capacity?

A

140,000 pounds

161
Q

What does it mean when a fuel tank quantity number is in an amber box?

A

Fuel not useable

162
Q

What does it mean when a wing fuel tank quantity number is in a half amber box?

A

Some fuel not useable

163
Q

What does it mean when a wing fuel tank quantity number is underlined?

A

Fuel imbalance

164
Q

When do I get a WING LO LEVEL?

A

Less than 3500 lbs in a wing tank

165
Q

What does the OVERFLOW message on the fuel page mean?

A

Overflow of the surge tank detected

166
Q

Fuel Pump PB FAULT light?

A

Low pressure or pump has failed

167
Q

Can I gravity feed the engines?

A

Wing tank- yes

Center tank- no

168
Q

Fuel CENTER TANK FEED FAULT light?

A

Fuel distribution incorrect

Low fuel level

169
Q

When do I get a FUEL LEVEL LO caution?

A

<3500 lbs in a wing tank

170
Q

How can I close the low pressure fuel valves?

A

Engine Master Lever

Engine Fire PB

171
Q

Which fuel pump normally runs the APU?

A

Left center

172
Q

How does fuel move from wing tank to center tank?

A

Gravity transfer

173
Q

Which fuel pumps are available in the emergency electrical configuration?

A

L and R main tank

174
Q

Amber range of fuel temperature?

A

Below -40 degrees C

Above 50

175
Q

When is predictive wind shear operative?

A

On the ground and inflight below 1500’

176
Q

When does the weather radar turn on?

A

Takeoff OR

Manually after engine start

177
Q

When is weather radar turned off?

A

60 seconds after landing

On the ground with no engine

On the ground with flaps up

178
Q

What do I need to display weather radar on the VD?

A

Terrain function

179
Q

How is turbulence displayed on the ND?

A

Magenta

180
Q

Can I select weather and terrain at the same time on my ND?

A

No

181
Q

When do I get a terrain caution? Warning?

A

60 seconds from terrain

30 seconds from terrain

182
Q

How is a corrective TCAS RA displayed?

A

Red and green on the IVSI

183
Q

In ABOVE Mode, TCAS shows traffic ________?

A

2700’ below to 9900’ above

184
Q

How many engine driven Hydraulic pumps are there?

A

4

185
Q

Normal hydraulic pressure?

A

5,000 psi

186
Q

What powers hydraulics on the ground if engines are off?

A

1 Electric motor pump (EMP)

187
Q

How do I close a hydraulic fire shutoff valve (FSOV)?

A

ENG FIRE PB

OR

ENG SUPPLY PB

188
Q

Hydraulic Engine Driven Pump FAULT light?

A

Low pressure

Low reservoir fluid

High temperature

Reservoir overheated

189
Q

Is closing the hydraulic Fire Shutoff Valve (FSV) reversible?

A

No

190
Q

When are electric hydraulic pumps inhibited?

A

After engine start

191
Q

Which electric pump automatically operates the cargo doors

A

Yellow

192
Q

What controls the hydraulic system?

A

HMC -Hydraulic Monitor and Control

193
Q

What is the impact of one hydraulic pump instead of 2?

A

Longer gear retraction time

194
Q

How do flight controls operate with a complete loss of hydraulics?

A

EHA- electro hydrostatic actuators

OR

EBHA- electrical backup hydraulic actuators

195
Q

How do brakes work with loss of hydraulics?

A

Accumulator

196
Q

How do slats and outer flaps work with a loss of hydraulics?

A

Electric motors

197
Q

Which hydraulic system operates nose gear retraction?

A

Yellow

198
Q

Which hydraulic system operates the main gear and doors?

A

Green

199
Q

When do I get a GEAR NOT DOWN WARNING?

A

Below 750’

200
Q

Max landing gear speed?

A

250 knots (0.55 Mach)

201
Q

Max gear extension altitude?

A

21,000

202
Q

Max landing gear gravity extension speed?

A

220 knots

203
Q

What are the 4 braking modes?

A

Normal
Alternate
Emergency
Park brake

204
Q

Below _______ psi in the accumulator, I lose anti skid brakes

A

1600

205
Q

Below _______ psi in the accumulator, I lose all braking modes

A

1400

206
Q

Do I have anti skid in alternate braking?

A

Yes

207
Q

Do I have anti skid or auto brakes in emergency braking?

A

No

208
Q

How many brake applications do I get in emergency braking mode?

A

6

209
Q

What is the max brake temperature for takeoff?

A

300 degrees C

210
Q

When do basic auto brakes activate?

A

Ground spoilers extend and nosewheel on ground

OR

Five seconds after ground spoilers extend

211
Q

What deactivates auto brakes?

A

Ground spoilers retract
Auto thrust disconnect PB
Manual brakes
Park brake

212
Q

When does RTO braking engage?

A

Ground spoilers extend

Speed above 40 knots

213
Q

What speed does BTV braking slow you to?

A

10 knots

214
Q

What are the 2 variable speed modes?

A

Speed and Mach

215
Q

RAT min speed?

A

140 knots

A350 Systems (5 decks)

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