Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

HISTOLOGY > Disease Prevention > Flashcards

Disease Prevention Flashcards

1
Q

what is a care plan

A

blueprint or guide that coordinates all treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is the preliminary phase

A

emergency only review pg 1 still

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Steps in Learning-Ladder or Decision-Making Continuum

A
  1. Unawareness or Ignorance
  2. Awareness
  3. Self-Interest
  4. Involvement
  5. Action
    6.Habit or commitment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Learning-Ladder or Decision-Making Continuum:
1. Unawareness or Ignorance

A

client lacks information or has incorrect information about the problem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Learning-Ladder or Decision-Making Continuum:
2. Awareness

A

Client knows a problem exists but does not act on this knowledge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Learning-Ladder or Decision-Making Continuum:
3. Self- Interest

A

the client recognizes the problem and has an inclination towards change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Learning-Ladder or Decision-Making Continuum:
4. Involvement

A

Client attitude and feelings are affected, desire for additional knowledge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Learning-Ladder or Decision-Making Continuum:
5. Action

A

new behaviours directed toward solving the problem are instituted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Learning-Ladder or Decision-Making Continuum:
6.Habit or Commitment

A

new behaviours are practiced over a period, become a lifestyle change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Trans-theoretical model steps

A
  1. precontemplation
  2. contemplation
  3. preparation
  4. action
  5. maintenance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Trans-theoretical model:
1. Precontemplation

A

client has no intention of making a change within the next 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Trans-theoretical model
2. Contemplation

A

client intends to make a change within the next 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Trans-theoretical model:
3.Preparation

A

client intends to make a change within the next 30 days and has taken some behavioural steps In this decision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Trans-theoretical model:
4.Action

A

the client has practiced changed behaviours for less than 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Trans-theoretical model:
5. Maintenance

A

the client has practiced changed behaviours for more than 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

learning domain: cognitive

A

concerned with the knowledge outcomes and the client’s intellectual abilities and skills

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

learning domain: affectice

A

concerned with the clients attitudes, interests, appreciation and modes of interest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

learning domain: psychomotor

A

concerned with the client’s technical skills or motor skills

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Health belief model is based on

A

based on the concept that one’s beliefs direct behaviour. (what they believe happens)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Health belief model: susceptibility

A

clients must believe they are susceptible to a particular disease/condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Health belief model: severity

A

clients must believe that if they get the particular disease/condition, consequences will be severe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Health belief model: asymptomatic nature of disease

A

clients must believe that a disease may be present without their being fully aware of it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Health belief model: benefit of behaviour change

A

clients must believe that the effective means of preventing or controlling problem exists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

agent-host-environment theory

A

theory that disease is a result of an imbalance in one or all three factors:
- agent
-host
-environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Primary prevention

A

targets risk factors
involves techniques and agents to forestall onset and reverse the progress of the disease or
arrest the disease process before treatment becomes necessary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

primary prevention intention is

A

to reduce or eliminate risk factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

primary prevention examples

A

plaque removal, use of fluoride, sugar discipline, sealants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

secondary prevention

A

routine tx methods to prevent injury/disease once exposure to risk factors occurs. but still in early “preclinical” stage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

secondary prevention intention is

A

early identification [through screening and treatment]]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

secondary prevention examples

A

screening and deep scaling, restorations, periodontal debridement, endodontics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

teritiary prevention

A

involves using measures to replace lost tissues and rehabilitate patients so physical capabilities and/or mental attitudes are as near to normal as possible after secondary prevention has failed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

tertiary prevention intention is

A

to prevent sequelae (after effect of disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

tertiary prevention examples

A

prosthodontics, implants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

primordial prevention

A

targets social and economic policies and factors that impact health

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory

A

suggest that inner force drives a person to action. and only when a client’s lower needs are met will the client become concerned about the higher-level needs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Maslow’s hierarchy of needs classified

A
  1. self actualization
  2. esteem
  3. love and belonging
  4. safety needs
  5. physiological needs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

**Bass or Sulcular Method recommended for
also what about modified bass

A

periodontal patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

**Bass or Sulcular Method angulation

A

45 degree angle to the gingival 1/3 (margin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

***what does Bass or Sulcular Method do

A

disrupts biofilm, good gingival stimulation, effective control technique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

*Stillman’s method indicated for

A

gingival stimulation + recession

look at ur slides to add more tom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

how to do stillman’s method*

A

position bristles on attached gingiva, direct apically at 45 degree angle to the long axis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

*how to roll method

A

roll or sweep bristles, often used in combination with bass, charters, or stillman’s method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

*how to charters method

A

position bristles toward occlusal surfaces, move in short strokes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

*charters method is ideal for

A

orthodontics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

leonard method*

A

throw off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

fones methods*

A

circular brushing, children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

power assisted toothbrushes are indicated for: (6)

A

-children
-physically and mentally challenged
-elderly
-arthritic patients
-poorly motivated individuals
-implant care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

hard tissue variables are (4)

A

tooth position
root anatomy
status of restoration
prostheses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

client variables

A

level manual dexterity
adherence
skill development
personal preference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

TYPE 1 EMBRASURE

A

embrasures are occupied by interdental papillae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

TYPE 2 EMBRASURE

A

embrasures have slight to moderate recession of interdental papillae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

TYPE 3 EMBRASURE

A

embrasures have an extensive recession or complete loss of interdental papillae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

dental floss effectivenesss

A

floss is the primary recommendation but patient compliance Is low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

flossing may not be as effective for which patients ?

A

perio patients: recession, attachment loss, size of gingival embrasure space are limiting factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

floss indications for use

A

patient with type 1 embrasure space and excellent compliance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

floss holder recommended for

A

physically challenged,
*caregivers providing oral hygiene care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

floss holder indications

A

type 1 embrasure, pt is motivated but has dexterity challenges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

tufted dental floss use

A

under pontics of bridges or ortho appliances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

tufted dental floss indications

A

type 2 embrasure spaces, fixed bridges, distal surface of last tooth, proximal surface or widely spaced teeth
- under pontics of bridges or ortho apliances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

interdental brush indications

A

-type 2 or 3 embrasure spaces
-distal surface of last tooth
- exposed class 4 furcations
- embrasure spaces with exposed root concavities
-ortho appliances, prostheses, dental implants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

for interdental brushes be cautious because the

A

inner wire must be plastic coated to avoid scratching cementum or implant oxide layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

end tuft brush indicated for

A

type 3 embrasure spaces,
*hard to access areas: 3rd molars, crowded teeth
lingual of mandibular teeth
open proximal spaces
exposed furcation
fixed partial dentures, pontics, ortho

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

pipe cleaner indications for use

A

type 3 embrasure
exposed furcation areas that permit insertion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

*what is the best choice for exposed class 4 furcations

A

wooden toothpick in holder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

wooden toothpick in holder indications

A

exposed class 4 furcations*
interdental cleaning- concave proximal surfaces
biofilm removal at ginigival margins above ortho appliances
root concavities
type 2 or 3 embrasure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

wooden wedge shape

A

triangular , made from birch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

wooden wedge indication

A

interdental areas with exposed root surfaces (recession)
type 2 + 3 embrasure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

rubber tip stimulator indications

A

after perio surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

rubber tip simulator is used for

A

massaging the gingiva to improve blood circulation, increase keratinization and provide epithelial thickening
- can do plaque removal but not the primary use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

things responsible for halitosis

A

voilate sulfur compounds- family of gasses
hydrogen sulfide
methyl mercaptan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

tongue cleaning is indicated to remove

A

the bulk of voilate sulfur compounds forming bacteria and debris which accumulate mostly within filiform papillae and on the back of tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

90% of oral malodor orginates from

A

mouth and oropharynx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

10% of oral malodor originates from

A

systemic disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

contributing factors to oral malodor

A

oral dryness from alcohol, medications, caffeine, smoking
post nasal drip, nasal odor
perio infections, overnight denture wearing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

therapy for controlling oral malodor

A

tongue cleaning *
abstain from tobacco alcohol and caffeine
stimulate salivary flow by chewing gum, xylitol, antimicrobrial agents, sugar free sprays/breath fresheners/drops
nasal sprays or humidifiers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

dentifrice for caries

A

fluoride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

dentifrice for tartor control

A

pyrophosphates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

leading cause of dentinal hypersensitivity

A

pyrophosphates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

dentifrices for antihypersensitivity

A
  • potassium nitrate
  • strontium chloride
    -sodium citrate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

dentifrices for antibacterial

A

triclosan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

dentifrices for whitening

A

carbamide peroxide or hydrogen peroxide
(carbamide peroxide breaks down hydrogen peroxide and urea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

in essential oils, you should assume there is _____ unless otherwise stated

A

alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

considerations for essential oils? what is the most common

A

most common is burning sensation associated with alcohol content
slight extrinsic staining

84
Q

essential oils are contraindicated for

A

current or recovering alcoholics

85
Q

quaternary ammonium compounds: considerations/side effects

A

staining
burning sensations
increased supragingival calculus

86
Q

fluoride for pre-eruptive*

A

systemic

87
Q

fluoride for post eruptive

A

topical

88
Q

water is both topical and systemic

A
89
Q

dietary fluoride supplements are recommended for

A

for children who live in areas with inadequate water fluoridation

90
Q

dietary fluoride supplements are NOT recommended for

A

NOT recommended for pregnant women

91
Q

optimal level of water fluoridation

A

0.7ppm

92
Q

extrinsic (exogenous) stains are

A

removable

93
Q

intrinsic (endogenous) are

A

not removable

94
Q

where can extrinsic staining become intrinsic

A

in demineralized areas

95
Q

extrinsic staining causes

A

certain bacteria
other sources such as food, beverages, tobacco

96
Q

intrinsic staining causes (4)

A

pulpal necrosis, internal resorption, excessive systemic fluoride, use of tetracycline during tooth development

97
Q

clinical uses for chlorhexidine (5)

A
  • preprocedural rinse prior to aerosol generation
  • decrease supragingival plaque formation, inhibit gingivitis
  • short term adjunctive therapy following surgery
    -implants
    -patients with high risk for caries. suppress S.mutans
98
Q

what is the #1 side effect of chlorhexidine

A

stains teeth, tongue, restorations

99
Q

side effects/considerations of chlorhexidine

A

1- stains teeth, tongue, restorations

  • alters taste sensation (dysgeusia) including bitter taste
  • can irritate and burn oral mucosa
  • increase in supragingival calculus formation related to decreased bacteria action
  • inactivated by sodium lauryl sulfate
100
Q

for patients with cancer with oral mucositis you should

A

rinse with baking soda or saline solution followed by plain water rinse

101
Q

for plaque-induced gingivitis, slight-to- moderate chronic perio, NUG/NUP and periodontal maintenance you should recommened

A

chlorhexidine BID

102
Q

for patients with an alcohol conditions you should recommend

A

non-alcohol rinses

103
Q

alcohol rinses are contraindicated with patients who are being treated with Antabuse because

A

may induce nausea and vomiting

104
Q

fluoride is an essential nutrient in the formation of

A

teeth and bones

105
Q

is fluoride acquistion topical or systemic

A

both topical and systemic

106
Q

where is fluoride absorbed

A

GI tract (small intestine)

107
Q

fluoride is excreted where

A

in urine (kidneys)

108
Q

fluoride uptake depends on

A

the amount of fluoride ingested (note delivered) and the length of time of exposure

109
Q

what is the halo effect

A

refers to the unintentional addition of fluoride to a concentrated beverage or food that is from a water supply containing fluoride

110
Q

fluoride interferes with

A

bacterial metabolism

111
Q

in high concentration (professionally applied) fluoride is

A

bactericidal (destructive to bacteria

112
Q

bactericidal means

A

destructive to bacteria

113
Q

in low concentrations (at home applications) fluoride is

A

bacteriostatic (restricts growth or multiplication of bacteria)

114
Q

bacteriostatic

A

restricts growth or multiplication of bacteria

115
Q

do you need to polish teeth prior to fluoride application? why or why not?

A

DO NOT need to polish teeth because fluoride penetrates through pellicle and plaque

116
Q

what is more effective: professional fluoride 2x per year or daily at-home rinse?

A

daily at home rinse

117
Q

fluoride has substantivity which is

A

the ability to bind to the pellicle, plaque, and tooth surface and be released over a period of time with retention of potency

118
Q

fluorides aid in accelerated maturation:

A

fluoride continues to accumulate in the outermost portion of enamel

119
Q

pre eruptive systemic examples

A

water, supplements, food

120
Q

systemic fluoride circulates in _____ and is incorporating into developing ______

A

systemic fluoride circulates in __bloodstream___ and is incorporating into developing __enamel____

121
Q

what foods contain large amounts of fluoride

A

tea and fish contain large amounts of fluoride

122
Q

what is the most cost-effective and efficient fluoridation method

A

water fluoridation

123
Q

a larger community has _____ costs vs a smaller community has ______ costs

A

a larger community has LOWER costs vs a smaller community has HIGHER costs

124
Q

what does environmental protection do (2)

A

monitors concentration levels in drinking water
sets limits on bottled water

125
Q

what are compounds used to fluoridate water (3)

A

sodium fluoride
sodium silcofluoride
hydrofluorosilicic acid

126
Q

what is school fluoridation for

A

decreasing dental caries in student population

127
Q

school fluoridation is adding how much fluoride?

A

5ppm to a school’s water supply

128
Q

why is there an increase in ppm in school fluoridation

A

due to the fact that children consume only part of their water consumption through school hours

129
Q

ppm means

A

parts per million

130
Q

self- applied fluoride is topical or systemic

A

topical

131
Q

self applied fluoride provides additional forms of

A

frequent low concentration fluoride to promote remineralization (bacteriostatic effect)

132
Q

dentifrice range between what ppm

A

400-1500ppm

133
Q

rinse contain what %/ppm

A

0.05% NaF daily = 225ppm

134
Q

children under what age should not use fluoride rinses because

A

children under 6 years of age should not used fluoride rinses due to the risk of ingestion (LOOK AT PT AGE ON CASES)

135
Q

example of professionally applied fluoride ?

A

acidulated phosphate fluoride,
sodium fluoride and varnish
stannous fluoride

136
Q

acidulated phosphate fluoride is not ideal for what patients

A

bulimic, xerostomia, chemo

137
Q

acidulated phosphate fluoride pH level

A

3.0-3.5pH

138
Q

acidulated phosphate fluoride is contraindicated when? and why

A

in the presence of tooth- coloured restorations and porcelain and acid can etch the glass components and cause roughening. due to its pH

139
Q

acidulated phosphate fluoride side effect

A

can convert extrinsic stain to intrinsic

140
Q

acidulated phosphate fluoride application

A

tray or painting with gel like (thixotropic) or foam for 4 min application

141
Q

sodium fluoride is safest used for

A

tooth coloured restorations and porcelain restorations, veneers, crowns , bridges , acid erosion patients

142
Q

sodium fluoride is used in patients suffering from what

A

bullimic, chemotherapy and xerostomia

143
Q

sodium fluoride application

A

4 min application for maximum efficiency

144
Q

sodium fluoride aftercare

A

instruct pt not to smoke/drink for 20 mins

145
Q

sodium fluoride 0.05% daily rinse is used on

A

children OVER 6 years of age and adults with CARIES susceptibility

146
Q

sodium fluoride 0.2% weekly rinse is used for what program

A

school based programs

147
Q

sodium fluoride 1.19-2% gel in a tray used for

A

used for rampant caries and pt undergoing radiation therapy

148
Q

5% sodium fluoride varnish is used for

A

desensitizing exposed roots and caries prevention, remineralization

149
Q

fluoride is least effective where?

A

in pits and fissures

150
Q

less fluoride is required where? and why? how much

A

in warmer environments because people drink less water.
0.6ppm

151
Q

5% sodium fluoride varnish is recommend how many times a year `

A

2-4 times a year

152
Q

5% sodium fluoride varnish is most effective in what than other fluoride

A

caries reduction

153
Q

5% sodium fluoride varnish is retained for how long? retained for what?

A

it is retained for 24-48 hours for high substantivity for fluoride release into underlying enamel

154
Q

5% fluoride varnish is effect for use on infants and small children because

A

decreased risk of ingestion

155
Q

5% sodium fluoride varnish, is it for home use or no?

A

NOT for home use

156
Q

excellent candidate for 5% sodium fluoride varnish is

A

hypersensitivity patient due to recession

157
Q

corresponding with eruption of primary and permanent molars, fluoride can be applied how often? after that how often can it be applied

A

4x at once a week intervals, after that 6-month intervals

158
Q

sodium NaF concentration and pH

A

2%
pH- 7.0

159
Q

varnish concentration and pH

A

5%
pH-7

160
Q

Acidulated Phosphate fluoride concentration and pH

A

1.23%
pH-3.0-3.5

161
Q

stannous (SNF2) concentration and pH

A

8%
pH-2.1-2.3

162
Q

stannous fluoride an ___ solution and must be mixed ____

A

stannous fluoride is an UNSTABLE solution and must be mixed FRESH

163
Q

stannous fluoride has an unpleasant taste because

A

tin ion provides metallic taste

164
Q

stannous fluoride adverse reactions

A

sloughing of gingiva
stains demineralized areas and porcelain veneers, crowns,bridges ,margins of restorations,
brown stain

165
Q

why does stannous fluoride stain

A

reaction of fluoride tin ion in the compound

166
Q

stannous fluoride daily rinse concentration and use

A

0.63%
use for high susceptibility to root surface caries and dentinal hypersensitivity

167
Q

stannous fluoride brush-on gel concentration and use

A

use for high caries rate and sensitivity

168
Q

sodium fluoride application frequency

A

4x/year for ages 3,7,10,13
(corresponds with the eruption of primary and permanent molars )

169
Q

sodium fluoride varnish application frequency

A

3-6 months

170
Q

APF fluoride application frequency

A

1-2x/year

171
Q

stannous fluoride application frequency

A

1-2x/year

172
Q

emergency tx for acute fluoride toxicity

A
  1. induce vomiting using stimulation or syrup of ipecac
  2. ingest milk/limewater
    - vomiting should not. be induced with APF)
173
Q

fluoride mouthrinses are indicated for

A

moderate to high-risk caries
ortho or prosthetic appliances
xerostomia, recession, demineralization

174
Q

fluoride mouth rinses are used weekly in_____ and contain

A

fluoride mouth rinses are used weekly in school rinse programs without water fluoridation and contain 2%NaF

175
Q

school rinse programs uses ___mL for younger children and __mL for older children and swished for ___ seconds

A

school rinse programs uses _5__mL for younger children and 10mL for older children and swished for _60__ seconds

176
Q

most common school-based program in US

A

weekly rinse

177
Q

certainly lethal dose (CLD)

A

the amount of drug likely to cause death if not intercepted by antidotal therapy

178
Q

safely tolerated dose (STD)

A

1/4 of CLD

179
Q

toxicity symptoms begin within when and last when

A

begin within 30 mins and can last up to 24 hours

180
Q

fluoride toxicity symptoms

A

fluoride in the stomach reacts with hydrochloric acid to form hydrofluoric acid causing irritation to the stomach lining
nausea, vomiting, diarrhea
abdominal pain
increased salivation and thirst

181
Q

systemic involvements of fluoride toxicity result in

A

symptoms of hypocalcemia (calcium too low)
hyperreflexia (overactive body reflexes)
convulsions, paraesthesia (burning/prickling sensation)
cardiac failure or respiratory paralysis

182
Q

tx for <5mg/kg fluoride ingested*

A

administer fluoride-binding agent (anything with calcium)

183
Q

tx for >5mg/kg fluoride ingested (toxic dose)*

A
  1. emesis (induce vomiting)
  2. adminster fluoride binding agent
  3. seek medical treatment
184
Q

tx for >15mg/kg (lethal dose)*

A
  1. seek medical treatment
  2. induce vomit
  3. cardiac monitoring
185
Q

dentinal hypersensitivity occurs

A

on root-exposure areas, where recession may has occcured

186
Q

characteristics of hypersensitive dentin

A

open, large, and numerous tubules
thin/poorly calcified smear layer

187
Q

what is a smear layer

A

deposit of salivary proteins, debris from dentifrices, and other calcified matter

188
Q

a-delta fibers

A

myelinated fibers that can conduct stimuli rapidly and line the pulp

189
Q

c-delta fibers

A

unmyelinated fibers that can conduct stimulus more slowly

190
Q

who accounts for 80-90% of oral cancer

A

smokers (cigs, cigars, pipes, smokeless tobacco) and heavy alcohol drinkers

191
Q

tobacco users had approx ten-fold increased chance of developing what compared to non-smokers

A

squamous cell carcinoma

192
Q

oral virus

A

HBV
HIV
HPV
helicobacter pylori

193
Q

recent studies suggest oral cancer is related to

A

HPV-16

194
Q

oral cancer found primarily where

A

tongue , oropharyngeal area (throat, back third of tongue, soft palate, side and back walls of throat and tonsils

195
Q

oral cancer traditional risk factors

A

-prior oral cancer lesion
-older age
-frequent sun exposure
- low consumption of fruits and veggies

196
Q

tobacco smoking is associated with what (8)

A

-atherosclerosis
-Cardiovascular disease
-hypertension
-spontaneous abortion
-fetal death
-neonatal death
-SIDS
-COPD

197
Q

tobacco causes an increased risk of

A

perio

198
Q

tobacco quit aids (3)*

A

Buproprion/wellbutrin
Zyban
Chantix

199
Q

nictoine replacements (5)

A

transdermal patch
gum
nasal spray
inhaler
lozenge

200
Q

Tobacco cessation counselling 5 A’s?

A
  1. Ask
    2.Advise
  2. Assess
    4.Assist
  3. Arrange
201
Q

tobacco prognosis?

A
202
Q

black line stain has what kind of bacteria and where is it located

A

-gram-positive bacteria
typically located on cervical 1/3 of facial/linguals

203
Q

brown stain is associated with

A

poor OH
drinking dark-colored beverages: tea ,coffee, fruit juices and red wine

204
Q

dark-brown/black stain associate with

A

tobacco use

205
Q

orange stain bacteria +location
is associated with?

A

chromogenic bacteria in plaque
typically located on anterior teeth at the cervical 1/3
associated with poor OH

206
Q

Yellow-brown to Brown stain associated with

A

chlorhexidine use or stannous fluoride

207
Q

green stain can be embedded where? and is associated with

A

poor OH
chromogenic bacteria, fundi, gingival hemorrage
can be embedded into decalcified surface enamel

HISTOLOGY (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions