Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ACE Operations > Module 2 ACE Operations Part 139 > Flashcards

Module 2 ACE Operations Part 139 Flashcards

1
Q

What records need to be maintained for 12 Calendar months

A

Inspections of fueling agent trucks and fuel storage areas, self-inspections, accident or incidents occurring, airport conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What records need to be maintained for 24 calendar months

A

airport personnel training and ARFf and medical services, fueling agent training, training ground vehicle operators and personnel with access to the movement area and safety areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is included in initial and recurrent training?

A

airport familiarization, procedures for movement and safety areas, airport communications, duties required, any additional subject areas required as appropriate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the two purposes airport pavements are designed and constructed?

A

to support the critical loads imposed on them, and to produce a smooth, skid-resistant, and safe-riding surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Flexible Pavement

A

tends to compress under load. Reflects the deformation of subgrade and the subsequent layers to the surface. grass, dirt, gravel, and asphalt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Ridged Pavement

A

Resists compression under load. loads are distributed over a wide area of subgrade soil. normally uses Portland cement concrete

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

the two major elements most contributing to pavement deterioration are?

A

effects of weathering, Loads imposed by aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

PCN

A

Pavement classification number: the strength of pavement, in terms of the load-carrying capacity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

ACN

A

Airplane Classification Number: the effect of an individual airplane on different pavements using this number

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

LCN

A

Load Classification Number: for pavements with lower bearing strengths, the naming convention uses the following codes for gear designation purposes
S-Single
D-Dual
T-Trippel
Q-Quadruple

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Flexible Pavement Distresses

A

Cracking, Disintegration, Distortion, Loss of skid resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Ridged Pavement distresses

A

Cracking, Joint seal damage, Disintegration, Distortion, Loss of Skid resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Hot-mix asphalt (HMA)

A

a blend of asphalt binder and well graded, high quality aggregates. they are mixed and placed while hot. used in construction of new airfield pavment and patching and overlay of pavements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

tack coat

A

a light application of emulsified asphalt applied to an exiting pavement to provide a bond with an overlaying course like HMA. its used on the sides of an existing pavement that has been cut vertcally before application.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

crack filler material

A

hot-applied, for asphalt concrete an Portland cement concrete pavements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

concrete

A

it is a blend of Portland cement, fine and coarse aggregate, and water, with or without additives. used to repair a distressed Portland cement concrete pavement so it may be used at its original designed capacity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Skid resistance

A

the ability of a pavement to provide a surface with the desired friction characteristics under all weather conditions. it is affected by the polishing action of aircraft traffic and ground vehicles, contaminants on the pavement, fuel or other fluid spillage, rubber deposits, pavement texture, paint markings, and pavement abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Dynamic Hydroplaning

A

Occurs on any surface. A wave of water builds up in front of the rolling tire, which allows the tire to ride on a cushion of water and lose contact with he runway surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Viscous Hydroplaning

A

occurs form the lubricating effect that results when a thin film of oil, grease, dirt, rubber particles or a smooth runway combine with water or other liquid, resulting in slippery pavement. it prevents a tire from making positive contact with the pavement, and it results in skidding. it can occur at lower speeds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Rubber reversion hydroplaning

A

caused by the rubber heat buildup beneath a tire footprint due to friction. the heat causes the tire to revert to its uncured state and form a seal that traps high pressure superheated steam. primarily occurs during landing, and prevents a spin-up of the tire on touchdown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

how to treat surfaces to decrease hydroplaning

A

pavement grooving, a porous friction course, wire combing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Ways to remove rubber

A

high-pressure water spray, chemical solvents, high-velocity abrasive impact techniques, mechanical grinding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

4 ways friction evaluations may be conducted

A

Decelerometers (DEC): spot check instead of a continuous graphic record. a minimum of 3 break tests per part of the runway

Electronic: automatically computing a nd reporting friction averages for each one-third of the runway. also provides a printed record. taken at 20mph

Mechanical: considered as only a backup to the first two. they require longer runway down time and don’t give a printed copy

Continuous Friction Measuring Equipment (CFME): Recommended for pavement surfaces covered with contaminants, as they provide a continuous graphic record of the pavement surface friction characteristics. may be self-contained or towed, taken at 40 mph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A formal FOD management program adresses the following

A
  1. Prevention: awareness, training and education, maintenance
  2. Detection: operations, equipment
  3. Removal: equipment, operations
  4. Evaluation: data collection and analysis, continuous improvement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

FOD Equipment

A

Mechanical: power sweepers, vacuum systems, jet air blowers

non-mechanical: friction mat sweepers, magnetic bars, rumble strips

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

distinction between moment and non-movement areas at airports is based on two factors

A

operation control, and FAA design standards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

When may a displaced threshold be required

A

When an object obstructs the airspace needed for landing, when there are environmental considerations such as noise abatement, and when runway safety area dimensions or obstacle-free area lengths are needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is a major goal of taxiways

A

to maintain a smooth flow with a minimum number of points requiring a change in the airplane’s taxiing speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is a major goal of aprons

A

the ready accommodation of either a changing or static mix of aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

the main reasons for the use of artificial turf at airports are to…?

A

mitigate soil erosion, minimize maintenance and management of turf, enhance visual aesthetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Runway Safety Area

A

defined surface surrounding the runway prepared or suitable for reducing the risk of damage to airplanes in the event of an undershoot, overshoot, or excursion form the runway. Can also support snow removal and ARF under normal conditions. Centered on the runway centerline and varies 120-500 ft wide and 240-1000 long

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Taxiway Safety Area

A

defined surface alongside the taxiway prepared or suitable for reducing the risk of damage to an airplane unintentionally departing the taxiway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What should EMAS ability be

A

to stop the aircraft at the end of the runway at 70kts and up to 1500,00lbs in less than 300ft without major damage to the aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Obstacle Free Zone (OFZ)

A

the airspace below 150ft above the established airport elevation and along the runway and extended runway centerline that is required to be clear of all objects, except for frangible visual NAVAIDS that need to be in the OFZ because of their function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Runway OFZ (ROFZ)

A

the airspace above a surface centered on the runway centerline, it extends 200ft beyond each end of the runway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Inner-Transitional OFZ

A

the airspace above a surface centered on the extended runway centerline. It applies to runways with an approach lighting system. it begins 200 ft of the runaway threshold at the same elevation as the runway threshold and extends 200ft beyond the last light in the ALS. its width is the same as the ROFZ

37
Q

Precision OFZ

A

the volume of airspace above an area beginning at the runway threshold, at the threshold elevation, and centered on the extended runway centerline, 200ft long by 800 ft wide. It applies when there is a vertical guide approach, reported ceiling is below 250ft vis is less than 3/4SM (RVR less than 4,000), and an aircraft is on final within two miles of the threshold. When it is in effect, a wing of an aircraft holding may penetrate the POFZ, but not the fuselage or the tail

38
Q

Runway Object Free Area (ROFA)

A

centered on the runway provided to enhance the safety of aircraft operations by having the area free of objects, except for needed

39
Q

Runway Protection Zone (RPZ)

A

trapezoidal in shape and centered about the extended runway centerline, designated to enhance the protection of people and property on the ground. When the RPZ begins at a location other than 200ft beyond the end of a runway, two RPZs are required, a departure and approach

40
Q

Clearway

A

A defined rectangular area beyond the end of a runway cleared or suitable for use in lieu of runway to satisfy takeoff distance requirements. Established for runways having instrument departures and considered the climb-out requirements of turbine-powered aircraft. it increases the allowable aircraft operating takeoff weight without increasing runway length

41
Q

Stop way

A

A defined rectangular area beyond the end of a runway, centered on the extended runway centerline and at least as wide as the runway, prepared or suitable for use in lieu of the runway to support an airplane, with out causing structural damage to the airplane, during an aborted takeoff. is designated by the airport operator for use in decelerating an aircraft during an aborted takeoff

42
Q

Taxiway Object Free Area

A

centered on centerline, clearing standards prohibit service vehicle roads, parked airplanes, and above ground obstacles for air navigation or ground maneuvering purposes

43
Q

Takeoff run available (TORA)

A

runway length declared available and suitable for the ground run of an airplane taking off

44
Q

Takeoff Distance Available (TODA)

A

the TORA plush the length of any remaining runway or clearway beyond the far end of the TORA. Performance dependent for obstacle clearance

45
Q

Accelerate Stop Distance Available (ASDA)

A

runway plus stop way length declared available and suitable for the acceleration and deceleration of an airplane aborting a takeoff

46
Q

Landing Distance Available (LDA)

A

runway length. Same as TORA except in cases of a displaced threshold when LDA is calculated form the threshold

47
Q

3 Runway Classifications by Approach

A

Visual: can only occur visually with 1,000ft ceilings and 3SM vis
Non-Precision: only horizontal guidance. has an MDA an DP that are specified by the FAA to have runway in sight to continue
Precision: has both vertical and horizontal approach guidance, these are ILS PAR WAAS GBAS, lower DH

48
Q

What are the two proven techniques that help airport operators enhance surface markings?

A

Outlining and placing glass beads

49
Q

How thick are black boarders typically?

A

6 inches

50
Q

What types of glass beads are used, and when?

A

Type III: shall not be applied to red or pink paint
Type IV: when used they should be applied in higher-built materials due to their larger diameters

51
Q

What are Striated Markings and when can they be used?

A

they are used in areas subject to frost heave. they consist of painted stripes 4 to 8 inches in width that re separated by unpainted stripes. They have reduced visibility and can never be used on Category II or III runways. the mixing of striated and non-striated markings ins not permitted in a surface marking scheme

52
Q

Runway Centerline Marking dimensions

A

120ft in length, with 80ft gaps. 36in inches wide for precision approaches, 18in for non-precision runways, 12 inches for visual runways

53
Q

Runway Threshold markings

A

identifies the beginning point used for landings. consists of white longitudinal stripes, starts 20ft from the actual starting pint of the runway threshold

runway width….. 60ft wide= 4 stripes, 75ft wide= 6 stripes, 100ft=8 stripes, 150ft= 12 stripes, 200ft= 16 stripes

for standard runway widths, the stripes are 150 feet long and 5.75 feet wide, the outer edges of the near most par are 11.5ft apart

54
Q

Runway Aiming Point marking

A

generally begins 1020ft from the runway threshold. each marking is 150ft in length for runway at least 4,200ft long, and 100ft for shorter runways

check notebook for widths that correspond to runway size

55
Q

Touchdown Zone Marking

A

identifies the touchdown zone made along a precision runway in 500ft increments. symmetrically arranged pairs of rectangular bars in groups of on, two, and three along the centerline.

check notebook for dimensions and lateral spacing

900ft no marking zone from the midpoint of the runway back to the threshold. The point is to preserve an 1,800ft unmarked area so pilots do not confuse the surface marking during a landing with the surface marking for the other approach procedures

56
Q

runway threshold bar marking

A

10ft in width and extends between the runway edges, white in color, the beginning of usable surface for landing

57
Q

runway demarcation bar

A

delineates a runway with a displaced threshold from a blast pad, stop way, or an aligned taxiway. it is yellow, 3 ft wide, and extends across th entire width of the blast pad, stop way, or aligned taxiway

58
Q

chevron markings

A

identify pave blast pads, stopways, and MAS in relation to the end of the runway. yellow in color and recommended minimum length of 150ft to allow or at least two chevrons

59
Q

Runway Shoulder Marking

A

supplemental to further delineate a paved runway shoulder that pilots have mistaken or are likely to mistake as usable runway. yellow, located between the runway side stripe and the outer edge of the paved shoulder. 3ft in width spaced 100ft apart along the edge of the runway, slanted at a 45 degree angle

60
Q

Hold Position Markings

A

purpose is to prevent aircraft and vehicles from entering into critical areas associated with runways and navaids. view notebook for cases and patterns

61
Q

What are the dimensions of taxiway centerlines

A

6in or 12inches in areas of low visibility. yellow

62
Q

marking for taxiway

A

for a taxiway that intersects a runway at a runway end …
displaced threshold: the taxiway centerline marking continues onto the displaced area of the runway and extends parallel to the displaced threshold marking 200ft beyond the point of tangency or terminates at the point of contact with the displaced threshold bar.
low visibility taxi operations: the taxiway centerline marking continues across all runway markings with the exception of the runway designation and the threshold marking

for a taxiway that intersects a runway at any other location, the taxiway centerline curves onto the runway and extends parallel to the runway centerline for 200ft beyond the point of tangency with the runway centerline or terminates at the point of contact with the displaced threshold bar, whichever is less

63
Q

enhanced taxiway centerline marking

A

to alert pilots they are coming up to a runway holding position marking. enhanced for 150ft prior to the runway. the boarder on the outside of the dashes can be 3 or 6in wide

64
Q

continuous taxiway edge marking

A

yellow double line, at least six inches wide and spaced 6in apart

65
Q

dashed taxiway edge marking

A

used when there is an operational need (think terminal ramp). 6in in width spaced 6in apart. the lines are 15ft long with 25ft gaps

66
Q

surface painted holding position signs

A

designed to alert pilots. for taxiway widths greater than 35ft the inscription is 12 feet. for 35 or less check the ACs. this is only mandatory for part 139 airports. the sign is on the left for design group 3-7 and centered on the line for design group 1A, 1B, and 2

for taxiway entrances with complex geometry that requires a lengthy inscription that will not fit properly, the inscription height should be reduced. the lowest allowable height for TDGs 3-7 is 6ft. for 1a, 1b, and 2 the standard width is 3ft

67
Q

Surface painted taxiway direction signs

A

provide extra guidance at an intersection. the edge of the sign must be 3ft from the edge of the taxiway centerline and is located on the side of the taxiway that the aircraft will travel (Juliet)

68
Q

surface painted taxiway location signs

A

used when deemed necessary. put on the right side of the taxiway, 3ft from the edge, yellow inscription is 12ft height, minimum of 9ft. should not be painted on runways

69
Q

used when deemed necessary. put on the right side of the taxiway, 3ft from the edge, yellow inscription is 12ft height, minimum of 9ft. should not be painted on runways

A

used to assist pilots in location their positions along large ramps. useful for identifying entrances and exits along terminal complexes. also called the ramp spot. located seven feet from a taxiway centerline to the gate they will travel to. yellow with black inscription. eight foot diameter yellow circle with a six-in outer ring

70
Q

taxiway shoulder marking

A

yellow, and perpendicular from the centerline

71
Q

geographic position marking

A

assists pilots with confirming holding points or reporting their location while taxing during low-visibility operations. markings are on the left, co-located with the intermediate holding position marking for taxiway/intersection and a clearance bar consisting of three yellow lights. each marking is a seven-ft diameter pink circle

72
Q

Ramp control marking

A

used to facilitate the local ramp tower or FAA ATC in the movement of aircraft and vehicles to their designated areas of ramps, aprons, ect. it is a yellow marking with black inscription, with the inscription being at least 4ft high. they may be circular or triangular shaped

73
Q

VOR marking

A

should be more than 1/2 miles from the VOR on a paved surface. marking is a 10ft diameter circle with a yellow arrow pointing at the VOR

74
Q

permanently closed runways/taxiway markings

A

solid yellow “x’ markings should be painted at each ends of the runway and 1,000ft intervals

75
Q

temporarily closed runway markings

A

raised lighted “x” at the end of each runway

76
Q

boundary sign markings

A

look like a ladder, used for RSA/OFZ, ILS critical area

77
Q

methods of distance remaining signs

A

preferred: double sided sign, one side of runways
alternate 1: single-faced installed on both sides of the runways, distance can be more accurately represented
alternate 2: double faced signs on both sides of the runways

78
Q

one-half distance remaining sign

A

only used in the take-off direction on unpaved runways less than 3,000ft in length where both ends of the runway are not readily visible. the sign identifies the point on the runway where one-half the takeoff distance remains

79
Q

incandescent lighting

A

the oldest lamp type. longevity based on temp generated. the higher the lumen, the shorter the life span

80
Q

tungsten-halogen lighting

A

variation of incandescing lamps. commonly called “quartz lamps”. produce a hotter filament, and the quartz lens is better able to withstand the heat. longer lift, but very sensitive to temperature variation and lens contamination

81
Q

florescent lighting

A

generated through low pressure gas discharge. use for lighting of airfield signs. used only at airports where low ambient temperatures are not routinely experienced.

82
Q

Light emitting diode (LED)

A

brighter emanating light, has a longer lamp lift, and has lower power consumption. they do not generate heat to melt snow or ice accumulation. they may present a different color in perceived color or brightness than equivalent glass or plastic filtered incandescent fixtures. They should not be interspersed with incandescent lights

83
Q

airfield lighting catagories

A

runway and taxiway edge lighting systems, runway centerline and touchdown lighting systems, taxiway lighting systems, land and hold short lighting systems, miscellaneous airfield aids, approach lighting

84
Q

runway lighting steps and wattage

A

steps 1-3. intensity of 15, 25, and 40 watts
steps 1-5 range of 15-200 watts. steps 4 and 5 are reserved for IFR conditions

85
Q

low intensity runway lights (LIRL)

A

installed on visual runways (at small airports)

86
Q

medium intensity runway lights (MIRL)

A

installed on visual runways or non-precision instrument runways

87
Q

high intensity runway lights (HIRL)

A

installed on precision instrument runways

88
Q

Medium intensity taxiway lights (MITL)

A

installed on taxiways and aprons at airports where runway lighting systems are installed

ACE Operations (21 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions