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Final State Exam > Multiple Questions ..state Exam > Flashcards

Multiple Questions ..state Exam Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Human vital activity is:
    a. The state of the body
    b. A combination of processes in the body and environment for meeting biological and social
    needs
    c. The state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being of a person
    d. Optimal functioning of organs and tissues in the human body
    e. A mode of existence of protein bodies
A

CORRECT ANSWER: b(b. A combination of processes in the body and environment for meeting biological and social needs

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2
Q
  1. Health is:
    a. The state of the body
    b. Assessment of physical development
    c. A moral criterion
    d. A marker of material well-being
    e. A result of the vital activity
A

CORRECT ANSWER: a( The state of the body)

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3
Q

A disease is:
a. The state of the body
b. A diagnosis
c. An individual peculiarity
d. A health indicator
e. A moral criterion

A

CORRECT ANSWER: d (A health indicator)

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4
Q
  1. Adaptation of a person is:
    a. Absence of danger
    b. Non-fatal condition
    c. The state of protecting vital activity from internal factors
    d. Adjustment of the organism to the environment
    e. The state of being sick
A

CORRECT ANSWER: d (Adjustment of the organism to the environment

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5
Q

Which of the following boosts body resistance to environmental exposure?
a. Sensible diet
b. Disinfection
c. Disinsection
d. Deactivation
e. Neutralization

A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

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6
Q
  1. A center of bacteriological contamination is the area with people which was affected by:
    a. Chemical weapon
    b. Bacteriological weapon
    c. Nuclear weapon
    d. Geophysical weapon
    e. Conventional weapon
A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

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7
Q
  1. The term “ conventional weapon” implies:
    a. Biological (bacteriological) weapon
    b. Nuclear weapon
    c. Weapon of mass destruction
    d. Fire and shock weapons of artillery, aviation, and engineering ammunition
    e. Chemical weapon
A

CORRECT ANSWER: d

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8
Q
  1. Which of the following is classification of armed conflicts?
    a. Major war, small war, large-scale war
    b. Armed conflict, localized war, regional war, large-scale war
    c. Civil war, guerrilla war, national war
    d. Borderline war, interstate conflict, small war
    e. Regional war, large-scale war, armed conflict
A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

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9
Q
  1. Who administers control over the Armed Forces of the Russian Federation?
    a. Commander-in-Chief of the Ground Forces
    b. Commander-in-Chief of the Air Forces
    c. Minister of Defense of the Russian Federation via the Ministry of Defense and the General
    Staff of the Armed Forces of the Russian Federation
    d. Chief of the General Staff of the Armed Forces of the Russian Federation 8
    e. Commander-in-Chief of the Navy
A

CORRECT ANSWER: c

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10
Q
  1. Types of the armed forces of the Russian Federation include:
    a. Ground forces, air forces, navy
    b. Special forces, rear, strategic army corps
    c. Air landing troops, special forces, rear
    d. Space forces, construction forces, missile troops
    e. Missile strategic troops, navy, rear
A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

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11
Q
  1. Which of the following is a unit of disaster medicine service at the local level?
    a. Medical aid post
    b. Ambulance team
    c. Voluntary medical aid team
    d. Specialized medical aid team
    e. Qualified medical care team
A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

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12
Q
  1. Which of the following is a local agency for preventing and eliminating the consequences of emergencies?
    a. Commission for civil defense, emergencies, and disaster recovery
    b. Department for civil defense, emergencies, and disaster recovery
    c. General civil defense units
    d. Civil defense units
    e. Fire-fighting service
A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

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13
Q
  1. Ambulance teams in the emergency area are working:
    a. In the affected area
    b. In a medical institution
    c. At a temporary base for the injured
    d. At the emergency room
    e. During the stages of medical evacuation
A

CORRECT ANSWER: c

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14
Q
  1. Disaster medicine units arriving in the disaster area to strengthen the ambulance are:
    a. Emergency teams
    b. Specialized medical aid teams
    c. Mobile medical complexes for disaster medicine
    d. Medical institutions of the Ministry of Healthcare
    e. Qualified medical care teams
A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

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15
Q
  1. Triage is a method of distributing the injured based on:
    a. Homogeneous treatment, preventive and evacuation measures
    b. The need for emergency medical care
    c. Division of the injured into “people who can walk themselves” and “people who should be carried on stretchers”
    d. Age
    e. Sex
A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

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16
Q
  1. Which of the following is used for disinfection of water in areas with emergency situations?
    a. Cystamine
    b. Etaperazin
    c. Pantocidum
    d. Perhydrol
    e. Aspirin
A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

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17
Q
  1. In peacetime, the treatment system which is used to provide medical care in emergencies is:
    a. One-stage
    b. Two-stage
    c. Three-stage
    d. Four-stage
    e. Multi-stage
A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

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18
Q
  1. The optimal timing to provide the first aid in emergencies is:
    a. 30 minutes
    b. 1 hour
    c. 2 hours
    d. 4 hours
    e. 6 hours
A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

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19
Q
  1. Which types of medical care are provided at the pre-hospital stage in case of disasters?
    a. Any type of care that can be used
    b. First aid, first medical care, qualified care
    c. First aid, pre-hospital care, specialized care
    d. First aid, pre-hospital care, first medical care
    e. First aid, specialized care, professional medical care
A

CORRECT ANSWER: d

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20
Q
  1. Which of the following is a method of medical care provision with massive admission of the injured?
    a. Rapid removal from the disaster area
    b. Provision of emergency care
    c. Well-organized evacuation
    d. Triage
    e. Emergency evacuation
A

CORRECT ANSWER: d

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21
Q
  1. Which of the following radionuclides determines the radiological situation in the first months after the accident?
    a. Cesium 137
    b. Iodine 131
    c. Barium 140
    d. Strontium 90
    e. Calcium 121
A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

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22
Q
  1. Which of the following is used to protect the thyroid gland during accidents at radiation hazardous facilities?
    a. Aprophenum
    b. Promedol
    c. Etaperazin
    d. Potassium iodide
    e. Cystamine
A

CORRECT ANSWER: d

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23
Q
  1. Which of the following replaces potassium iodide in radiological accidents?
    a. 5% iodine tincture
    b. 0.5% solution of chlorhexidine bigluconate
    c. 70% ethyl alcohol
    d. 96% ethyl alcohol
    e. Targin
A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

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24
Q
  1. Standard individual protective equipment in emergency situations includes:
    a. A double gauze mask, insulating gas mask, and chemical protection bag
    b. Individual first aid kit, individual dressing and anti-chemical kits
    c. Chemical protection suit, double gauze mask, and individual first aid kit
    d. Air-purifying respirator, individual first aid kit, and anti-chemical kit e. Field protective kit, personal first aid kit, and anti-chemical kit
A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

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25
Q
  1. Which of the following is intended for collective protection?
    a. Hospitals
    b. Civil defense units
    c. Shelters and hideouts
    d. Air-purifying respirators
    e. Public facilities
A

CORRECT ANSWER: c

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26
Q
  1. First aid care for severe acute radiation sickness includes:
    a. Antiemetic drugs
    b. Sedatives
    c. Cardiovascular drugs
    d. Antibiotics
    e. Pain relievers
A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

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27
Q
  1. Methods for temporary bleeding arrest include:
    a. Vessel ligation in a wound
    b. Stitching a wound
    c. Applying a hemostatic clamp
    d. Applying a splint
    e. Forced limb flexion
A

CORRECT ANSWER: e

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28
Q
  1. In the focus of ammonia contamination, to protect the respiratory system, a mask should be worn moistened with:
    a. Ethyl alcohol
    b. 5% acetic acid solution
    c. 2% baking soda solution
    d. 2% Novocaine solution
    e. Drinking water
A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

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29
Q
  1. Diseases that most complicate rescue operations in the emergency area are:
    a. Particularly dangerous infections
    b. Colds
    c. Cardiovascular diseases
    d. Skin and subcutaneous tissue lesions
    e. Musculoskeletal system diseases
A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

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30
Q
  1. Which of the following plays a crucial role in rescuing victims in emergencies?
    a. Medical service equipment
    b. Nature of emergency
    c. Time factor
    d. Warning of the population
    e. Availability of mechanical aids
A

CORRECT ANSWER: с

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31
Q
  1. Who is the author of the statement: “I will not give any woman a pessary to cause abortion”?
    a. Galen
    b. Ibn Sina
    c. Maimonides
    d. Hippocrates
    e. Paracelsus
A

CORRECT ANSWER: d

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32
Q
  1. Which of the following is the first ever international code of rules for human experimentation?

a. Nuremberg Code
b. Helsinki Declaration
c. WMA Declaration of Sydney
d. Lisbon Declaration
e. Council of Europe Convention

A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

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33
Q
  1. An ethically acceptable type of harm that may arise in relations between a medical worker and a patient is:

a. Harm caused by unqualified, unprofessional actions of a doctor or a nurse
b. Harm caused by a failure to provide medical care or its non-performance
c. Harm caused by negligence or evil intention, for example, by sordid motives
d. Harm caused by actions which are reasonably required in a certain situation (for example, presence of pain or inconvenience during treatment)

e. Moral harm

A

CORRECT ANSWER: d

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34
Q
  1. The main difference between law and morality is that:
    a. Law regulates at the level of individual moral consciousness and public opinion
    b. Law is implemented via legal acts, governmental decrees, and court orders through direct or
    indirect coercion.
    c. Law implies free and voluntary compliance with requirements
    d. Law comprises a system of prohibitions, ideals, and requirements accepted and shared in the society
    e. Law is a form of personal self-identification.
A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

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35
Q
  1. The golden rule of morality is:
    a. You should accustom yourself to virtuous deeds and actions, and not to words about virtue
    b. A human personality is infinite: this is a postulate of morality
    c. Treat others in a way you would like them to treat you
    d. The good can be advocated only through good deeds
    e. The man should be considered as a goal, and not as a means of solving any tasks
A

CORRECT ANSWER: с

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36
Q
  1. Who is not able to give an informed consent?
    a. Foreign citizens
    b. Persons of female sex
    c. Persons under 21 years
    d. Persons with severe diseases that impair and affect consciousness
    e. Persons under 18 years
A

CORRECT ANSWER: d

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37
Q
  1. A method of genetic engineering that is aimed at replicating a human or animal genotype and creating and distributing genetic copies of humans and animals through asexual reproduction or other manipulations with genetic material is called:
    a. Cloning
    b. Positive eugenics
    c. Negative eugenics
    d. Intervention in the human genome
    e. Gene therapy
A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

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38
Q
  1. A patient (participant of a study) may refuse from taking part in an experiment according to ethical requirements:
    a. Before the experiment (before signing the agreement on taking part in the experiment)
    b. During the experiment, if an advance payment for taking part in the experiment has not been
    received
    c. During the experiment, if the patient (participant of the study) has returned the advance payment
    d. At the final stage of the experiment, if the findings of the experiment have already been pre- determined
    e. At any stage of the experiment, regardless of the advance payment.
A

CORRECT ANSWER: е

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39
Q
  1. Which of the provisions belongs to deontology?
    13

a. The task of achieving the common good is more important than interests of an individual person
b. A deed is considered morally justified to an extent to which it leads to maximization of the common good
c. A motive of an action should be performing an obligation
d. Benefit is the basis of morality and a criterion of human deeds
e. Righteous life of a person is associated with self-restriction.

A

CORRECT ANSWER: с

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40
Q
  1. Which principle of bioethics appeared in the last third of the XX century?
    a. Principle of justice
    b. Principle of respect to patient’s autonomy
    c. Principle of politeness
    d. Principle of benevolence
    e. ‘Do no harm’ principle
A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

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41
Q
  1. A type of organ harvesting from the corpse for transplantation which is called “presumed refusal” implies:
    a. Medical workers can harvest organs from a corpse for transplantation, since the corpse is state property
    b. If, while alive, the patient did not refuse from organ harvesting and neither did their relatives, it is assumed that consent was given to this procedure
    c. If consent (clearly expressed by the patient while alive) was not given to organ harvesting for transplantation, patient’s non-consent to this procedure is assumed
    d. If relatives of the deceased do not give consent to organ harvesting
    e. If relatives of the deceased give consent to organ harvesting
A

CORRECT ANSWER: с

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42
Q
  1. Which of the following is a definition of euthanasia?
    a. Any action or failure to act which in its nature or intention results in death, which aim is eliminating pain and suffering
    b. Assisted suicide of a terminally ill patient
    c. Ending a life of unnecessary people
    d. Medical and socio-psychological care for dying patients
    e. Relieving suffering of dying patients
A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

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43
Q
  1. Xenotransplantation is:
    a. Transplantation of tissues and organs from an embryo
    b. Transplantation of tissues and organs from a corpse
    c. Transplantation of tissues and organs from non-human animals
    d. Transplantation of tissues and organs from a living donor who is a recipient’s relative
    e. Transplantation of tissues and organs from a living donor who is not a recipient’s relative
A

CORRECT ANSWER: с

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44
Q
  1. The most ancient and conventional model of doctor-patient interaction which is compared to parent-child interaction is called:
    a. Advisory
    b. Collegial
    c. Technical
    D. Paternalistic
    E. Interpretative
A

CORRECT ANSWER: d

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45
Q
  1. Intervention in person’s health may be carried out on the basis of:
    a. A voluntary and informed patient’s consent
    b. Medical indications
    c. Rare clinical presentation of the disease and its educational value
    d. A request from patient’s relatives
    e. Making profit
A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

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46
Q
  1. “Voluntary compliance of a patient with a treatment course or a therapeutic procedure after receiving adequate information from the doctor” is a definition of:
    a. Competent patient
    b. Patient’s autonomy
    c. Rule of honesty
    d. Rule of confidentiality
    e. Informed consent
A

CORRECT ANSWER: е

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47
Q
  1. “The information about a patient that a doctor receives cannot be conveyed to third parties without a given consent from this patient” is a definition of:
    a. Rule of honesty
    b. Rule of confidentiality
    c. Rule of politeness
    d. Principle of justice
    e.Principle of benevolence
A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

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48
Q
  1. According to the Russian legislation, a mother of a child born following IVF with a donor egg, is:
    a. A delivered woman is recognized as a mother only if the donor egg belongs to her
    b. A woman who donated the egg is recognized as a mother along with a woman who delivered
    the baby
    c. A mother is a woman who delivered the baby (and who signed an informed consent to implantation of the embryo)
    d. A mother is considered a female customer (social mother)
    e. A mother is considered a woman who donated the womb.
A

CORRECT ANSWER: с

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49
Q
  1. Which of the following is the characteristic of active voluntary euthanasia?
    a. At patient’s request, the doctor assists in their dying by providing the patient with means and information necessary for that
    b. The doctor administers lethal dose of a drug at the request of the competent patient
    c. The doctor administers lethal dose of a drug without the knowledge or consent of the patient
    d. The doctor stops life-sustaining treatment at the request of patient’s relatives, without the knowledge or consent of the patient
    e. The doctor stops life-sustaining treatment at the request of the competent patient
A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

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50
Q
  1. Palliative care is
    a. Forced medical care
    b. Unconventional methods of treatment, prevention, and health improvement based on the principles of alternative medicine
    c. Life-sustaining treatment (mechanical ventilation, artificial circulation, parenteral nutrition)
    d. Medical care that provides temporary relief from the symptoms, but does not cure the disease
    e. Medical care provided to the patient immediately after surgery
A

CORRECT ANSWER: d

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51
Q
  1. Hospice is a facility that
    a. Provides care for dying patients
    b. Provides care for cancer patients
    c. Provides care for socially disadvantaged patients
    d. Provides home care for patients
    e. Provides care for elderly patients
A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

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52
Q
  1. What is the attitude to euthanasia according to the Russian legislation?
    a. Active euthanasia is forbidden, passive euthanasia is allowed with a written consent from the patient
    b. Only active euthanasia is forbidden
    c. Only passive euthanasia is forbidden
    d. Both active and passive euthanasia are allowed
    e. Both active and passive euthanasia are forbidden
A

CORRECT ANSWER: е

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53
Q
  1. A new criterion of death according to WMA Declaration of Sydney is:
    a. Irreversible loss of function of the cerebral cortex
    b. Irreversible loss of function of the cerebral hemispheres
    c. Irreversible loss of all functions of the brain, including the brain stem and first cervical
    segments
    d. Long-term absence of unassisted breathing and heartbeat
    e. Loss of consciousness for three months
A

CORRECT ANSWER: с

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54
Q
  1. Which provision describes liberal opinion (“in favor of”) on induced abortions?
    a. An embryo is a potential human, that is why it has undeniable rights and dignity
    b. A woman must not be made to carry an undesired fetus, otherwise the principle of patient’s
    autonomy is violated
    c. Abortion is killing of an innocent human being
    d. Dangerous and inevitable consequences of abortion include impairment of physical and mental health of a woman
    e. An embryo has a specific ontological and moral status and is not a part of a mother’s organism
A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

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55
Q
  1. Which of the statements about surrogacy can be related to conservative viewpoint (“against”)? a. For a family which cannot have a child due to mother’s inability to conceive or carry a fetus, it is the only way to have a baby that will be genetically native for the father
    b. Surrogacy is not commercialization of childbearing, but a deeply humane act of love and cooperation
    c. In surrogacy, children resemble goods; the rich may hire women for carrying their offspring
    d. In fact surrogacy does not differ much from adoption, since parents get the desired baby
    e. Not only does surrogacy afflict no harm to children, but it is also the only way of confirming
    the value of family life for childless couples
A

CORRECT ANSWER: с

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56
Q
  1. Which of the following is a social indication for induced abortion (up to 22 weeks of pregnancy) in the Russian Federation?
    a. Death of the husband during pregnancy
    b. I-II disability group of the husband
    c. Imprisonment of the woman
    d. Family with many children (more than 3 children)
    e. Pregnancy following a rape
A

CORRECT ANSWER: е

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57
Q
  1. Who is the mother of a child born following surrogacy, according to the Family Code of the Russian Federation (in case of a controversial situation)?
    a. A woman who gave birth to the child
    b. A woman whose egg was used
    c. Depends on how the contract was compiled
    d. The decision is made by the court in every certain case depending on the circumstances
    e. The decision is made by the commission at the medical facility where in vitro fertilization was
    carried out, chaired by the chief physician
A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

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58
Q
  1. In the Russian Federation, clinical trials of drugs can be carried out:
    a. On minors who do not have parents
    b. On pregnant women
    c. On individuals with mental disorders and the ones recognized as disabled in accordance with
    the procedure established by the law of the Russian Federation “On psychiatric care and guarantees of the rights of citizens during its provision”
    d. On military servicemen
    e. On persons serving sentences in prison as well as on persons kept in custody in pre-trial detention centers
A

CORRECT ANSWER: с

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59
Q
  1. It is possible to communicate information about the child constituting a medical secret to his/her parents or legal representative (without the consent of the patient):
    a. When the child is under 14 years
    b. When the child is under 15 years
    c. When the child is under 16 years
    d. When the child is under 18 years
    e. Depends on the level of development of the child
A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

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60
Q
  1. According to the Declaration of Helsinki, a non-therapeutic experiment is:
    a. A method of research conducted not by a therapist, but by any other specialist
    b. Based on the practice of working with patients
    c. Research without protocol
    d. Medical research aimed at developing medical science and drug testing. It is carried out more often on healthy people.
    e. Research aimed at healing the sick
A

CORRECT ANSWER: d

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61
Q
  1. When did the ancient Russian state of Kievan Rus appear?
    a. IX century
    b. XV century
    c. XVII century
    d. XVIII century
    e. XIX century
A

CORRECT ASNWER: a

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62
Q
  1. Who is the ruler of Kievan Rus, under whom Christianity was adopted?
    a. Yaroslav the Wise
    b. Saint Vladimir
    c. Svyatoslav Igorevich
    d. Igor the Old
    e. Oleg the Prophet
A

CORRECT ASNWER: b

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63
Q
  1. How was the first set of laws of Kievan Rus called?
    a. Sobornoye Ulozheniye (Council Code)
    b. Sudebnik (Code of Laws)
    c. Russkaya Pravda (Rus’ Justice)
    d. Table of Ranks
    e. Constitution
A

CORRECT ASNWER: c

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64
Q
  1. The names of Theophanes the Greek, Andrey Rublev, and Dionysius are associated with the development of:
    a. Book printing
    b. Architecture
    c. Icon painting
    d. Chronicle writing
    e. Music
A

CORRECT ASNWER: c

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65
Q
  1. Who won in the Battle on the Ice?
    a. Dmitry Donskoy
    b. Peter I
    c. Svyatoslav Igorevich
    d. Alexander Nevsky
    e. Ivan the Terrible
A

CORRECT ASNWER: d

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66
Q
  1. Who led the Tatar-Mongol invasion of the Russian lands in the XIII century?
    A. Genghis Khan
    B. Batu Khan
    C. Tamerlane
    D. Tokhtamysh
    E. Uzbek Khan
A

CORRECT ASNWER: b

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67
Q

67.Where was the first big victory of the Russian troops over the main military forces of the Golden Horde?
a. at the Borodino Field
b. at the Neva River
c. at the Chudskkoye Lake
d. at the Kulikovo Field
E. near Poltava

A

CORRECT ASNWER: d

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68
Q
  1. Who is the hero of old Russian heroic poems?
    a. Stepan Razin
    b. Grigory Rasputin
    c. Ilya Muromets
    d. Emelyan Pugachev
    e. Boris Godunov
A

CORRECT ASNWER: c

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69
Q
  1. The time of peasants’ moving from one owner to another, according to the Code of Laws of 1497, was called

a. Zapovedniye Leta (Forbidden Years)
b. St.George’s Day
c. Urochniye Leta (Fixed Years)
d. Otkhodnichestvo (Seasonal Work)
e. Mesyachina (Monthly payment in kind

A

CORRECT ASNWER: b

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70
Q
  1. Which of these Russian rulers was the first to receive the title of Tsar?
    a. Yaroslav the Wise
    b. Ivan the Terrible
    c. Mikhail Romanov
    d. Peter I
    e. Boris Godunov
A

CORRECT ASNWER: b

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71
Q
  1. After which event did the dependence of the Russian lands on the Golden Horde end?
    a. Battle on the Ice
    b. Standing on the Ugra River
    c. Siege of Azov
    d. Battle of the Nations
    e. Battle of Poltava
A

CORRECT ASNWER: b

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72
Q
  1. What was the result of the foreign policy of Ivan the Terrible? a. Annexation of Crimea to Russia
    b. Annexation of Left-bank Ukraine to Russia
    c. Annexation of the Kazan and Astrakhan khanates to Russia
    d. Annexation of Poland to Russia
    e. Russia’s acquisition of the access to the Baltic Sea
A

CORRECT ASNWER: c

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73
Q
  1. A system of measures taken by Ivan the Terrible for reinforcement of the autocratic power is called:
    a. Mestnichestvo (Order of precedence)
    b. Oprichnina
    c. Zemshchina
    d. Khovanshchina
    e. Nestyazhatelstvo (Non-possessors’ movement)
A

CORRECT ASNWER: b

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74
Q
  1. Which of the following rulers belongs to the Time of Troubles?
    a. Ivan the Terrible
    b. Dmitry Donskoy
    c. Boris Godunov
    d. Elizaveta Petrovna
    e. Princess Olga
A

CORRECT ASNWER: c

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75
Q

NWER: c
75. Enthronement of the Romanov dynasty belongs to:
a. The XV century
b. The XVI century
c. The XVII century
d. The XVIII century
e. The XIX century

A

CORRECT ASNWER: c

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76
Q
  1. The Kunstkamera founded by Peter I is:
    a. A museum of natural sciences
    b. A theatre
    c. A picture gallery
    d. An orthodox church
    e. A botanic garden
A

CORRECT ASNWER: a

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77
Q
  1. Under whose reign did Russia become the empire?
    a. Ivan the Terrible
    b. Peter I
    c. Alexander II
    d. Nicholas II
    e. Stalin
A

CORRECT ASNWER: b

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78
Q
  1. Whose reign belongs to the epoch of coups?
    a. Peter I
    b. Paul I
    c. Alexander I
    d. Anna Ioannovna
    e. Princess Olga
A

CORRECT ASNWER: d

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79
Q
  1. Who initiated the foundation of Moscow University?
    a. Dashkova
    b. Derzhavin
    c. Tatishchev
    d. Novikov
    e. Lomonosov
A

CORRECT ASNWER: e

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80
Q
  1. Which event belongs to the reign of Alexander I?
    a. World War I
    b. Civil War
    c. Patriotic War of 1812
    d. Great Northern War
    e. Great Crimean War
A

CORRECT ASNWER: c

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81
Q
  1. Who was a contemporary of Nicholas I?
    a. Pushkin
    b. Tolstoy
    c. Chekhov
    d. Radishchev
    e. Bulgakov
A

CORRECT ASNWER: a

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82
Q
  1. When was the serfdom abolished?
    a. 1861
    b. 1865
    c. 1961
    d. 1855
    e. 1888
A

CORRECT ASNWER: a

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83
Q
  1. Semyonov-Tyan-Shansky and Przhevalsky were famous:
    a. Mathematicians
    b. Travelers
    c. Chemists
    d. Physicists
    e. Writers
A

CORRECT ASNWER: b

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84
Q
  1. Which of the following belongs to the reign of Nicholas II?
    a. Establishment of Synod
    b. Creation of nuclear weapon
    c. Copper Riot
    d. Bloody Sunday
    e. Serfdom of peasants
A

CORRECT ASNWER: d

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85
Q
  1. Who came to power following the October Revolution of 1917?
    a. Cadets
    b. Monarchists
    c. Anarchists
    d. Slavophiles
    e. Bolshevists
A

CORRECT ASNWER: e

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86
Q
  1. Who was the leader of the Bolshevik party?
    a. Kolchak
    b. Lenin
    c. Milyukov
    d. Makhno
    e. Stolypin
A

CORRECT ASNWER: b

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87
Q
  1. Which notion belongs to the reign of Stalin?
    a. Rehabilitation
    b. Gulag (Main Directorate of Camps and Correctional Labor Facilities)
    c. Perestroika (Reformation)
    d. Virgin lands reclamation
    e. CIS (Commonwealth of Independent States)
A

CORRECT ASNWER: b

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88
Q
  1. How was the plan of Nazi Germany to conquer USSR called?
    a. Citadel
    b. Typhoon
    c. Ost
    d. Barbarossa
    e. Drive to the East (Drang nach Osten)
A

CORRECT ASNWER: d

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89
Q
  1. Policy of Gorbachev was called:
    a. Thaw
    b. Era of stagnation
    c. Perestroika
    d. Collectivization
    e. War communism
A

CORRECT ASNWER: c

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90
Q
  1. Under whose reign did mass construction of houses with separate flats for families start?
    a. Stalin
    b. Khrushchev
    c. Brezhnev
    d. Gorbachev
    e. Yeltsin
A

CORRECT ASNWER: b

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91
Q
  1. Psychology is a science that studies:
    a. Methods of scientific knowledge
    b. The laws of development and functioning of society
    c. Psyche and mental phenomena
    d. Morphology of the human body, its systems and organs
    e. Substances, their composition, and properties
A

CORRECT ASNWER: c

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92
Q
  1. Which of the following belongs to mental properties?
    a. Memory
    b. Perception
    c. Speech
    d. Thinking
    e. Temperament
A

CORRECT ASNWER: e

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93
Q
  1. The highest mental cognitive processes include:
    a. Abilities
    b. Imagination
    c. Character
    d. Intelligence
    E. Temperament
A

CORRECT ASNWER: b

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94
Q
  1. Which of the following is the physiological basis of sensations?
    a. Emotion
    b. Receptor
    c. Tibia
    d. The system of motives and values
    e. Hair
A

CORRECT ASNWER: b

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95
Q
  1. Sensitivity arising from the receptors located in the internal organs is called:
    a. Interoceptive
    b. Visual
    c. Proprioceptive
    d. Exteroceptive
    e. Auditory
A

CORRECT ASNWER: a

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96
Q
  1. Sensitivity of the position of parts of the body relative to one other and in space (joint position sense) is called:
    a. Interoceptive
    b. Visual
    c. Proprioceptive
    d. Exteroceptive
    e. Auditory
A

CORRECT ASNWER: c

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97
Q
  1. The object identified in the process of perception against some background is called:
    a. Figure
    b. Stimulus
    c. Reaction
    d. Space
    e. Time
A

CORRECT ASNWER: a

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98
Q
  1. The highest cognitive process which is characterized by memorizing, preserving, recognizing, reproducing, and forgetting traces of past experience is called:
    a. Sensation
    b. Thinking
    c. Speech
    d. Memory
    e. Attention
A

CORRECT ASNWER: d

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99
Q
  1. Who is the author of the Forgetting Curve?
    a. Freud
    b. Maslow
    c. Adler
    d. Jung
    e. Ribot
A

CORRECT ASNWER: e

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100
Q
  1. The highest cognitive process which is characterized by transformation of perceptions that reflect reality and creation of new perceptions on this basis is called:
    a. Sensation
    b. Imagination
    c. Speech
    d. Memory
    e. Attention
A

CORRECT ASNWER: b

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101
Q
  1. According to the degree of volitional efforts, imagination can be:
    a. Dormant
    b. Sleepy
    c. Active
    d. Passive
    e. Intentional
A

CORRECT ASNWER: e

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102
Q
  1. Intentional and passive imagination include:
    a. Reproduction
    b. Sleep
    c. Daydreams
    d. Dreams
    e. Creativity
A

CORRECT ASNWER: c

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103
Q
  1. The highest cognitive process the essence of which is generation of new knowledge on the basis of creative reflection and human transformation of reality is called:
    a. Sensation
    b. Thinking
    c. Speech
    d. Memory
    e. Attention
A

CORRECT ASNWER: b

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104
Q
  1. Which of the following belongs to forms of thinking?
    a. Inference
    b. Abstraction
    c. Synthesis
    d. Analysis
    e. Comparison
A

CORRECT ASNWER: a

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105
Q
  1. Which of the following belongs to operations of thinking?
    a. Inference
    b. Generalization
    c. Concept
    d. Imagination
    e. Judgment
A

CORRECT ASNWER: b

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106
Q
  1. The types of thinking according to the degree of novelty include:
    a. Reproductive thinking
    b. Visual and figurative thinking
    c. Visual active thinking
    d. Abstract reasoning
    e. Intuitive thinking
A

CORRECT ASNWER: a

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107
Q
  1. A special type of thinking the essence of which lies in practical transformation carried out with real objects is called:
    a. Reproductive thinking
    b. Visual and figurative thinking
    c. Visual active thinking
    d. Abstract reasoning
    e. Intuitive thinking
A

CORRECT ASNWER: c

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108
Q
  1. Mental connection of parts of objects or phenomena into one whole is called:
    a. Inference
    b. Deduction
    c. Synthesis
    d. Imagination
    e. Judgment
A

CORRECT ASNWER: c

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109
Q
  1. Inference made in relation to a particular case on the basis of a generality is called:
    a. Inference
    b. Deduction
    c. Synthesis
    d. Imagination
    e. Judgment
A

CORRECT ASNWER: b

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110
Q
  1. The highest cognitive process, the process of communication between people through language is called:
    a. Memory
    b. Perception
    c. Speech
    d. Thinking
    e. Temperament
A

CORRECT ASNWER: c

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111
Q
  1. Which of the following belongs to types of speech?
    a. Impact
    b. Designation
    c. Oral communication
    d. Message
    e. Expression
A

CORRECT ASNWER: c

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112
Q
  1. The functions of speech include:
    a. Written
    b. Designating
    c. Oral
    d. Internal
    e. External
A

CORRECT ASNWER: b

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113
Q
  1. Which of the following types of speech takes place in the form of conversation?
    a. Written speech
    b. Designation
    c. Dialogue
    d. Message
    e. Kinetic speech
A

CORRECT ANSWER: c

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114
Q
  1. The highest cognitive process which is characterized by the direction and concentration of mental activity on something specific is called:
    a. Sensation
    b. Thinking
    c. Speech
    d. Memory
    e. Attention
A

CORRECT ANSWER: e

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115
Q
  1. A type of attention in which it is required to make volitional efforts to direct and concentrate mental activity is called:
    a. Post-voluntary
    b. Agnosia
    c. Involuntary
    d. Inattention
    e. Voluntary
A

CORRECT ANSWER: e

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116
Q
  1. A mental state and process characterized by a person’s conscious regulation of their behavior and activities, expressed in the ability to overcome internal and external difficulties when performing purposeful actions and deeds, is called:
    a. Memory
    b. Emotion
    c. Speech
    d. Will
    e. Temperament
A

CORRECT ANSWER: d

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117
Q
  1. The most powerful and weakly controlled type of emotional reaction is called:
    a. Feeling
    b. Emotion
    c. Heat of passion
    d. Will
    e. Temperament
A

CORRECT ANSWER: c

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118
Q
  1. A set of mental characteristics typical of an individual which are associated with emotional excitability, i.e. rapidity of emergence of feelings, on the one hand, and their intensity, on the other hand, is called:
    a. Memory
    b. Emotion
    c. Speech
    d. Will
    e. Temperament
A

CORRECT ANSWER: e

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119
Q
  1. Science about development and teaching of a person is called:
    a. Sociology
    b. Methodology
    c. Philosophy
    d. Psychology
    e. Pedagogy
A

CORRECT ANSWER: e

120
Q
  1. A set of pedagogical actions and techniques aimed at organizing the educational process and creating conditions that motivate students to master educational material independently, proactively, and creatively in the process of cognitive activity is called:
    a. Active learning method
    b. Passive teaching method
    c. Lecture and seminar system
    d. Classroom learning
    e. Pedagogical competence
A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

121
Q
  1. Law is:
    a. Expression of the spirit of the people formed throughout history
    b. The system of compulsory rules of conduct established by the state
    c. Interest protected by the state
    d. State law enforcement system
    e. Citizen’s right to work
A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

122
Q
  1. Which of the following are elements of legal relationship?
    a. Subjects, object, content
    b. Hypothesis, disposition, sanction
    c. Legal capacity, active capacity, legal personality
    d. Event, action, inaction
    e. Legal facts, events, actions
A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

123
Q
  1. The structure of a legal rule includes:
    a. Hypothesis, disposition, sanction
    b. Hypothesis, restitution, sanction
    c. Disposition, restitution, sanction
    d. Hypothesis, wrongful act, sanction
    e. Hypothesis, sanction, legal fact
A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

124
Q
  1. Which of the following belongs to branches of substantive law?
    a. Law of the arbitration proceedings
    b. Constitutional law
    c. Law civil proceedings
    d. Law of criminal proceedings
    e. Law of labor proceedings
A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

125
Q
  1. The subjective side of the offense is:
    a. Blame
    b. Circumstances
    c. Harmful consequences
    d. Subject of the offense
    e. Object of legal relationship
A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

126
Q
  1. A citizen of the Russian Federation of what age can become the President of the Russian Federation?
    a. Not younger than 21 years
    b. Not younger than 25 years
    c. Not younger than 35 years
    d. Not younger than 30 years
    e. Not younger than 22 years
A

CORRECT ANSWER: c

127
Q
  1. For which term are deputies of the State Duma of the Russian Federation elected?
    a. 3 years
    b. 5 years
    c. 6 years
    d. 4 years
    e. 7 years
A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

128
Q
  1. Who appoints the Chairman of the Government of the Russian Federation?
    a. Government of the Russian Federation
    b. Federation Council of the Russian Federation
    c. Constitutional Court of the Russian Federation
    d. President of the Russian Federation
    e. State Duma of the Russian Federation
A

CORRECT ANSWER: d

129
Q
  1. The content of proprietary right includes the right to:
    a. Health care
    b. Dispose of property
    c. Rest
    d. Salary
    e. Bonuses
A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

130
Q
  1. The legal capacity of a citizen is terminated with:
    a. Attaining majority
    b. Death
    c. Incapacity
    d. Disability
    e. Limitation of legal capacity
A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

131
Q
  1. Full partnerships:
    a. Are not liable for the obligations of a full partnership
    b. Are responsible for the obligations of a full partnership
    c. Bear the risk of losses associated with the activities of the partnership
    d. Are exempt from fulfilling obligations
    e. Are responsible in the amount of a share contribution
A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

132
Q
  1. Full action capacity occurs before the age of 18, provided:
    a. An especially grave crime is committed
    b. Child birth
    c. Basic education is completed
    d. Marriage
    e. General education is completed
A

CORRECT ANSWER: d

133
Q
  1. A transaction made pro forma is called:
    a. Sham
    b. Fictitious
    c. Contentious
    d. Smart
    e. Illegal
A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

134
Q
  1. Marriage is not allowed:
    a. Between cousins and sisters
    b. Without love
    c. Between foster parents and adopted children
    d. Between homeless persons
    e. Between citizens who do not have registration at the place of residence
A

CORRECT ANSWER: c

135
Q
  1. A marriage is declared invalid by:
    a. Guardianship and Trusteeship Authority
    b. Registry Office
    c. Local government
    d. Court
    e. Regional executive authorities
A

CORRECT ANSWER: d

136
Q
  1. Disputes about division of joint tenancy in case of divorce are considered in:
    a. Court
    b. Registry office
    c. Prosecutor’s office
    d. Local self-government executive body
    e. Regional executive body
A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

137
Q
  1. Name the circumstance which excludes criminality of the act:
    a. Alcohol intoxication
    b. Heat of passion
    c. Extreme necessity
    d. Pregnancy
    e. Minority of the accused
A

CORRECT ANSWER: c

138
Q
  1. Arrest is appointed for a period from:
    a. 1 to 6 months
    b. 2 months to 1 year
    c. 1 to 12 months
    d. 2 months to 2 years
    e. 1 to 2 years
A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

139
Q
  1. The essence of criminal punishment is:
    a. Penalty
    b. Retribution
    c. Repression
    d. Restoration of violated interests
    e. Reprisal
A

CORRECT ANSWER: d

140
Q
  1. Non-attendance is:
    a. Absence from work for more than four hours in a row
    b. Absence from work for no good reason
    c. Being more than 1 hour late for work
    d. Being more than 3 hours late for work
    e. Being 2 hours late for work
A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

141
Q
  1. Name a way to protect labor rights and freedoms:
    a. Appeal to the President of the Russian Federation
    b. Judicial protection
    c. Appeal to the prosecutor’s office
    d. Appeal to the local self-government executive body
    e. Reporting to the police
A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

142
Q
  1. State labor inspectors are representatives of:
    a. Trade union
    b. President
    c. Governments
    d. State
    e. The prosecutor
A

CORRECT ANSWER: d

143
Q
  1. The decision of the labor dispute committee can be appealed against in:
    a. Trade union
    b. Court
    c. Prosecutor’s office
    d. Territorial body of the Federal Labor Inspection
    e. Police
A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

144
Q
  1. Who is not allowed to be recalled from vacation?
    a. Women with children under the age of 14 years
    b. Employees who have worked in the organization for 20 years
    c. Employees under 18 years
    d. Women with disabled children
    e. Employees under 20 years
A

CORRECT ANSWER: c

145
Q
  1. It is forbidden not to provide annual paid leave for
    a. 5 years in a row
    b. 2 years in a row
    c. 10 years in a row
    d. 3 years in a row
    e. 1 year
A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

146
Q
  1. The age of administrative liability is:
    a. 18 years
    b. 16 years
    c. 14 years
    d. 15 years
    e. 17 years
A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

147
Q
  1. Disqualification is:
    a. Administrative punishment
    b. Disciplinary punishment
    c. Criminal punishment
    d. Civil law punishment
    e. Moral punishment
A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

148
Q
  1. The basic principles of health protection include the priority of:
    a. The interests of the working population
    b. The interests of the medical institution in providing medical care
    c. Children’s health
    d. Health care for the elderly
    e. Interests of civil servants
A

CORRECT ANSWER: c

149
Q
  1. Medical and pharmaceutical professionals are not entitled to:
    a. Professional training
    b. Labor stimulation
    c. Concealment of information from the patient about their state of health
    d. Professional liability insurance
    e. Bonus payments
A

CORRECT ANSWER: c

150
Q
  1. Who carries out licensing of pharmaceutical activities?
    a. Legislative bodies
    b. Executive bodies
    c. Judicial bodies
    d. Ministry of Health
    e. Ministry of Labor
A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

151
Q
  1. Anaerobic glycolytic system is the main pathway of ATP resynthesis during:
    a. Running of100 meters
    b. Running of 800 meters
    c. Running of 3.2 kilometers
    d. Marathon run
    e. Cross-country walking
A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

152
Q
  1. Creatine phosphokinase system is the main pathway for ATP resynthesis during:
    a. Swimming of 400 m
    b. Running of 50 meters
    c. Running of 1.6 km
    d. Running of 10 km
    e. Marathon swim
A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

153
Q
  1. The body contains an amount of ATP sufficient for vital activity for several:
    a. Seconds
    b. Minutes
    c. Hours
    d. Days
    e. Years
A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

154
Q
  1. The main goal of vocational applied physical training is:
    a. Development and maintenance of the required level of professionally important physical and mental qualities
    b. Sports improvement
    c. Prevention of infectious diseases
    d. Increase in labor productivity
    e. All of the above stated variants are correct
A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

155
Q
  1. Which profession is characterized by significant emotional and static stress and prolonged intense attention?
    a. Surgeon
    b. General practitioner
    c. Pediatrician
    d. Laboratory doctor
    e. Pharmacist
A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

156
Q
  1. The main goal of industrial physical education is:
    a. Health promotion, increased efficiency of labor productivity
    b. Sports improvement
    c. Prevention of infectious diseases
    d. Prevention of occupational diseases
    e. Decrease in incidence of diseases
A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

157
Q
  1. Which of the following is the shortest form of industrial gymnastics lasting only 20-30 seconds?
    a. Introductory gymnastics
    b. Physical exercise break
    c. Physical exercise minute
    d. Micro-break for active rest
    e. Rest at lunchtime
A

CORRECT ANSWER: d

158
Q
  1. Which of the following is the main endogenous source of heat in the human body during the period of intense activity?
    a. Gastrointestinal tract
    b. Nervous system
    c. Skeletal muscles
    d. Liver
    e. Adipose tissue
A

CORRECT ANSWER: c

159
Q
  1. The internal temperature of the human body which is optimal is:
    a. 37.0 ° C
    b. 36.6 ° C
    c. 37.5 ° C
    d. 36.0 ° C
    e. 35.5 ° C
A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

160
Q
  1. “Internal heat transfer” from internal organs and muscles to the skin is provided by the mechanism of:
    a. Conduction
    b. Convection
    c. Radiation
    d. Evaporation
    e. Active transport
A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

161
Q
  1. Which of the following is the central regulator of body temperature?
    a. Hypothalamus
    b. Pituitary gland
    c. Limbic system
    d. Medulla
    e. Cortex
A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

162
Q
  1. Which of the following is controlled by the somatic nervous system?
    a. Contractile thermogenesis
    b. Non-contractile thermogenesis
    c. Change in vascular tone
    d. Sweating
    e. Urination
A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

163
Q
  1. Which hormones contribute to an increase in heat production under conditions of cold stress?
    a. Adrenaline and thyroxin
    b. Vasopressin and aldosterone
    c. Insulin and growth hormone
    d. Glucocorticoids
    e. Aldosterone and vasopressin
A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

164
Q
  1. The main energy substrates during physical activity under cold stress conditions are:
    a. Glucose and glycogen
    b. Free fatty acids
    c. Proteins
    d. Ketone bodies
    e. Nucleic acids
A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

165
Q
  1. Which stages in the development of most adaptive reactions are distinguished?
    a. Immediate and long-term stages
    b. Immediate, long-term, and resistance stages
    c. Immediate, intermediate, long-term, and resistance stages
    d. Long-term and resistance stages
    e. Compensation
A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

166
Q
  1. The state of overexertion and breakdown of specific and non-specific adaptation mechanisms is called
    a. Maladaptation
    b. Readaptation
    c. Eustress
    d. Distress
    e. Stress
A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

167
Q
  1. Adaptation to motor activity promotes adaptation to hypoxia and hypothermia due to the mechanism of:
    a. Positive cross adaptation
    b. Positive feedback
    c. Negative feedback
    d. Negative cross adaptation
    e. Urgent adaptation
A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

168
Q
  1. Which formula is used to quickly calculate the maximum heart rate (HRmax)?
    a. HRmax = 220 - age (in years)
    b. HRmax = 220 - height (in cm)
    c. HRmax = 220 - weight (in kg)
    d. HRmax = height (in cm) - age (in years) e. HRmax = weight (in kg) - age (in years)
A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

169
Q
  1. Which of the following is supplied with blood the most during physical activity?
    a. Brain
    b. Heart
    c. Kidneys
    d. Liver
    e. Muscles
A

CORRECT ANSWER: e

170
Q
  1. Physical qualities of a person include:
    a. Strength, endurance, speed, flexibility, agility
    b. Strength, speed, dynamism, agility, endurance
    c. Strength, endurance, speed, flexibility
    d. Strength, endurance, speed, dexterity
    e. Strength, endurance, speed, plasticity, dexterity
A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

171
Q
  1. Physical qualities of a person are determined by:
    a. Heredity
    b. Influence of exertion
    c. Heredity and long-term adaptation of the body to physical activity
    d. Influence of the coach
    e. Volitional efforts of an athlete
A

CORRECT ANSWER: c

172
Q
  1. The increase in the volume of skeletal muscles in the process of adaptation to physical activity occurs due to:
    a. Hypertrophy and hyperplasia of muscle fibers
    b. Hyperplasia of muscle fibers
    c. Hypertrophy of muscle fibers
    d. Increase in the number of muscle fibers
    e. Growth of connective tissue
A

CORRECT ANSWER: c

173
Q
  1. Which of the following is used to develop strength?
    a. External resistance
    b. Own body weight
    c. Self-resistance exercises, external resistances, body weight
    d. External resistance and own body weight
    e. Dumbbells and weights
A

CORRECT ANSWER: c

174
Q
  1. The body aerobic performance depends on:
    a. Functional reserve of the circulatory, respiration, blood, and cellular respiration systems
    b. Functional reserve of the circulatory system
    c. The level of hemoglobin
    d. Lung capacity
    e. Activity of aerobic metabolism enzymes in skeletal muscles
A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

175
Q
  1. Endurance is mainly developed by the following sports:
    a. Skiing, swimming, long-distance running, walking, cycling
    b. Boxing, powerlifting, skiing, swimming, long-distance running
    c. Rhythmic and artistic gymnastics
    d. Alpine skiing, sprinting, swimming, cycling, weightlifting
    e. Motorcycle racing
A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

176
Q
  1. Which of the following helps to develop dexterity?
    a. Physical exercises of increased coordination complexity
    b. Speed exercises
    c. Strength exercises
    d. Aerobic exercises
    e. Cyclic exercises
A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

177
Q
  1. Which of the following helps to develop flexibility?
    a. High-amplitude exercises
    b. Repeated physical exercises with increasing amplitude
    c. Strength exercises
    d. Speed exercises
    e. Endurance exercise
A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

178
Q
  1. The main constituents of human health are:
    a. Mental, physical, material health
    b. Physical, mental, social (spiritual) health
    c. Social, physical health
    d. Material, mental, ideological health
    e. Physical, mental health
A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

179
Q
  1. Which of the following factors determine population health?
    a. Genetic, medical, ecological factors
    b. Lifestyle, genetics, medicine, ecology
    c. Medicine, welfare, ecology
    d. Ecology, lifestyle, medicine
    e. Quality, availability, and timeliness of medical care
A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

180
Q
  1. The main factor that determines the level of population health in economically developed countries is:
    a. Availability, timeliness, and quality of medical care
    b. Lifestyle of the population
    c. Material well-being and income of the population
    d. Ecology
    e. Material well-being
A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

181
Q
  1. Mental unification of parts into a single whole is called:
    a. Synthesis
    b. Analysis
    c. Comparison
    d. Characteristic
    e. Modeling
A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

182
Q
  1. Logical reasoning from general to particular is called:
    a. Analogy
    b. Modeling
    c. Induction
    d. Deduction
    e. Characteristic
A

CORRECT ANSWER: d

183
Q
  1. Theoretical knowledge includes:
    a. Experiment
    b. Measurement
    c. Observation
    d. Idealization
    e. Comparison
A

CORRECT ANSWER: d

184
Q
  1. Proponents of asceticism advocate:
    a. Denying secular temptations
    b. Altruism in the name of serving ideals
    c. Taking advantage of everything
    d. Enjoying life
    e. Public activity
A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

185
Q
  1. Understanding every human action as predetermined in advance is called:
    a. Fatalism
    b. Voluntarism
    c. Nihilism
    d. Pragmatism
    e. Cynicism
A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

186
Q
  1. Unintentional distortion of knowledge is called:
    a. Lying
    b. Fantasy
    c. Delusion
    d. Truth
    e. Doubt
A

CORRECT ANSWER: c

187
Q
  1. The ability of a person to solve problems without realizing a way to solve them is called:
    a. Contemplation
    b. Observation
    c. Intelligence
    d. Intuition
    e. Inference
A

CORRECT ANSWER: d

188
Q
  1. A single representative of a biological species or social group is called:
    a. Individual
    b. Species
    c. Hero
    d. Personality
    e. Individuality
A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

189
Q
  1. A form of scientific knowledge containing an assumption and that needs to be proved is called:
    a. Law
    b. Principle
    c. Definition
    d. Theory
    e. Hypothesis
A

CORRECT ANSWER: e

190
Q
  1. The system of techniques, procedures, and rules used to obtain reliable knowledge is called:
    a. Theory
    b. Method
    c. Paradigm
    d. Knowledge
    e. Skill
A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

191
Q
  1. Norms in which the formal equality of people is fixed are called:
    a. Right
    b. Morality
    c. Religion
    d. Politics
    e. Philosophy
A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

192
Q
  1. Human ideas about the good, evil, happiness, and duty are embodied in norms of:
    a. Politics
    b. Science
    c. Arts
    d. Law
    e. Morality
A

CORRECT ANSWER: e

193
Q
  1. Philosophical discipline exploring the origin and nature of morality and morals is called:
    a. Aesthetics
    b. Ethics
    c. Ergonomics
    d. Logics
    e. Anthropology
A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

194
Q
  1. The form of sensory cognition is called:
    a. Sensation
    b. Judgment
    c. Hypothesis
    d. Premonition
    e. Comprehension
A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

195
Q
  1. The source of understanding the world is the mind. Who advocates this idea?
    a. Intuitionists
    b. Sensualists
    c. Spiritualists
    d. Rationalists
    e. Empiricists
A

CORRECT ANSWER: d

196
Q
  1. Feelings are the source of knowledge of the world. Who advocates this idea?
    a. Intuitionists
    b. Sensualists
    c. Spiritualists
    d. Rationalists
    e. Existentialists
A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

197
Q
  1. Mental division of the whole into its parts is called:
    a. Synthesis
    b. Analysis
    c. Analogy
    d. Deduction
    e. Induction
A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

198
Q
  1. Which of the following are results of empirical research?
    a. Scientific facts
    b. Scientific theories
    c. Scientific hypotheses
    d. Scientific problems
    e. Scientific ideas
A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

199
Q
  1. Logical reasoning from particular to general is called:
    a. Generalization
    b. Modeling
    c. Induction
    d. Deduction
    e. Analogy
A

CORRECT ANSWER: c

200
Q
  1. Knowledge the truth of which has not been proved is called:
    a. Hypothetical
    b. Theoretical
    c. Empirical
    d. Delusion
    e. Generalization
A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

201
Q
  1. The ability of an individual to assess their inner world and behavior is called:
    a. Psyche
    b. Self-awareness
    c. Will
    d. Emotions
    e. Memory
A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

202
Q
  1. A logical method of transferring some features of one object to another object which is similar to the first one is called:
    a. Generalization
    b. Analogy
    c. Modeling
    d. Abstraction
    e. Construction
A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

203
Q
  1. The first historical form of holistic and imaginative perception of the world is called:
    a. Mythology
    b. Science
    c. Politics
    d. Philosophy
    e. Religion
A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

204
Q
  1. Personality’s view on something is called:
    a. Concept
    b. Opinion
    c. Fact
    d. Truth
    e. Knowledge
A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

205
Q
  1. The question about the meaning of life is caused by the thought of whether it is worth living, if every person is:
    a. Spiritless
    b. Mortal
    c. Lonely
    d. Weak
    e. Suppressed
A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

206
Q
  1. Unlike opinion, knowledge:
    a. Expresses the subjective opinion of a person
    b. Does not require justification
    c. Has a sign of truth
    d. Is intuitive
    e. Does not need confirmation
A

CORRECT ANSWER: c

207
Q
  1. Philosophy seeks to attain:
    a. Rational knowledge
    b. Technical knowledge
    c. Applied knowledge
    d. Ordinary knowledge
    e. Intuitive knowledge
A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

208
Q
  1. One of the basic characteristics of the scientific type of cognition is:
    a. Spontaneity
    b. Arbitrariness
    c. Consistency
    d. Reliance on faith
    e. Subjectivity
A

CORRECT ANSWER: c

209
Q
  1. The doctrine denying the existence of God is called:
    a. Atheism
    b. Atomism
    c. Skepticism
    d. Voluntarism
A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

210
Q
  1. The concept of truth is applicable to:
    a. Question
    b. Knowledge
    c. Assumption
    d. Assessment
    e. Intuition
A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

211
Q
  1. The modern economy is:
    a. Market economy
    b. Economy of limited resources
    c. Political economy
    d. Mixed economy
    e. Command-administrative economy
A

CORRECT ANSWER: d

212
Q
  1. Which of the following is the object of economy?
    a. Economic sphere of society
    b. Limited resources
    c. Growing needs
    d. Technological progress
    e. Global problems of humanity
A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

213
Q
  1. Who is the author of the first diagram illustrating circulation of social goods?
    a. Smith
    b. Montchrestien
    c. Marx
    d. Quesnay
    e. Keynes
A

CORRECT ANSWER: d

214
Q
  1. The process of movement of material goods from one subject to another is called:
    a. Distribution
    b. Exchange
    c. Production
    d. Consumption
    e. Discounting
A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

215
Q
  1. Factors of production are:
    a. Production conditions
    b. Means of production
    c. Natural resources
    d. Terms of delivery of goods (contract)
    e. Production goods
A

CORRECT ANSWER: c

216
Q
  1. The value of a good measured by a lost opportunity is called:
    a. Market value
    b. Exchange value
    c. Use value
    d. Alternative cost
    e. Surplus value
A

CORRECT ANSWER: d

217
Q
  1. Increase in the income of chocolate consumers, other conditions being equal, will lead to:
    a. Increased supply and demand for chocolate
    b. Shift of the demand curve for chocolate downwards to the left
    c. Increased demand for chocolate
    d. Increased market size for chocolate
    e. Reduced elasticity of chocolate
A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

218
Q
  1. The trade balance is positive, if:
    a. The country imports less goods than it exports
    b. The country imports are high
    c. The country exports are high
    d. The country imports more goods than it exports
    e. The country economic borders are closed
A

CORRECT ANSWER: d

219
Q
  1. Macroeconomics reflects:
    a. Market and interests of a private owner
    b. State, interests of everyone
    c. A and B are correct
    d. There is no right answer
    e. Market
A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

220
Q
  1. Market fiasco manifests itself through:
    a. Lack of incentives to produce goods and services for collective use
    b. Failure to strike the balance between economic interests of sellers and buyers
    c. Lack of mechanisms for removing non-competitive enterprises
    d. Failure to communicate the volume and structure of production to companies
    e. Lack of digitalization mechanisms
A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

221
Q
  1. The state budget deficit can be financed by:
    a. Expanding the list of levied taxes
    b. Profits of state-owned enterprises
    c. Withdrawing funds from the Gold Reserves
    d. Issuing money and liabilities
    e. Selling state territories
A

CORRECT ANSWER: d

222
Q
  1. What are the factors of economic growth?
    a. Capital gain
    b. Growth of educational level
    c. Improvement of allocated resources
    d. Improvement of technology based on the technological progress
    e. All answers are correct
A

CORRECT ANSWER: e

223
Q
  1. If supply decreased by 10% in response to a 5% reduction in price, then the supply is characterized by:
    a. High elasticity
    b. Inelasticity
    c. Absolute inelasticity
    d. Unitary elasticity
    e. Absolute elasticity
A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

224
Q
  1. The total amount of taxes collected in the state is 720 billion currency units, GDP is 1,840 billion currency units. What is the level of taxation in the country?
    a. 3.9%
    b. 23%
    c. 61%
    d. 39%
    e. 35%
A

CORRECT ANSWER: d

225
Q
  1. The functions of a commercial bank include:
    a. Administrating government accounts
    b. Keeping the required reserves of a commercial bank
    c. Opening and maintaining customer accounts, including foreign ones
    d. Administering clients’ funds without their consent
    e. Giving loans to regional budgets
A

CORRECT ANSWER: c

226
Q
  1. The Gini coefficient tends towards zero, if:
    a. Most of the population have no minimum means of subsistence
    b. Income inequality in society is insignificant
    c. There is an increase in income inequality
    d. There is a sharp decline in the income of the bulk of the population
    e. The country has a high level of inclusiveness
A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

227
Q
  1. Which of the following is the definition of deflation?
    a. A decrease in the general price level in the economy
    b. Inability of a company or person to pay their debts on time
    c. Price of units of one currency in units of another currency
    d. Annual government spending and revenue plan
    e. There is no right answer
A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

228
Q
  1. Common features of markets for monopolistic and perfect competition include:
    a. No significant barriers for entering the industry
    b. Production of unique goods
    c. Production of similar goods
    d. Many sellers and buyers operating in the market
    e. Control over prices of goods
A

CORRECT ANSWER: c

229
Q
  1. The main economic problems of society are:
    a. What to produce
    b. For whom to produce
    c. How to produce
    d. A and B
    e. A, B, and C
A

CORRECT ANSWER: e

230
Q
  1. Growth of consumer income is graphically expressed in:
    a. A parallel shift of the budget line upwards to the right
    b. Changing the slope of the budget line
    c. Reducing the slope of the budget line
    d. A parallel shift of the budget line downwards to the left
    e. A perpendicular shift of the budget line
A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

231
Q
  1. An oligopolist maximizes profits when
    a. Marginal costs are equal to marginal revenue
    b. Marginal costs are equal to product price
    c. Average costs are equal to product price
    d. Average costs area equal to marginal costs
    e. Semi-variable costs exceed fixed costs
A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

232
Q
  1. An increase in the number of applied factors by n times caused an increase in the volume of production by more than n times. This is a characteristic of:
    a. The law of increasing productivity
    b. Constant returns to scale
    c. Decreasing returns to scale
    d. Increasing returns to scale
    e. Extensive growth
A

CORRECT ANSWER: d

233
Q
  1. The total profit of a company is calculated as:
    a. A sum of cumulative fixed and variable costs
    b. A difference between price and average total costs
    c. A difference between gross income and gross costs
    d. Product of price and the quantity of goods
    e. Total cost function of all means of production
A

CORRECT ANSWER: c

234
Q
  1. The policy of high prices means that the growth of total income occurs due to:
    a. Improvement of the quality
    b. Increased prices
    c. Lower prices
    d. Increase in the amount of goods or services
    e. There is no right answer
A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

235
Q
  1. The transition period is not accompanied by:
    a. The impact of the state on the economy through the system of financial regulators
    b. Transitional recession
    c. Loss of the state sole control over economic resources
    d. Budget crisis
    e. Economic growth
A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

236
Q
  1. Money serves as:
    a. Currency
    b. A means of value preservation
    c. Monetary unit
    d. All answers are correct
    e. A means of payment
A

CORRECT ANSWER: d

237
Q
  1. A product, the demand level for which falls with an increase in income at each price value is called:
    a. Ordinary product
    b. Luxury product
    c. Interchangeable product
    d. Poor quality product
    e. Complementary product
A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

238
Q
  1. If the price rises, and the volume of output in the economy falls, this can be illustrated by a shift in the:
    a. Aggregate supply curve to the left
    b. Aggregate supply curve to the right
    c. Aggregate demand curve to the left
    d. Aggregate demand curve to the right
    e. All answers are correct
A

answers are correct
CORRECT ANSWER: b

239
Q
  1. The disadvantages of a planned economy include:
    a. Lack of market for public goods
    b. Inhibition of the technological progress
    c. Suppressed inflation in the form of deficits
    d. Widespread manual labor
    e. Centralized management
A

CORRECT ANSWER: c

240
Q
  1. According to the technological approach, economic systems are divided into:
    a. Developed, developing, backward, poor
    b. Pre-industrial, industrial, post-industrial
    c. Primitive, slave-owning, feudal, capitalist, communist
    d. Traditional, market, mixed
    e. Market, command-administrative, socialist
A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

241
Q
  1. In which word is the combination “ti” pronounced as [tsi]:
    a. intestínum
    b. eminéntia
    c. óstium
    d. mediastínum
A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

242
Q
  1. In which word is the combination “ngu” not pronounced as [ngv]:
    a. língua
    b. inguinális
    c. únguis
    d. ángulus
A

CORRECT ANSWER: d

243
Q
  1. Which Gen.sg. form of the noun gánglion is correct?
    a. ganglioni
    b. ganglion
    c. ganglii
    d. ganglionin
A

CORRECT ANSWER: c

244
Q
  1. Which translation of the term “anterior lamina” is correct?
    a. lamina anteriora
    b. lamina anterior
    c. lamina anterius
    d. lamina anteria
A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

245
Q

245.Which translation of the term “great foramen” is correct?
a. foramen occipitale major
b. foramen occipitale majus
c. foramen occipitale magnus
d. foramen occipitale magnum

A

CORRECT ANSWER: d

246
Q

246.Which translation of the term “rotator muscles” is correct?
a. musculi levatores
b. musculi flexores
c. muscules rotatores
d. muscula pronatores

A

CORRECT ANSWER: c

247
Q

247.Which translation of the term “ethmoid bones” is correct?
a. ossa cribrosa
b. osses ethmoidales
c. osses cribroses
d. ossa ethmoidalia

A

CORRECT ANSWER: d

248
Q

248.Which translation of the term “vessels of vessels” is correct?
a. vasa vasorum
b. vasis vasium
c. vases vasum
d. vasa vasum

A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

249
Q

249.What information about a noun is contained in the dictionary?
a. Nom.Sg. form / ending of Gen.Sg. / gender designation
b. Nom.Sg. form/ ending of Nom.Pl. / gender designation
c. Nom.Sg. form / Gen.Sg. form
d. Nom.Sg. form / gender designation / number designation

A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

250
Q

250.What information does the dictionary form of an adjective contain?
a. Form of the nominative case, masculine gender
b. Singular and plural forms of the masculine gender
c. Form of the masculine gender and ending of the neuter gender
d. Form of the masculine gender, endings of the feminine and neuter gender

A

CORRECT ANSWER: d

251
Q
  1. Which translation of the term “short artery” is correct?
    a. arteriae brevis
    b. arteria brevis
    c. arteriae breve
    d. arteriarum breviarum
A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

252
Q
  1. What does the second part of the dictionary form posterior,ius denote?
    a. Gen.Sg. form for all genders
    b. Form of the feminine gender, Nom.Sg.
    c. Form of the neuter gender, Nom.Sg.
    d. The second form is incorrect (does not exist)
A

CORRECT ANSWER: с

253
Q

253.How is the term “osseous nasal septum” correctly translated?
a. septum osseum nasi
b. sulcus nasi ossei
c. septum nasi osseum
d. sulcus osseus nasalis

A

CORRECT ANSWER: c

254
Q

254.What is the Gen. sg. form of the adjective posterior, ius:
a. posterioris
b. posteris
c. posterius
d. posteriori

A

A

255
Q
  1. Finish the term “body of the hyoid bone” - corpus ossis …?
    a. hypoglossi
    b. sublingualis
    c. hyoidei
    d. subacuti
A

CORRECT ANSWER: c

256
Q

256.Which term element means “narrowing”?
a. -sclerosis
b. -stenosis
c. -stasis
d. -spasmus

A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

257
Q

257.Which term element is missing in “dactyl…”, which means “cramps in the fingers”?
a. -algia
b. -odynia
c. -spasmus
d. –plegia

A

CORRECT ANSWER: c

258
Q
  1. Which ending is missing in the term “bronchitis chronic…”?
    a. -is
    b. -us
    c. -a
    d. –ae
A

CORRECT ANSWER: c

259
Q
  1. Which term element means “hernia”?
    a. -lithus
    b. -cele
    c. -cysta
    d. –plasia
A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

260
Q
  1. Which term element is missing in the term “histo …”, which means “tissue degradation”?
    a. -malacia
    b. -lysis
    c. -sclerosis
    d. –rrhexis
A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

261
Q
  1. How to translate “site of decreased resistance” correctly?
    a. locus minimi resistentiae
    b. locus minoris resistentiae
    c. locus minimae resistentiae
    d. locus minorae resistentiae
A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

262
Q
  1. Which translation of the term “haematuria” is correct?
    a. Presence of urea in the blood
    b. Presence of glucose in the blood
    c. Presence of glucose in the urine
    d. Presence of blood in the urine
A

CORRECT ANSWER: d

263
Q
  1. What does the expression “Anamnesis morbi” mean?
    a. Data about life
    b. Data about treatment
    c. Data about a disease
    d. Data about death
A

CORRECT ANSWER: c

264
Q
  1. How is the expression “Status naturalis” translated?
    a. Favorable prognosis
    b. Local state
    c. Site of decreased resistance
    d. Natural state
A

CORRECT ANSWER: d

265
Q

265.How is the term “encephalomyelitis” translated?
a. Inflammation of the brain
b. Meningitis
c. Inflammation of the brain and spinal cord
d. Inflammation of the spinal cord

A

CORRECT ANSWER: c

266
Q

266.What does the term “metrorrhagia” mean?
a. Intestinal bleeding
b. Uterine bleeding
c. Rectal bleeding
d. Nasal bleed

A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

267
Q

267.Which of the following terms means “dryness of the oral mucosa”?
a. Xerocheilia
b. Xerostomia
c. Xerostoma
d. Xerosis

A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

268
Q

268.How is the term “haematogenus” translated?
a. Of renal origin
b. Originating from blood
c. Hematogenesis
d. Of stomach origin

A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

269
Q

269.How is the term “pneumatosis” translated?
a. Inflammation of the lung
b. Accumulation of air in any part of the body
c. Accumulation of air in the pleural cavity
d. Pulmonary consolidation

A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

270
Q
  1. How to write the term “skin redness” in Latin?
    a. Eritrodermia
    b. Erytrodermia
    c. Erytrodaermia
    d. Erythrodermia
A

CORRECT ANSWER: d

271
Q
  1. How to translate “paralysis affecting symmetrical parts of the body” in Latin?
    a. Deeplegia
    b. Periplegia
    c. Hemiplegia
    d. Diplegia
A

CORRECT ANSWER: d

272
Q
  1. Which term is used to denote “treatment with mental impact”?
    a. Psychiatry
    b. Psychotherapy
    c. Deep analysis
    d. Psychopathology
A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

273
Q

273.Which prefix is missing in the term “…luxation”, which means “incomplete dislocation”?
a. hypo-
b. de-
c. sub-
d. re-

A

CORRECT ANSWER: c

274
Q

274.What does the term “dermatosis” mean?
a. Skin inflammation
b. Purulent skin disease
c. Dry skin
d. Common name for skin diseases

A

CORRECT ANSWER: d

275
Q
  1. What does the prefix “infra-” mean?
    a. Inside
    b. Transfer
    c. Under, below
    d. Between
A

CORRECT ANSWER: c

276
Q

276.How is the term “arthrosis” translated?
a. Pain in the joints
b. Chronic cartilage disease
c. Inflammation of the joints
d. Chronic joint disease

A

CORRECT ANSWER: d

277
Q

277.What does the term “toxicosis” mean?
a. The presence of toxic substances in the blood
b. A disease caused by the presence of toxic substances in the blood
c. Fear of poisoning
d. The presence of toxic substances in the urine

A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

278
Q

278.Which ending is missing in the phrase “caries dent…”, which means “caries of teeth”?
a. -is
b. -um
c. -ium
d. –es

A

CORRECT ANSWER: c

279
Q
  1. Which ending is missing in the term “vitium cord…”, which means “cardiac failure”?
    a. -is
    b. -ium
    c. -i
    d. -um
A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

280
Q
  1. Which word form is missing in the term “asthma…”, which means “bronchial asthma”?
    a. Bronchialis
    b. Bronchiale
    c. Bronchiali
    d. Bronchialium
A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

281
Q
  1. How is the expression “habitus aegroti” translated?
    a. Condition of a patient
    b. Appearance of a patient
    c. Trust of a patient
    d. Complaints of a patient
A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

282
Q
  1. Which words in prescriptions are not shortened?
    А. Names of drug forms
    В. Names of plant parts
    С. Recommendations to a pharmacist
    D. Names of chemical compounds
A

CORRECT ANSWER: d

283
Q

283.How is the word “drop/drops” shortened in prescriptions?
a. gt.
b. gut.
c. gts.
d. gtt.

A

CORRECT ANSWER: d

284
Q
  1. Which shortened variant of the word “tablet” is correct?
    a. tab.
    b. tabb.
    c. tabl.
    d. tabul.
A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

285
Q
  1. Which translation of the phrase “Repeat twice” is correct?
    a. Repete bis
    b. Repetatur
    c. Repetatur bis
    d. Repetere bis
A

CORRECT ANSWER: c

286
Q
  1. Who is the author of the phrase “Primum noli nocere”?
    a. Galen
    b. Celsus
    c. Hippocrates
    d. Abu Ali Sina
A

CORRECT ANSWER: c

287
Q

287.Which ending is missing in the phrase “pro dos…”?
a. -e
b. -i
c. -es
d. –ibus

A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

288
Q

288.Which translation of the phrase “pro die” is correct?
a. Single dose
b. The highest dose
c. Daily dose
d. Minimum dose

A

CORRECT ANSWER: c

289
Q
  1. Which ending in the term “Extractum Belladonn…” is missing?
    a. -um
    b. -i
    c. -a
    d. -ae
A

CORRECT ANSWER: d

290
Q
  1. How is the expression “Prognosis dubia” translated?
    a. For prognosis
    b. Good prognosis
    c. Doubtful prognosis
    d. Recovery prognosis
    e. Life prognosis
A

CORRECT ANSWER: c

291
Q

291.What does the word element “xanth-” mean?
a. White
b. Yellow
c. Blue
d. Red

A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

292
Q
  1. Which translation of the word element “thi(o-)” is correct?
    a. Tea
    b. Sulfur
    c. Ethyl
    d. Thyroid gland
A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

293
Q

293.Which translation of the phrase “auxiliary agent” is correct?
a. Remedium externum
b. Remedium adjuvans
c. Remedium constituens
d. Remedium laxans
e. Remedium purgans

A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

294
Q
  1. Which ending is missing in the term “Solutio Synoestroli oleos…”?
    a. -a
    b. -ae
    c. -i
    d. –o
A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

295
Q

295.Which ending is missing in the term “Extractum Belladonnae sicc…”?
a. -ae
b. -us
c. -i
d. –um

A

CORRECT ANSWER: d

Final State Exam (6 decks)

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