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General Army Aviation Knowledge > AR 95-1 > Flashcards

AR 95-1 Flashcards

1
Q

How soon must you notify the unit commander of deviations made from 95-1 or FAA regulations?

A

24 hours

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2
Q

Who is authorized to start, run-up, or shutdown Army aircraft?

A

Personnel listed in Chapter 2-1a(1)-(6) and nonrated crewmembers that are trained by approved courses of instruction

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3
Q

When do you use checklists?

A

Preflight through before leaving aircraft checks. While airborne, when time does not permit the utilization of checklist or when it would become a safety hazard, required checks may be completed from memory

Must be used while making maintenance operational checks, MTF, and preventative checks

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4
Q

How do you compute flying time?

A

When the helicopter lifts off of the ground. Time ends when the aircraft has landed, engines are stopped, or aircrew changes

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5
Q

How long do you have to turn in your flight records?

A

14 calendar days from reporting to new installation

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6
Q

What are the traffic pattern altitudes at Army airfields?

A

FW: 1500’ AGL
RW: 700’ AGL

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7
Q

What are the aircraft lighting requirements?

A

Anti-collision lights on when engines are operating, except when condition would cause vertigo or other safety hazards

Position lights on between sunset and sunrise

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8
Q

Who is the initial mission approval authority?

A

Unit commander or designated rep. They determine feasibility and accept/reject mission

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9
Q

What is the mission briefing officer?

A

Commander or designated rep that interacts with the mission crew or AMC to identify, assess, and mitigate risk.

Selected based on maturity, experience, judgement. In manned aircraft, they must be a PC and can take a brief at any level

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10
Q

Who is the final mission approval authority?

A

Members of the chain of command that are responsible for accepting risk. These are designated by the first O-5 in the chain of command.

Based on levels of command authority not rank

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11
Q

Who is the approval authority for SOW?

A

First O-7 in the chain of command

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12
Q

When do you need a SOW?

A

Airland operations, such as air assault.

Things like paradrop, rappelling, FRIES, SPIES, helocast, caving ladder DO NOT require seats removed.

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13
Q

What are the required altitudes for noise sensitive areas?

A

2000’ above the surface

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14
Q

What types of flights are passengers restricted from?

A

Maintenance, experimental, engineering flights
Aerobatic flight
Aerial demonstrations
EP training
NVD qualification/refresher
Aeronautical record attempts
Acceptance flights

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15
Q

Who can grant waivers for ATP requirements?

A

First O-6 in the CoC

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16
Q

Who can extend APART requirements?

A

ATP commander

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17
Q

Who can excuse an aviator from their APART requirements?

A

The ATP commander if the SM is within 6 months of separation

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18
Q

When requirements are failed to be met, what must a commander do?

A

Suspend the crew member and initiate in investigation that will take no longer than 14 days

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19
Q

What are the currency requirements?

A

Take part in a flight every 60 days with access to flight controls

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20
Q

Smoking is prohibited within how many feet of aircraft?

A

50’

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21
Q

What is the rotary wing fuel requirements?

A

VFR: 20 minutes
IFR: 30 minutes

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22
Q

What are the SVFR minimums?

A

1/2 SM , clear of clouds

23
Q

Destination weather must be…

A

Forecasted equal or greater than VFR minimums at the ETA through one hour after ETA

24
Q

What are the requirement for IFR weather?

A

Destination weather must be forecast to be equal to or greater than the published weather planning minimum for the approach procedure to be flown at ETA through one hour after ETA.

25
Q

What minimum reduction is allowed is allowed for rotary wing?

A

For Cat A, visibility can be reduced by 50%, not less than 1/4 SM.

Cannot reduced a “Copter Only”

Cannot use Cat II approaches for weather alternates

26
Q

Army aircraft will fly on an IFR flight plan except

A

Flight is primarily for VFR training
Time will not permit completion under
Mission can only be accomplished under VFR
Excessive ATC departure, en route, or terminal delays are encountered
Hazardous weather conditions must be avoided

27
Q

When does a weather forecast become void?

A

90 minutes

28
Q

When is an alternate airfield required?

A

Radar required to execute the approach
NAVAIDs are unmonitored
Predominate wx is less than 400-1

An alternate is not required if descent from enroute minimum altitude for IFR operation, approach, and landing can be made in VFR conditions

29
Q

What airfield qualifies for an alternate airfield?

A

Worst case weather from ETA through one hour can be flown with 400-1 above the planning criteria
Operation and approach can be flown under VFR
Can’t have ANA, alternate not authorized
Can’t have radar required
Can’t have unmonitored NAVAIDs
Have surface airspace

30
Q

What is the Class A wx minimums?

A

None for vis/clousd

31
Q

What is the Class B wx minimums?

A

3 SM, clear or clouds

32
Q

What is the Class C & D wx minimums?

A

3 SM
500’ below
1000’ above
2000’ horizontal

33
Q

What is the Class E, less than 10000 MSL?

A

3 SM
500’ below
1000’ above
2000’ horizontal

34
Q

What is the Class E, at or above 10000 MSL?

A

5 SM
1000’ below
1000’ above
1000’ horizontal

35
Q

What is the Class G wx minimums 1200’ or less?

A

Day: 1/2 SM, clear or clouds
Night: 1 SM, clear of clouds

36
Q

What is the Class G wx minimums, greater than 1200, less than 10000’ MSL?

A

Day: 1 SM, 5-1-2
Night: 3 SM, 5-1-2

37
Q

What is the Class G wx minimums, more than 1200’ and above 10000’ MSL?

A

5 SM,
1000’ below
1000’ above
1000’ horizontal

38
Q

What is required of the PC for weight and balance?

A

Accuracy of the 365-4 and that a completed DD 365-4 is aboard the aircraft to verify that the weight and center of gravity limits will remain within allowable tolerance for entire flight

39
Q

If you do not have 50 hours of WX time as a PC, what are your take off minimum requirements?

A

100’, 1/4 SM vis or 1200 RVR

40
Q

Requirements for departure for SVFR?

A

1/2 SM, clear of clouds and in class B,C,D,E airspace

41
Q

How long can you perform VFR on top?

A

30 minutes

Can exceed that if aircraft is equipped for VFR and IFR requirements can be met for the remainder of the flight

42
Q

Can you initiate an approach regardless of ceilings and visbility?

A

Yes

43
Q

When can an aircraft fly below the MDA?

A

The approach threshold of the runway, or approach lights or markings, identifiable with the approach end of the runway or landing area can be clearly identified

The aircraft must be in a position for which a safe approach and landing can be made

44
Q

What are the aircraft weight and balance categories?

A

Class 1: a/c whose weight and balance & COG limits can sometimes be exceeded, therefore limited loading control is needed

Class 2: a/c whose weight and balance & COG limits can be readily exceeded therefore a high degree of loading control is needed

45
Q

What is the DD 365?

A

Record of W&B personnel

46
Q

What is the DD 365-1?

A

Chart A or Basic Weight Record

47
Q

What is the DD 365-2?

A

Chart B or Aircraft Weighing Record

48
Q

What is the DD 365-3?

A

Chart C or Basic W&B Record

49
Q

What is the 365-4?

A

Form F or W&B Clearance

50
Q

How often do weight and balance records need to be reviewed?

A

Every 12 months

51
Q

When will aircraft be weighed?

A

Overhaul or major airframe repairs occur
Modifications of 1% or greater to the aircrafts basic weight are applied
Any modifications or replacements have been made that make computing W&B or COG inaccurate
W&B records are suspected to be in error
Every 24 months for Class 2 (36 for Class 1)

52
Q

What are the oxygen and altitude requirements?

A

10000’ for no more than an hour
12000’ for no more than 30 minutes
Can’t fly above 14000’ without O2
Flights above 18000’ PA, O2 prebreathing for no less than 30 minutes

53
Q

What is the protective clothing and equipment required?

A

ID tags
Cotton, wool, or nomex under clothings
Flight suit
Boots
Flight gloves
Flight helmet

54
Q

What is the survival equipment required?

A

First aid kit
Extraction device
Survival knife
Fire starter
Signaling device
Survival radio

General Army Aviation Knowledge (7 decks)

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