Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

211 - microbiology > block E - archaea and protozoa > Flashcards

block E - archaea and protozoa Flashcards

1
Q

what are the two domains that prokaryotes are separated into?

A

bacteria and archea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what way do archea and bacteria look similar?

A

they look similar morphologically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

how are cell walls and membranes different between archea and bacteria?

A

bacteria can have gram positive and negative cell walls which are made up of peptidoglycan and have both a cell membrane and cell wall whereas archaea only have a cytoplasmic membrane with no peptodoglycan cell wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the semi-rigid lattice in archaea made up of?

A

pseudomurein, sugars and proteins or glycoproteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what type of prokaryotes have peptidoglycan?

A

bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are the differences between archaeal and bacterial head groups in membranes?

A

archaeal membranes
- ether linkages in their head groups
- 2,3-un-glycerol
bacterial membranes
- ester linkages in their head groups
- 1,2-un-glycerol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are the 4 ways archaeal membranes are different?

A

1- ether-linked lipids (not ester)
2- side-chains are branched isoprenes (not fatty acids)
3- different chiral form of glycerol
4- some archaeal possess lipid monolayers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

how are archaeal and bacterial flagella different?

A

bacterial flagella
- helical filaments that rotate to provide motility
- they’re produced by the addition of flagellin subunits at the tip
- they’re thicker and hollow to allow flagellin subunits to pass through
archaeal flagella
- theyre superficially similar to bacterial flagella
- theyre considered non-homologus (convergent evolution)
-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what are the five main groups archaea are split into?

A

Euryarchaeota
Crenarchaeota
Thaumarchaeota
Korarchaeota
Nanoarchaeota

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

how do extreme halophiles maintain osmotic balance?

A

its usually achived by the accumulation or synthesis of compatible solutes
they pump large amounts of K+ into the cell from the environment so that the intracellular conc of K+ is bigger than the extracellular Na+ conc to maintain the positive water balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are the characteristics of halophiles?

A
  • they’re highly acidic
  • they contain fewer hydrophobic amino acids and lysine residues
  • some haloarchaea are capable of light-driven synthesis of ATP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is some of the different cell wall chemistries found in methanogens?

A

Pseudomurein (e.g., Methanobacterium)
Methanochondroitin (e.g., Methanosarcina)
Protein or glycoprotein (e.g., Methanocaldococcus)
S-layers (e.g., Methanospirillum)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are the substrates for methanogens?

A
  • obligate anaerobes, 11 substrates divided into 3 classes which can be converted into CH4 by pure cultures of methanogens
    other compounds can be converted to methane, but only in cooperative reactions between methanogens and other anaerobic bacteria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

how have thermoplasma developed a unique cytoplasmic membrane?

A
  • they’ve developed it to maintain positive osmotic pressure and tolerate high temps and low pH levels
  • the membrane contains lipopolysaccharide-like material (lipoglycan) consisting tetraether lipid monolayer membrane with mannose and glucose
  • it contains glycoproteins but not sterols
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what are the characteristics of ferroplasma?

A
  • theyre chemolithotrophic
  • acidophilic
  • oxidises Fe2+ to Fe3+, generating acid
  • grows in mine tailigns containing pyrite (FeS2)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are the characteristics of picrophilus?

A
  • theyre extreme acidophiles which grow optimally ar pH 0.7
  • model microbe for extreme acid tolerance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what are the upper temp limits for life?

A

new species of thermophiles and hyperphiles are being discovered
lab experiments with biomolecules suggest that the limits are 140-150 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what are structural features that improve thermostability?

A

high hydrophobic cores
increases ionic interactions on proteins surfaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is amino acid composition similar to?

A

its similar to that of non-thermostable proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is an example of a more heat-stable molecule?

A

use of non-heme iron proteins instead of proyeins that use NAD and NADH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

how has DNA stability adapted to life at high temps?

A
  • High intracellular solute levels stabilize DNA
  • Reverse DNA gyrase
  • Introduces positive supercoils into DNA
  • Stabilizes DNA
  • Found only in hyperthermophiles
  • High intracellular levels of polyamines (e.g., putrescine, spermidine) stabilize DNA and RNA
  • DNA-binding proteins (histones) compact DNA into nucleosome-like structures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

how has lipid stability adapted to life at high temps?

A

they possess dibiphytanyl tetraether type lipids; form a lipid monolayer membrane structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

how has small subunits (SSU) rRNA stability adapted to high temps?

A

theyve got a higher GC content

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

why are hyperthermophilic archaea important in microbial evolution?

A

they may be the closest descendants of ancient microbes
hyperthermophilic archaea and bacteria are found on the deepest, shortest branches of the phylogenetic tree
the oxidation of H2 is common to many hyperthermophiles and may have been the 1st energy-yielding metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what are the 5 main ways the body protects against viral infection?

A
  • skin
  • mucus
  • cilliated epithelium
  • gastric acid
  • bile
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what are the antigen-non-specific antiviral responses in the immune system?

A
  • interferon, cytokines (TNF, IL-1)
  • NK cells and macrophages
  • fever
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what are the antigen-specific immune responses in the immune system?

A
  • t-cell response
  • antibody
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

why can a fever be an effective defence used by the immune system against RNA viruses?

A

because they don’t replicate well above 37 degrees so that’s why you don’t get high temperatures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

if you get flu-like symptoms, what would be the immune mediators causing that and what would they be trying to protect your body against (what microbes)?

A

immune mediators- interferons and lymphokines
examples - respiratory viruses and arboviruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

if the immunopathogenesis is delayed-type hypersensitivity and inflammation, what would be examples of viruses that cause this and what immune mediators would be activated as a result?

A

example - enveloped viruses
immune mediators- t-cells, macrophages, polymorphonuclear leukocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

if the immunopathogenesis is immune complex disease what would be examples of viruses that cause this and what immune mediators would be activated as a result?

A

example- hep B and rubella
immune mediators - antibodies and compement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

if the immunopathogenesis is haemorrhagic disease what would be examples of viruses that cause this and what immune mediators would be activated as a result?

A

example- dengue fever and measles
immune mediators- t cells, antibodies and complement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

if the immunopathogenesis is immunosuppression, what would be examples of viruses that cause this and what immune mediators would be activated as a result?

A

examples- HIV, measles, rubella virus
immune mediators- none

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

if the immunopathogenesis is post-infection cytosis what would be examples of viruses that cause this and what immune mediators would be activated as a result?

A

examples- enveloped viruses (e.g. post measles encephalitis)
immune mediators- t-cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what are the properties of alpha-interferon?

A

producer cells- leukocytes
physical properties- acid-stable, non-glycosylated protein
exammples- dsRNA virus infcetion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what are the properties of beta-interferons?

A

producer cells- fibroblasts
physical properties - acid-stable, glycoprotein
examples- virus infection, bacterial components (TNF,IL-1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what are the properties of y-interferons?

A

producer cells - t-cells and nk cells
physical properties - acid-liable glycoprotein
examples- antigens, mitogens, cytokines (IL-2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what are the induction interferons?

A
  • dsRNA (virus intermediates)
  • viral inhibition of cellular protein synthesis
  • enveloped virus interaction with rare blood leukocyte
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is the mechanism of action for interferons?

A
  • release from initial infected cell
  • interferons bind to specific receptor on another cell
  • interferon induces the ‘antiviral state’ - synthesis of protein kinase, 2’-5’olgioenylate synthease, ribonuclease L
  • stops protein synthesis that blocks viral replication
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what are the 4 basic steps in viral disease?

A
  • acquisition
  • initiation of infection
  • incubation period
  • infection of target tissue
40
Q

what goes on in the acquisition step of viral disease?

A

begin life cycle at the primary site of replixation e.g. cell binding to receptor in the airway then get into the body and travel though the blood stream and infect at the initial site of replication than move onto secondary replication

41
Q

what happens in the incubation period of the viral disease infection?

A

during this period, the flu like symptoms are established, as the body has detected that there’s an infection, the major symptoms aren’t present yet

42
Q

what are the different ways viruses can access target tissue?

A
  • through an enterance portal
  • ability to cross mucous epithelial cells
  • stavility of virus in the body (temperature, acid and bile, host defences)
  • ability to establish viremia
  • tissue trophism (specificity of viral attachment proteins, tissue specific expression of receptors)
  • cellular permissiveness for virus replication
43
Q

what are cytolytic infections?

A

theyre the classic type of viral infection, naked infections cause the cell to lyse and then burst out of the cell

44
Q

what are persistant infections?

A

they are chronic infections, its how enveloped cells infect, they all bud away from the cell, eventually the cell will go on and diw after its produced loads of viruses

45
Q

what are latent infections?

A

they infect the cell and then sit there, not doing anything, they can then be reactivated when the immune system is less active

46
Q

what is the cytopathologic activity of the virus?

A

the virus is lytic and depends on efficiency of viral replication, immortilizeing the infection
it causes changes in the cells macromolecular synthesis and accumulation of cytotoxic viral proteins
non-specific histological changes such as vascuolisation

47
Q

what are the differnt mechanisms of viral cytophathogenisis?

A
  • inhibition of protein synthesis
  • inhibition and degradation of DNA
  • alteration of membrane structure
  • disruption of cytoskeleton
  • syncytia formation
  • permeability
  • inclusion bodies
  • toxicity of virion components
48
Q

what are the different types of inclusion bodies?

A
  • negri bodies
  • owls eye
  • cowdy type A
  • intranuclear basophilic
  • intranucelar acidophilic
  • perinuclear cytoplasmic acidophilic
49
Q

what does syncytia formation mean?

A

in giant multicellular cells, they reproduce but stay connected to that cell, its indicative of infection

50
Q

what characteristics contribute to the severity of the disease?

A
  • cytopathic ability of virus
  • virus inoculum size
  • length of time before infection resolution
  • general health of the host
  • genetics of virus and host
  • age
  • immune status
  • immunopathology
51
Q

what does it mean by immune status?

A

-competence of the immune system
- prior immunity to the virus

52
Q

what does virus inoculum size mean?

A
  • it means viral load, the less viral particles, the faster your immune system can get on top of the infection
53
Q

give one example of the incubation period of a common viral infection?

A

chickenpox- 13-17 days

54
Q

what are inapparant viruses?

A

the infected tissuw is undamages
infection is controlled before the virus reaches target tissue, target tissue is expendable and damaged tissue is rapidly repaired
extent of damage is below funtional threshold

55
Q

what are disease and viral factors that promote transmission?

A
  • stability of viriton in environment (drying, detergent and heating)
  • transfer of virus into transmissible aerosols or secretions
  • asymptomatic transmission
  • ineffectiveness of immune response to control reoccurrence
56
Q

what are the mechanisms of viral transmission? [from most fragile virus transmitted to least fragile]

A
  • aerosols
  • food + water
  • fomites
  • sexual contact or direct contact with secretions
  • birth
  • blood transfusion
  • zoonoses (animals)
  • genetic
57
Q

what are risk factors for catching viruses?

A
  • age
  • health/ nutrition/ genetics
  • immune status
  • occupation: contact with agent or vector
  • travel history
  • lifestyle
  • sexual activity
  • children
58
Q

how are geography and season risk factors of catching viruses?

A

it means that there is a population of serongative, sisceptible people
- precence of co-factors in the enviroment (wet season= more dengue fever)
- habitat and season for arthopod vectors
- winter
- summer

59
Q

what are the modes of control to stop viral transmission?

A
  • quarantine
  • elimination of vector
  • antiviral agents
  • immunization (natural infection and vaccination)
  • changes in lifestyle (improve hygiene)
60
Q

what are the stages of organelle formation over co-evolutionary time?

A
  1. free-living and extracellular
  2. facultitive intracellular
  3. obligate intracellular
  4. obligate intracellular mutualist
  5. organelle
61
Q

how many human cells and bacterial cells are there in a human body?

A

1x10^13 human cells
1x10^14 bacterial cells

62
Q

how many human and bacterial genes are there in a human body?

A

~23,000 genes from the human genome and >1,000,000 human microbiome genes

63
Q

how many types of human cells are there in the human body?

A

~200 different cell types

64
Q

how many species of bacteria are there in and on the human body?

A

> 1000 species

65
Q

what do human git microorganisms produce?

A

enzymes
amino acids
vitamins

66
Q

what are beleived to be responsible for maturation of the gastrointestinal tract and the immune system?

A

human gut microorgansism

67
Q

where are the microorganisms in the body that can play a role in obesity?

A

human gut microorganisms

68
Q

what can a faecal matter transplant help with?

A

some disease states

69
Q

what is vibrio fischeri?

A

its a symbiont of squid and fish

70
Q

what form of nitrogen is usable for plants and what do microorgansms do to it?

A

it has to be fixed from the relatively intert N2 to biologically accesible NH3
its called the haber process in chemistry

71
Q

what does industrial process of ammonia cost of global energy?

A

it costs 1-2% of global energy production and produces 1% of manmade greenhouse gases

72
Q

what are the critical steps in root nodule formation?

A

step 1- recognition and attachment of baccterium to root hairs
step 2 - excretion of nod factors by the bacterium
step 3- bacterial invasion of the root hair
step 4- travel to the main root via the infection thread
step 5 - formation of the bacteriod state within plant cells
step 6- continued plant and bacterial division, forming the mature root nodule

73
Q

what genes direct the steps in nodulation?

A

bacterial nod genes

74
Q

what is NodD?

A

its a positive regulator that is induced by plant flavonoids

75
Q

what does NodABC do?

A

its an operon which encodes proteins that produce olgiosaccharides called Nod factors

76
Q

what are nod factors?

A

they:
- induce root hair curling
- trigger plant cell division
- signal legumes to develop root nodules

77
Q

what is legume-bacteria symbiosis characterised by?

A

it characterised by several metabolic reactions and nutrient exchange

78
Q

where can microbial symbionts be aquired form?

A

-enviromental resivoirs (horizontal trabsfer)
- parebt (vertical or heritable transmission)
- heritable symbionts of insects are obligaet (lack of free livign replicative state)

79
Q

what are primary symbionts needed for?

A

host replication

80
Q

what types of genes do primary symbionts need?

A

they only need genes for host fitness

81
Q

what types of genes do primary symbionts lose?

A
  • catabolic genes
  • pathogens normally lose anabolic genes
82
Q

what types of benifits could secondary symbionts provide?

A
  • nutritional
  • protection from enviroment
  • protection from pathogens
83
Q

how can secondary symbionts live?

A

extracellularly or by invading different cells

84
Q

what are secondary symbionts not required for?

A

reproduction

85
Q

how do primary symbionts exibit extreme gene reduction?

A
  • the genome of insect symbiont ~160 to 800kbp
  • genome of related free-living bacteria ~2 to 8 Mbp
86
Q

what can the manipulation of insect symbionts prevent?

A

the spread of diseases such as dengue fever

87
Q

what are lichen?

A

theyre leafy/ encrusting microbial symbionts

88
Q

where are lichen often found?

A

theyre often found growu=ing on bare rocks, tree trunks, house roofs or the surfaces of bare soils

89
Q

what is the mutualistic relationship between a fungus and an alga?

A

alga is photosynthetic and produces organic matter
the fungus provides a structure within which the phototrophic partner can grow and be protected from erosion

90
Q

what is the name of fresh water microbial mutualisms?

A

consortia

91
Q

what do consortia consist of?

A

green sulphur bacteria (called epibionts, they’re obligate anaerobic phototrophs ) and a flagellated rod shaped bacterium

92
Q

what two organelles have been suggested that they’re descendants of ancient prokaryotic cells (primary endosymbiosis)?

A

chloroplasts and mitochondria

93
Q

what is the supporting evidence for the endosymbiont theory?

A
  1. mitochondria and chloroplasts have their own chromosomal DNA
  2. mitochondria and chloroplasts have their own ribosomes
  3. antibiotics that affect prokaryotic ribosome function work against mitochondria and chloroplasts
  4. eukaryotic genomes often contain bacterial genes
  5. DNA sequencing reveals that mitochondrial and chloroplast DNA is phylogenetically related to bacteria
94
Q

what does mtDNA have all the hallmarks of? also what is mtDNA?

A

mitochondrial DNA has all the hallmarks of prokaryotic DNA

95
Q

what does it mean by ‘mitochondria are semi-autonomous’?

A

theyre not synthesised from scratch (de novo), but grow and divide like bacteria
they can make some of their own proteins using their own ribosomes from their own DNA

96
Q

what is secondary endosymbiosis?

A

its the process of engulfing a green or red algal cell, retaining its chloroplast and becoming phototrophic
they’re apparently common and still ongoing

97
Q

what are the phylogenetic lineages of eukarya?

A

18S rRNA genes for phylogeny of eukaryotes is far less strong for eukaryotes than 16SrRNA genes are for prokaryotes
these phylogenys have been created using other genes and molecular phylogeny is still being refined

211 - microbiology (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions