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Genetics > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Define genetics.

A

the science of dealing with heredity and variation. Seeks to find laws governing similarities and differences in individuals related by descent.

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2
Q

what makes up genetics?

A

inheritance, traits, and physical appearance.
in other words, it’s what makes you, you

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3
Q

define a gene.

A

blueprint for how the body looks.

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4
Q

what two things does heredity influence?

A

trait and character

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5
Q

what is selection used for?

A

to move the mean of the population

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6
Q

what does genetics measure and why?

A

traits, to improve animals

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7
Q

define animal genetics

A

the study of principles of inheritance of animals

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8
Q

define animal breeding

A

the application of principles of animal genetics with the goal of improving animals.

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9
Q

what is the purpose of animal breeding?

A

to improve the economic efficiency of livestock production, so the animal can reach market mode faster and cheaper.

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10
Q

what is the main tool of animal breeding

A

selection

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11
Q

what does selection do?

A

determines the parents of the next generation

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12
Q

what are the two types of selection

A

natural and artificial

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13
Q

what are the characteristics chosen for natural selection

A

strength
size
intelligence
color
defense strategies
flexibility
longevity

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14
Q

what animal was domesticated first

A

dog

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15
Q

what did domestication help with

A

resources, protection, and hunting

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16
Q

what is the domestication order

A

dog
goat
sheep
cattle
pig
llama
horse
camel
cat
chicken
guinea pig
turkey
rabbit
mouse

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17
Q

who was Robert Bakewell

A

the father of animal breeding

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18
Q

what is Bakewells purebred concept

A

in and in breeding (inbreeding to the max)

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19
Q

what is Bakewell’s process

A

set goals
early bull progeny test
record system

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20
Q

what does the purebred concept do?

A

increases homozygosity
improves uniformity

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21
Q

which sex drives gene improvement and why?

A

male, because they produce more

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22
Q

what is a downside of pure breeding

A

undesirable alleles are shown

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23
Q

what does the bull progeny test do

A

it rates the performance of offspring as opposed to the parent.

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24
Q

describe self domestication

A

select for tameness
strict captivity and limit breeding
intentional breeding
trait standardization
eliminate wild species

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25
Q

describe human domestication

A

control herd movement
eliminate problems
select for tameness
strict captivity and limited breeding
trait standardization
eliminate wild species

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26
Q

what three events led to modern genetics

A

Darwin’s “the origin of species”
Mendel’s “experiments in plant hybridization” and his two laws of segregation and independent assortment
Miescher isolating nucleic acid from pus cells.

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27
Q

who coined the term genetics?

A

Bateson

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28
Q

how many dna bases form a codon

A

3

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29
Q

why is selection used

A

to utilize fewer animals for the same amount if not more of product.

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30
Q

0-0.2 is _____ heredity
0.21-0.4 is _____ heredity
0.41-0.99 is _____ heredity

A

low
medium
high

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31
Q

heredity is not a ______ it is a __________

A

trait; measure

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32
Q

what is cryopreservation

A

freezing semen to use for AI

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33
Q

where is nuclear dna found?

A

nucleus

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34
Q

where does protein synthesis occur?

A

in the ribosomes

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35
Q

what did Miescher find in pus in 1868

A

nuclein, which is a phosphate-rich chemical from white blood cell nuclei

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36
Q

DNA has a ___________ backbone

A

phosphate

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37
Q

Describe Griffiths experiment

A

He used both smooth streptococcus pneumonia (S) which is virulent, and rough streptococcus pneumonia (R) which is nonvirulent. Injected S-strain (killed mouse), R-strain (mouse lived) heat-killed S-strain (mouse lived), and heat-killed S-strain with R-strain (mouse died).

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38
Q

dead S-strain + living R-strain = ?

A

living S-strain

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39
Q

Describe the Avery, MacLeod and McCarty experiment

A

Proved that over time, living R and dead S create living S. Protase ended in S cells, RNase resulted in S cells, ultracenfiguration results in S cells, but DNase resulted in R cells. Indicates a predominance of DNA. RNA and protein was destroyed.

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40
Q

Describe the Hershey and Chase (blender) experiment

A

Used T2 bacteriophage and bacteria. 32P for DNA and 35S for protein. the phage would attach to bacterium, and inject its genes into a host cell. the phage DNA replicates, and new particles assemble. the cell finally bursts, releasing new phage. Proved DNA was hereditary because DNA was found inside both the host and the cell.

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41
Q

what is bacteriophage

A

a virus

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42
Q

what makes up a nucleotide?

A

nitrogen base
phosphate
5-carbon sugar

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43
Q

what did Watson and Crick propose?

A

that DNA is a double helix

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44
Q

what is the diameter of DNA

A

2nm

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45
Q

A and T are _______ bonded, C and G are _________ bonded

A

double; triple

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46
Q

what is DNA

A

deoxyribonucleic acid

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47
Q

DNA is the _______________ of life

A

blue print

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48
Q

genes code for ________

A

protein

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49
Q

humans have __ chromosomes

A

46

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50
Q

cattle have __ chromosomes

A

60

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51
Q

sheep have __ chromosomes

A

54

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52
Q

goats have __ chromosomes

A

60

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53
Q

dogs have __ chromosomes

A

78

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54
Q

cats have __ chromosomes

A

38

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55
Q

chickens have __ chromosomes

A

78

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56
Q

pigs have __ chromosomes

A

38

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57
Q

turkeys have __ chromosomes

A

80

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58
Q

horses have __ chromosomes

A

64

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59
Q

donkeys have __ chromosomes

A

62

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60
Q

mules have __ chromosomes

A

63

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61
Q

camels, llamas, and aplacas __ chromosomes

A

74

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62
Q

rats have __ chromosomes

A

42

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63
Q

mouses have __ chromosomes

A

40

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64
Q

rabbits have __ chromosomes

A

44

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65
Q

what are the four DNA bases

A

adenine, thymine, guanine, cytosine

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66
Q

what base are A and G in

A

purine

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67
Q

what base are C and T in

A

pyrimidine

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68
Q

what is dna unzipped by in replication?

A

helicase

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69
Q

where are base pairs assembled

A

the parent template

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70
Q

the new DNA strand is ________ to the old one

A

complementary

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71
Q

what is DNA replication?

A

semi conservative

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72
Q

what are produced after DNA is unwound with helices

A

two daughter helices are produced

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73
Q

each strand is a _________

A

template

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74
Q

what does complementary base pairing

A

it ensures T pairs with A and G pairs with C

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75
Q

what are the four steps of replication

A
  1. original double helix
  2. stands separate
  3. complementary bases align opposite of the template
  4. enzymes link sugar-phosphate elements of aligned nucleotides in a continuous new strand
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76
Q

true or false: replication occurs at both ends

A

true

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77
Q

where does replication begin

A

the origin of replication

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78
Q

________ have multiple origins

A

eukaryotes

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79
Q

what does helicase do?

A

unwinds DNA and keeps strands from rejoining

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80
Q

what does primase do?

A

primes the DNA to find the beginning; does the majority of the work

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81
Q

how is the leading strand read?

A

5’ to 3’

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82
Q

how is the new strand read?

A

3’ to 5’

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83
Q

how is the lagging strand read?

A

3’ to 5’

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84
Q

how is the new strand from the lagging strand read

A

5’ to 3’

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85
Q

what stabilize the unwound parental DNA

A

single-stranded binding proteins

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86
Q

the leading strand is continuously ________

A

synthesized

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87
Q

the lagging strand is discontinuously ____________

A

synthesized

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88
Q

what do primase synthesize?

A

a short RNA primer, extended by DNA polymerase to form an Okazaki fragment

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89
Q

what does DNA ligase do?

A

it joins the Okazaki fragments to the growing strand

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90
Q

what does pol 3 do?

A

produces new strands of complementary DNA

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91
Q

what does pol 1 do?

A

fills in gaps between synthesized Okazaki fragments

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92
Q

what does DNA helicase do

A

unwinds the double helix

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93
Q

what do single-stranded binding proteins do?

A

keeps the helix open

94
Q

what does primase do?

A

crenate RNA primers to indicate synthesis

95
Q

what does ligase do?

A

welds together Okazaki fragments

96
Q

what do telomeres do?

A

ensure the maintenance and accurate replication of the chromosome’s end.

97
Q

what causes super coiling

A

unwinding and replication

98
Q

what does topoisomerase do?

A

an enzyme that relaxes super coils by nicking strands

99
Q

what is redundancy

A

the basis for the repair of errors that occur during replication or storage

100
Q

breakage and repair create what?

A

reciprocal products of recombination

101
Q

precision in exchange prevent __________

A

mutations

102
Q

DNA is _____________ strands

A

antiparallel

103
Q

how is RNA similar to DNA

A

they have repeating subunits and nucleotides

104
Q

how does RNA differ from DNA

A

it is single-stranded, shorter, and less stable
has uracil instead of thymine

105
Q

what is the central dogma

A

DNA - transcription - RNA - translation - protein

106
Q

what are the 3 RNA molecules

A

mRNA, rRNA, tRNA

107
Q

what does mRNA do?

A

it carries the message about what protein to make from the nucleus to the ribosome

108
Q

what is the promoter sequence

A

TATA

109
Q

once mRNA is formed, what do enzymes do and where?

A

they remove introns and leave exons

110
Q

what are introns

A

noncoding sequences

111
Q

what are exons

A

coding sequences

112
Q

what 3 things happen during transcription

A

7-methyl cap
polyadenylation (poly-A tail)
intron splicing

113
Q

what does the 7-methyl cap do

A

it prevents deflation, facilitates attachment to ribosomes, and improves mRNA stability

114
Q

what does the poly-A tail do

A

signals the end of transcription

115
Q

how many codons are there

A

64

116
Q

what are the three stop codons

A

UAA, UGA, UAG

117
Q

what is the start codon?

A

AUG

118
Q

how many amino acids are there?

A

20

119
Q

name all twenty amino acids

A
  1. l-alanyl
  2. l-arginyl
  3. l-asparaginyl
  4. l-aspartyl
  5. l-cysteinyl
  6. l-glutaminyl
  7. l-glutamyl
  8. glycyl
  9. l-histidyl
  10. lisoleucyl
  11. l-leucyl
  12. l-lysyl
  13. l-methionyl
  14. l-phenylalanyl
  15. l-prolyl
  16. l-seryl
  17. l-threonyl
  18. l-tryptophanyl
  19. l-tyrosyl
  20. l-valyl
120
Q

define translation

A

synthesis of a protein

121
Q

where does translation occur

A

in the cytoplasm of a cell

122
Q

what does tRNA do

A

brings specific amino acids to the ribosome to be assembled as a protein

123
Q

what does rRNA do

A

joins with a number of protein to form ribosomes

124
Q

how long is tRNA

A

80 nucleotides long

125
Q

what are the 6 steps in translation

A
  1. mRNA leaves the nucleus and goes to the ribosome
  2. mRNA binds to the small ribosomal unit
  3. tRNA brings an amino acid to the ribosome
  4. amino acids form a polypeptide chain
  5. tRNA is released from the ribosome
  6. other tRNA bring more amino acids to complete the chain
126
Q

where does protein synthesis occur

A

cytoplasm

127
Q

_______ determines the protein

A

order

128
Q

list the five steps of protein synthesis

A
  1. mRNA transcribes from DNA
  2. tRNA binds to amino acids
  3. amino acids bind to ribosomes
  4. peptide chain forms
  5. peptide chain is complete
129
Q

define mutation

A

a change in DNA sequence that may be passed to future generations

130
Q

define point mutation

A

single based substitution
ie: the cat saw the rat
the cat saw the hat

131
Q

define deletion

A

a small DNA segment is lost

132
Q

define insertion

A

a segment of DNA is added

133
Q

define frame-shift mutation

A

modification of the reading frame after a deletion/insertion, resulting in all codons downstream being different

134
Q

true or false: all mutations are bad

A

false

135
Q

what can good mutations do

A

allow an individual to perform better

136
Q

where does life begin

A

as a single cell

137
Q

describe mitosis

A

somatic (body) cell division
used for growth
creates identical daughter cells with the same amount of chromosomes

138
Q

define chromatid

A

identical copies of chromosomes

139
Q

define diploid

A

one complete set of daughter cells

140
Q

what does mitosis begin with

A

the parent cell

141
Q

what are the steps of mitosis? describe them

A

prophase- chromatin condense and nuclear envelope disappears
metaphase- chromosomes align at the equatorial plate
anaphase- sister chromatids separate, and centromeres divide
telophase- chromatin expand and cytoplasm divides

142
Q

describe meiosis

A

a division of gametes (sex cells)
have half the amount of chromosomes as parents in the end
goes through two divisions

143
Q

define haploid

A

daughter cells have half the chromosomes of parents

144
Q

describe meiosis 1

A

diploid to haploid
1 random chromatid is drawn to the opposite side

145
Q

describe meiosis 2

A

similar to mitosis
results in four daughter cells, all haploid

146
Q

what does meiosis end in for male sex cells

A

4 functional sperm

147
Q

what does meiosis end in for female sex cells

A

1 functional ovum and 3 polar bodies

148
Q

what are Mendel’s two laws

A

law of segregation
law of independent assortment

149
Q

describe the law of segregation

A

states each individual has two factors for each trait
these factors segregate during gamete formation
1 factor/gamete

150
Q

_______ determine characteristics

A

genes

151
Q

define homologous chromosomes

A

members of a pair and carry genes for the same traits in the same order

152
Q

define alleles

A

alternate forms of a gene for the same trait

153
Q

alleles are always found on the same ____

A

loci

154
Q

define a homologous pair

A

chromosomes with alleles for the same gene in the same location

155
Q

what does a test cross do

A

it determines the likely genotype of an individual with the dominant phenotype

156
Q

what must you have for a test cross

A

a known recessive individual

157
Q

define the law of independent assortment

A

each pair of favors assort independently without regard to how the others separate

158
Q

define gene action

A

how the genotype of a particular trait affects expression of a phenotype

159
Q

what are the five types of gene action

A

non-additive
sex-linked
sex-limited
sex-influenced
additive

160
Q

describe non-additive gene action

A

made up of qualitative traits (few genes)

161
Q

define qualitative and give examples

A

influenced by few genes
coat color, horned v polled, disease phenotype

162
Q

define quantitative and give examples

A

influenced by a lot of genes
milk production, growth trait, carcass traits

163
Q

what are types of non-additive gene action

A

complete dominance, incomplete dominance, epistasis

164
Q

what are types of epistasis

A

complete dominance, recessive epistasis, and incomplete dominance

165
Q

describe complete dominance and give an example

A

one allele masks the expression of the other
coat color in cattle

166
Q

describe incomplete dominance

A

heterozygotes do not have the same phenotype as homozygotes

167
Q

describe epistasis

A

interaction between non-allelic genes
the phenotypic effect depends on alleles present at another locus

168
Q

describe complete dominance epistasis and give an example

A

if a dominant allele is there, it will control the genotype
wool pigmentation in sheep

169
Q

give an example of incomplete dominance

A

coat color in horses

170
Q

what is the genotype of bay horses

A

CCB_

171
Q

what is the genotype of buckskin horses

A

CcB_

172
Q

what is the genotype of cremello horses

A

cc_ _

173
Q

what is the genotype of palomino horses

A

Ccbb

174
Q

what is the genotype of chestnut horses

A

CCbb

175
Q

describe sex linkage genes
and give an example

A

sex is determined by the inheritance of the entire chromosome
coat color in cats (specifically tortoiseshell and calico)

176
Q

the Y chromosome carries ____ genes

A

few

177
Q

the X chromosomes carries _____ genes

A

many

178
Q

genes are controlled by _ or _ chromosomes

A

X, Y

179
Q

what does tortoiseshell coloration prove?

A

that coat color locus is on the X chromosome

180
Q

describe recessive sex-linked gene action
give an example

A

a characteristic pattern of inheritance
Barr bodies in cats creating calico coloration

181
Q

define lionization

A

genes are randomly expressed in different sections

182
Q

what does the pie balding effect do

A

causes white fur

183
Q

define sex-influenced gene action
give an example

A

a trait with the same genotype, but a different phenotype
Hh would be a horned bull but a polled cow

184
Q

in sex-influenced expression differs between…

A

males and females

185
Q

define sex-limited and give an example

A

expression of a gene occurs only in one sex
milk production

186
Q

define cryptorchidism and what type of gene action is it

A

the non-decent of testicles into the scrotum
sex-limited

187
Q

define pleiotropy

A

one gene affects more than one trait

188
Q

define variable expressivity and give an example

A

the existence of more than one grade of a trait
skin color

189
Q

define over dominance
give an example

A

the heterozygote is superior to both homozygotes
malaria

190
Q

define incomplete penetrance
give an example

A

not every individual with the genotype exhibits the phenotype
polydactyly

191
Q

define complete penetrance

A

every individual with the genotype expresses the phenotype

192
Q

define lethal

A

embryonic death or death shortly after birt h

193
Q

define semi-lethal

A

death before puberty

194
Q

define detrimental

A

reduction in some measure of fitness/productivity

195
Q

define gene linkage

A

a condition where non-allelic genes consistently travel together through meiosis

196
Q

what are examples of genetic correlation

A

pleiotropy and gene linkage

197
Q

define exception

A

crossing over/exchange of genetic material

198
Q

define recombination

A

formation of new combinations of genes on a chromosome due to crossing over

199
Q

define complete linkage

A

no crossing over occurs

200
Q

define incomplete linkage

A

crossing over occurs

201
Q

__________ breaks occur at __________ sites on each chromosome

A

mutual; identical

202
Q

crossing over occurs more often between _________ genes

A

distant

203
Q

define additive gene action
give an example

A

involve quantitative traits; expression over a continuous range of values
milk production

204
Q

what is the cumulative effect of all genes

A

phenotype

205
Q

define polyfactorial

A

quantitative traits that have economic importance

206
Q

define heritability

A

the ratio of genetic variance to phenotypic variance

207
Q

what does heritability measure

A

the strength of the relationship between performance and breeding values for a trait

208
Q

what is h2

A

the probability an offspring will get a trait

209
Q

h2=?

A

Vg/Vp[Vg+Ve]

210
Q

Vg=

A

Vbv+Vgcv

211
Q

what is the mcv based off of?

A

the pairing of alleles

212
Q

what does broad sense h2=

A

Vg/Vp

213
Q

narrow sense h2=

A

Vbv/Vp

214
Q

what are the two HWE equations

A
  1. p+q=1
    p^2+2pq+q^2=1
215
Q

HWE is mostly a _____________ population with a lot of ___________

A

hypothetical; assumption

216
Q

what are the HW principles

A

genetic drift, mutation, recombination, and selection q

217
Q

define population genetics

A

mechanisms acting within a population

218
Q

define hardy Weinberg principle

A

in a large, randomly mating population, gene/allelic and genotypic frequencies will remain constant from generation to generation

219
Q

define genetic drift

A

random traits that happen by chance

220
Q

define natural selection

A

the best animals reproduce

221
Q

define mutation

A

changes in chromosomes/genes

222
Q

define migration

A

movement

223
Q

define population

A

a group of individuals within a species that is capable of interbreeding and producing fertile offspring

224
Q

give the HWE requirement and then its violations

A

large population genetic drift
random mating inbreeding
no mutation mutation
no natural selection natural selection
no migration migration

225
Q

what would p and q equal if AA=320, Aa=160 and aa=20

A

frequency= 0.64, 0.32, 0.04
doubled, p=0.8, q=0.2

226
Q

what protein is central to both the initiation and elongation of transcription

A

RNA polymerase

227
Q

___________ _________ determines which strand is transcribed

A

promoter sequence

228
Q

what does transcription end with

A

a poly-A tail

229
Q

how does translation end

A

with a stop codon

230
Q

list five differences between DNA replication and RNA transcription

A

Replication is for cell multiplication and transcription is for protein synthesis
replication is bi-directional while transcription is unidirectional
replication uses thymine and transcription uses uracil
replication is double-stranded and transcription is single-stranded
replication uses helicase, transcription has no need for helices

231
Q

what are benefits of splicing

A

it makes mRNA stable
attaches easily to chromosomes
facilitates nuclear export

232
Q

what are the requirements for HWE? what are the violations?

A

large population size –> genetic drift
random mating –> inbreeding
no mutations –> mutations
no natural selection –> natural selection
no migration –> migration

Genetics (5 decks)

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