CSCS Review Note 400Q Bank Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Each muscle fiber is surrounded by a connective tissue called? πŸŸ₯
    a. Fasiciculi
    b. Perimysium
    c. Endomysium
    d. Epimysium
A

c. Endomysium βœ…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. Which off the following identifies the layer of connective tissue enveloping a bundle of muscle fibers? πŸŸ₯
    A. Endomysium
    B. Perimysium
    C. Epimysium
    D. Endomysium
A

B. Perimysium βœ…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. Which of the following structures of a sarcomere shrinks in the pectoralis major muscle during the concentric action of a bench press? πŸŸ₯
    A. A-band
    B. M-line
    C. H-zone
    D. Z-line
A

C. H-zone βœ…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. During a typical electrocardiogram, atrial depolarization is represented by?
    a P-wave
    b. QRS complex
    c. T-wave
    d. U-wave
A

a P-wave βœ…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. Which of the following represents a muscle of expiration? πŸŸ₯
    a. Scalene
    b. External Intercostal
    c. Internal Intercostal
    d. Anterior Serratus
A

c. Internal Intercostal βœ…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. The amount of force produced by a muscle at any given time is directly related to which of the following.
    A. The number of myosin cross bridge heads that are attached to actin filaments
    B. The number of actin cross bridge heads that are attached to myosin filaments
    C. The strength of the attachment between the myosin cross bridge heads and the actin filaments
    D. The strength of the attachment between the actin cross bridge heads and the myosin filaments
A

A. The number of myosin cross bridge heads that are attached to actin filaments βœ…

πŸ’‘ MPS = Hypertrophy = More Contractile Tissue

Muscle protein synthesis (MPS) is the metabolic process where incorporation of amino acids into bound skeletal muscle proteins. Muscle proteins can be crudely classified into

  1. Contractile myofibrillar proteins (i.e., myosin, actin, tropomyosin, troponin)
  2. Energy producing mitochondrial proteins.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. When a motor unit is stimulated, all of its innervated muscle fibers fully contract due to
    A. the size principle.
    B. the principle of selective recruitment.
    C. the all-or-none law.
    D. muscle tetanus.
A

C. the all-or-none law. βœ…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. When punting a football, the punter’s leg is stretched just prior to making contact with the football. Which of the following structures detects and responds to that stretch by reflexively increasing muscle activity? πŸŸ₯
    A. Golgi tendon organ
    B. Muscle spindle
    C. Extrafusal muscle
    D. Pacinian corpuscle
A

B. Muscle spindle βœ…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. Which component of the electrical conduction system of the heart has the greatest discharge rate? πŸŸ₯
    A. SA Node
    B. AV Node
    C. AV Bundle
    D. Purkinje Fibers
A

A. SA Node βœ…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. During a session of intense aerobic exercise, what percentage of total body energy is required for pulmonary ventilation? πŸŸ₯
    A. 5%
    B. 10%
    C. 20%
    D. 30%
A

B. 10% βœ…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. A lever in which the muscle force and resistive force act on opposite sides of the fulcrum is referred to as?
    a. First class
    b. Second class
    c. Third class
    d. Fourth class
A

a. First class βœ…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. A volleyball player is performing standing plantar flexion against resistance. Which of the following types of levers occurs at the ball of the foot during this exercise? πŸŸ₯
    a First class
    b. Second class
    c. Third class
    d. Fourth class
A

b. Second class βœ…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. Which of the following shoulder movements and planes of action are associated with a tennis backhand?
    a. Adduction/frontal
    b. Abduction/frontal
    c. Adduction/transverse
    d. Abduction/transverse
A

d. Abduction/transverse βœ…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. Which of the following represents the equation for Power? πŸŸ₯
    a. Force Γ— Distance
    b. Work / Distance
    c. Force Γ— Time
    d. Work / Time
A

d. Work / Time βœ…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. How much work is required to lift a 100 kg barbell 2 m for 5 repetitions? πŸŸ₯
    Π°. 9,800 J
    b. 1,000 J
    c. 1,000 W
    d. 9,800 W
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. If it takes 30 seconds to lift a 100 kg barbell 2 m for 6 repetitions, what is the power output? πŸŸ₯
    a. 36,000 W
    b. 392 W
    c. 40 W
    d. 36 W
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. Which type of muscle arrangement is NOT matched with the correct muscle example?
    a. Rectus femoris: Bipennate
    b. Biceps Brachi: Longitudinal
    c. Deltoid: Multipennate
    d. Gluteus Medius: Radiate
A

b. Biceps Brachi: Longitudinal βœ…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. How does the patella increase the mechanical advantage of the quadriceps muscle group? πŸŸ₯
    A. It increases the area in which the quadriceps tendon exerts force
    B. It maintains the moment arm through which the quadriceps tendon exerts force
    C. It increases the length of the quadriceps tendon
    D. It provides another surface for the quadriceps tendon to exert force
A

B. It maintains the moment arm through which the quadriceps tendon exerts force βœ…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. As the moment arm of the applied force lengthens, which of the following describes the resultant effect on mechanical advantage? πŸŸ₯
    A. It increases
    B. It decreases
    C. There is no change
    D. There is not enough information
A

A. It increases βœ…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. Which of the following lever classes has the fulcrum at one end and the effort is applied between the fulcrum and the load? πŸŸ₯
    A. Class I lever
    B. Class II lever
    C. Class III lever
    D. Class IV lever
A

C. Class III lever βœ…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. Which of the following represents the equation for work? πŸŸ₯
    A. Force X Distance
    B. Force / Time
    C Force X Time
    D. Distance / Time
A

A. Force X Distance βœ…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  1. When comparing the power produced by two athletes performing the back squat, the strength and conditioning professional should use which of the following formulae to calculate power? πŸŸ₯
    A. force X distance
    B. Sets X rep X weight lifted
    C. Work / time
    D. acceleration / force
A

C. Work / time βœ…

Power = Work / Time
Work = Force x Distance
Volume = Sets x Rep x Weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  1. Using the International System of Units and dividing Joules (J) by Seconds (s), will give us what unit of measurement?
    A. Newtons
    B. Meters
    C. Force
    D. Watts
A

D. Watts βœ…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
  1. How much work is required to lift a 75 kg barbell, 1.75 m for 6 repetitions?
    A. 82.75 J
    B. 787.5 J
    C. 4,410 J
    D. 7,717.5 J
A

πŸ’‘ 75KG Weight x 9.8 x 1.75m x 6 reps

D. 7,717.5 J βœ…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
  1. It took an American football lineman 14 seconds to complete 10 repetitions of a 102 kg
    bench press. If the bar had to travel 1.47 meters each repetition, what was the average power output during this set? πŸŸ₯
    A. 107.1 W
    B. 1,049.58 W
    C. 14,694.12 W
    D. 20,991.6 W
A

πŸ’‘ ( 102 KG x 9.8 x 1.47 x 10 ) / 14 Secs

B. 1,049.58 W βœ…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
  1. How would the muscle fiber arrangements of the rectus abdominal muscle be classified?
    A. Longitudinal
    B. Fusiform
    C. Bipennate
    D. Unipennate
A

A. Longitudinal βœ…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q
  1. A muscle has the greatest capability to generate force when it is at which of the following states of length?
    A. Stretched
    B. Shortened
    C. Contracted
    D. Resting
A

D. Resting βœ…

  • At resting length: actin and myosin filaments lie next to each other; maximal number of potential cross-bridge sites are available; the muscle can generate the greatest force.
  • Muscle force capability is greatest when the muscle is at its resting length because of increased opportunity for actin-myosin cross-bridges.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
  1. Which of the following pathways/systems has the highest capacity for energy production? πŸŸ₯
    a. Phosphagen
    b. Slow glycolysis
    c. Oxidation of carbohydrates
    d. Oxidation of fats and proteins
A

d. Oxidation of fats and proteins βœ…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
  1. A male athlete fatigues during the running of a marathon and must pull out of the race, which is the most probable factor that limited his performance in the race. βœ…
    a. Depleted creatine phosphate
    b. Depleted muscle glycogen
    c. Depleted fat stores
    d. Low pH
A

b. Depleted muscle glycogen βœ…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q
  1. ATP used during the 400-m dash would be primarily supplied from what energy system? πŸŸ₯
    a. Phosphagen
    b. Slow glycolysis
    c. Fast glycolysis
    d. Oxidative
A

c. Fast glycolysis βœ…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q
  1. Which energy system results in the formation of the organic end product lactic acid? βœ…
    a. Phophagen
    b. Slow glycolysis
    c. Fast glycolysis
    d. Oxidative
A

c. Fast glycolysis βœ…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q
  1. The Creatine Kinase reaction provides energy by catalyzing the synthesis of ATP from which of the following? πŸŸ₯
    A. Adenosine Diphosphate and Creatine Phosphate
    B. Adenosine Diphosphate and Glucose
    C. Creatine Phosphate and Glucose
    D. Adenosine Monophosphate and Creatine Phosphate
A

A. Adenosine Diphosphate and Creatine Phosphate βœ…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q
  1. Lactate will NOT be produced if which of the following is present in sufficient quantities?
    A. Oxygen
    B. Glucose
    C. Glycogen
    D. Sodium
A

A. Oxygen βœ…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q
  1. What would be the primary energy system used for a male athlete running the 400m hurdles in the Olympics? πŸŸ₯
    A. Phosphagen
    B. Phophagen and Fast Glycolysis
    C. Fast Glycolysis
    D. Oxidative
A

C. Fast Glycolysis βœ…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q
  1. The degradation of one blood glucose molecule via the oxidative energy system produces approximately how many ATP? πŸŸ₯
    A. 35
    B. 38
    C. 41
    D. 42
A

B. 38 βœ…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q
  1. Which of the following energy substrates cannot be depleted during extreme exercise intensities or durations? πŸŸ₯
    a. creatine phosphate
    b. glycogen
    c. water
    d. ATP
A

d. ATP βœ…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q
  1. Which of the following reactions is the primary cause of metabolic acidosis (i.e., the decrease in intramuscular pH during high-intensity, fatiguing exercise)? πŸŸ₯
    a. ATP β†’ ADP + P + H+
    b. pyruvate + NADH β†’ lactate + NAD i
    c. ADP + creatine phosphate β†’ ATP + creatine
    d. fructose-6-phosphate β†’ fructose-1,6-bisphosphate
A

a. ATP β†’ ADP + P + H+ βœ…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q
  1. All of the following are physiological roles of growth hormone EXCEPT
    A. Increase glycogen synthesis
    B. Increase protein synthesis
    C. Increase lipolysis
    D. Increase collagen synthesis
A

A. Increase glycogen synthesis βœ…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q
  1. Catecholamines act as all of the following EXCEPT? πŸŸ₯
    A. Central motor stimulators
    B. Peripheral vascular dilators
    C. Enhanced enzyme systems
    D. Vasoconstrictors
A

D. Vasoconstrictors βœ…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q
  1. For women still having a menstrual cycle, which of the following hormones is higher than men at rest? πŸŸ₯
    A. Cortisol
    B. Insulin
    C. Growth Hormone
    D. Testosterone
A

C. Growth Hormone βœ…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q
  1. Which of the following represents a physiological action of epinephrine? πŸŸ₯
    A. Decreased Blood Sugar
    B. Increases Cardiac Output
    C. Stimulates Analgesia
    D. Increases body fluids
A

B. Increases Cardiac Output βœ…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q
  1. Which of the following represents a physiological role of Growth Hormone?
    A. Increases glucose utilization
    B. Increases glycogen synthesis
    C. Decreases retention of sodium
    D. Increases retention of potassium
A

D. Increases retention of potassium βœ…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q
  1. All of the following are functions of Human Growth Hormone EXCEPT? πŸŸ₯
    a) Increased bone and muscle growth
    b) Increased uptake of glucose
    c) Decreased uptake of amino acids
    d) Increased utilization of fatty acids
A

c) Decreased uptake of amino acids βœ…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q
  1. Which of the following have affects such as lipolysis and thermogenesis and have been found to increase lean mass and decrease stored fat? πŸŸ₯
    a) Beta-Adrenergic Agonists
    b) Erythropoietin
    c) Human Chorionic Gonadotropin
    d) Growth Hormone
A

πŸ’‘ Key: lipolysis and thermogenesis

a) Beta-Adrenergic Agonists βœ…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q
  1. During the performance of high intensity anaerobic exercise accumulation of which of the following in working skeletal muscle leads to decreased performance? πŸŸ₯
    A. ATP
    B. Creatine Phosphate
    C. Hydrogen Ions
    D. Calcium Ions
A

C. Hydrogen Ions βœ…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q
  1. Which of the following is a side effect associated with caffeine? πŸŸ₯
    A. Bradycardia
    B. Lethargy
    C. Increased Urine Output
    D. Hallucinations
A

C. Increased Urine Output βœ…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q
  1. Which of the following would be an appropriate depth jump box height for a male shot putter who is 6’5” and weighs 340 lbs.?
    A. 1 inch
    B. 12 inches
    C. 24 inches
    D. 36 inches
A

πŸ’‘ usually 30-32 inch, range from 12-42 inch, for 200+ lb <18 inch

B. 12 inches βœ…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q
  1. You are watching a video of a sprinter at maximum velocity, during the early flight phase which of the following decelerates backward rotation of the thigh? πŸŸ₯
    A. Concentric Hip Flexion
    B. Eccentric Hip Flexion
    C. Concentric Knee Extension
    D. Eccentric Knee Flexion
A

B. Eccentric Hip Flexion βœ…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q
  1. When changing direction in response to movements by a wide receiver a defensive back is instructed to focus on which of the following body parts of the wide receiver βœ…
    A. Head
    B. Arms
    C. Hips
    D. Legs
A

C. Hips

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q
  1. Which of the following program design variables leads to the HIGHEST serum growth hormone concentrations after an anaerobic training session? πŸŸ₯
    A. Performing an exercise at a 10RM intensity with a 1 minute rest between sets
    B. Performing an exercise at a 10RM intensity with a 3 minute rest between sets
    C. Performing an exercise at a 5RM intensity with a 1 minute rest between sets
    D. Performing an exercise at a 5RM intensity with a 3 minute rest between sets
A

A. Performing an exercise at a 10RM intensity with a 1 minute rest between sets βœ…

51
Q
  1. Which of the following plyometric jump drills has the HIGHEST intensity? πŸŸ₯
    A. Split Squat Jump
    B. Jump to Box
    C. Single Leg Vertical Jump
    D. Jump over Barrier
A

C. Single Leg Vertical Jump βœ…

52
Q
  1. Which of the following is a test of maximum muscular power? πŸŸ₯
    A. 1 RM Bench Press
    B. T-Test
    C. Standing Long Jump
    D. 1 RM Back Squat
A

C. Standing Long Jump βœ…

53
Q
  1. During spring training a baseball player is administered a physical and underwent a battery of strength tests. Based upon the results below, his training program should emphasize improvement in which of the following areas? πŸŸ₯
    Height: 6’1”
    Weight: 240 Ibs.
    % Body Fat: 28%
    1 RM Bench Press: 315 lbs.
    1 RM Squat: 390 lbs.
    A. Upper body strength
    B. Lower body strength
    C. Body composition
    D. Aerobic endurance
A

C. Body composition βœ…

54
Q
  1. When looking at the results from the baseball team’s 1 RM back squat testing, the strength and conditioning coach notices that 3 results are significantly lower than the rest, while the remaining scores are fairly similar. Which of the following measures of central tendency is most appropriate for these results? πŸŸ₯
    A. Mean
    B. Median
    C. Mode
    D. Standard Deviation
A

B. Median βœ…

55
Q
  1. The tests below should be administered in which order to ensure reliability? πŸŸ₯
    I. 1 RM Deadlift
    II. Hexagon Test
    III. Flexibility
    IV. 400 m Run
    A. II, I, IV, III
    B. II, IV, I, III
    C. III, II, I, IV
    D. I, II, IV, IlI
A

C. III, II, I, IV βœ…

  1. Nonfatiguing tests
  2. Agility tests
  3. Maximum power and strength tests
  4. Sprint tests
  5. Local muscular endurance tests
  6. Fatiguing anaerobic capacity tests (sprint / short distance run ≀ 800 meter )
  7. Aerobic capacity tests (long distance run)
56
Q
  1. Which of the following sequences of tests will produce the most reliable results? πŸŸ₯
    l. Vertical Jump
    ll. 1.5 mile run
    lll. T-Test
    IV. 1 RM Bench Press
    A. l, lI, III, IV
    B. I, III, IV, II
    C. IV, II, III, I
    D. I, IV, II, Ill
A

B. I, III, IV, II βœ…

57
Q
  1. The ideal performance state includes all of the following EXCEPT?
    a) Absence of fear
    b) A wide focus of attention
    c) A sense of effortlessness
    d) A distortion of time and space
A

b) A wide focus of attention βœ…

58
Q
  1. The ability to effective manage many environmental stimuli simultaneously refers to which dispositional style? πŸŸ₯
    a) Broad internal attentional focus
    b) Overloaded by external stimuli
    c) Broad external attentional focus
    d) Overloaded by internal stimuli
A

c) Broad external attentional focus βœ…

59
Q
  1. The women’s soccer coach felt the team hustled especially hard at today’s practice and announced that no wind sprints would be required at the end of practice. Which type of motivational phenomena does this relate to?
    a) Positive reinforcement
    b) Achievement motivation
    c) Intrinsic motivation
    d) Negative reinforcement
A

d) Negative reinforcement βœ…

60
Q
  1. All of the following factors affect optimal arousal and subsequent performance
    EXCEPT?
    a) Sex
    b) Skill level
    c) Task complexity
    d) Trait Anxiety
A

a) Sex βœ…

61
Q
  1. A gymnast has a desire to perform to the best of her potential. This is an example of? πŸŸ₯
    a) Dissociation
    b) Achievement motivation
    c) Intrinsic motivation
    d) Extrinsic Motivation
A

c) Intrinsic motivation βœ…

62
Q
  1. Which of the following are indicative of the ideal performance state? πŸŸ₯
    I. A broad focus of attention
    ll. Clear thinking about performance
    lll. The absence of fear
    lV. A sense of personal control
    A. I, III, IV only
    B. II, III, IV only
    C. II, IV only
    D. III, IV only
A

lll. The absence of fear
lV. A sense of personal control

D. III, IV only βœ…

63
Q
  1. The head football coach benches the starting quarterback for the first quarter of the game after the quarterback missed a mandatory team meeting. This is an example of which of the following? πŸŸ₯
    A. Positive Reinforcement
    B. Negative Reinforcement
    C. Positive Punishment
    D. Negative Punishment
A

D. Negative Punishment βœ…

64
Q
  1. How does a novice basketball player’s optimal level of arousal differ from that of a professional? πŸŸ₯
    A. It is less
    B. It is more
    C. It is the same
    D. It is not related to skill level
A

A. It is less βœ…

65
Q
  1. Which of the following will a female soccer player utilize the MOST during a game? πŸŸ₯
    a) Carbohydrate
    b) Fat
    c) Protein
    d) Lipid
A

a) Carbohydrate βœ…

66
Q
  1. What is the recommended HDL level in order to protect against heart disease? πŸŸ₯
    a) Greater than or equal to 60
    b) Greater than 30
    c) Equal to 20
    d) Less than 30
A

a) Greater than or equal to 60 βœ…

67
Q
  1. A college soccer player who excludes dairy from her diet will have a hard time meeting her nutritional requirements for which of the following nutrients? πŸŸ₯
    l. Protein
    ll. Vitamin D
    lll. Magnesium
    IV. Potassium
    A. I and II only
    B. Il only
    C. I, II, IV only
    D. Il, and IV only
A

D. Il, and IV only βœ…β†’ Vitamin D & Potassium

68
Q
  1. Which of the following identifies the equation for sweat rate? πŸŸ₯
    A. (Pre-Exercise Body Weight - Urine Produced) + (Post Exercise Body Weight +Fluid
    Intake During Exercise)
    B. (Pre-Exercise Body Weight + Fluid Intake During Exercise) - (Post-Exercise Body
    Weight + Urine Produced)
    C. (Pre-Exercise Body Weight -Post-Exercise Body Weight) + (Fluid Intake During
    Exercise - Urine Produced)
    D. (Pre-Exercise Body Weight + Urine Produced) - (Post-Exercise Body Weight + Fluid
    Intake During Exercise)
A

C. (Pre-Exercise Body Weight -Post-Exercise Body Weight) + (Fluid Intake During
Exercise - Urine Produced) βœ…

69
Q
  1. A 6’6” college football offensive lineman weighs 157 kg and has an average daily intake of 5,800 kilocalories. During the offseason he would like to maintain his muscle but decrease his weight by 10 kg. A general guideline would be for him to consume which of the following each day? πŸŸ₯
    A. 314 g of protein and a 1,500 kilocalorie deficit
    B. 235 g of protein and a 500 kilocalorie deficit
    C. 360 g of protein and a 500 kilocalorie deficit
    D. 190 g of protein and a 1,500 kilocalorie deficit
A

C. 360 g of protein and a 500 kilocalorie deficit βœ…

70
Q
  1. A 6’4” college quarterback weighs 180 Ibs. and desires to gain muscle mass and strength. He has a daily intake of 3200 kilocalories that consists of 26% fat, 14% protein, and 60% carbohydrate. Which of the following guidelines will be MOST important to achieve his goal? πŸŸ₯
    A. Decrease fat, increase protein and carbohydrate
    B. Increase fat, decrease carbohydrate, and increase protein
    C. Maintain current proportions but increase fat, protein, and carbohydrate consumption
    D. Increase protein, decrease fat, decrease carbohydrate
A

C. Maintain current proportions but increase fat, protein, and carbohydrate consumption βœ…

Weight 81.6kg

Protein 112g β†’ 115g for 1.4g per kg

Fats 92g β†’ 1.15g per kg

71
Q
  1. Which of the following is warning sign for Anorexia Nervosa? πŸŸ₯
    A. Disappearance of large amounts of food
    B. Disappearing after eating
    C. Preoccupation with calories
    D. Increased time spent exercising
A
  • C. Preoccupation with calories βœ…They don’t eat high calorie high fat diet
72
Q
  1. An athlete would gain a physiological benefit from carbohydrate consumption during which of the following activities? πŸŸ₯
    I. 5k Run
    ll. Soccer Match
    lll. Half Marathon
    IV. College Wrestling Match
    A. I, Ill
    B. l, ll, lll
    C. II, III
    D. II, III, IV
A

C. II, III βœ…Soccer & Half Marathon

73
Q
  1. Which of the following is classified as a disaccharide? πŸŸ₯
    A. Starch
    B. Fiber
    C. Glycogen
    D. Lactose
A

D. Lactose βœ…Glucose + Galactose

74
Q
  1. When selecting a test for use all of the following should be taken into account EXCEPTπŸŸ₯
    a) Energy System Used
    b) Temperature
    c) Height of Athlete
    d) Sex of Athlete
A

c) Height of Athlete βœ…

75
Q
  1. You are about to perform a sequence of tests on a male basketball player. The tests are vertical jump, skinfold measurements, 1 RM back squat, and T-Test. What should be the proper sequence of these tests? πŸŸ₯
    a) T-Test, 1 RM back squat, Vertical jump, Skinfold measurements
    b) Skinfold measurements, T-Test, 1 RM back squat, Vertical jump
    c) Skinfold measurements, Vertical jump, T-Test, 1 RM back squat
    d) T-Test, 1 RM back squat, Skinfold measurements, Vertical jump
A

c) Skinfold measurements, Vertical jump, T-Test, 1 RM back squat βœ…

76
Q
  1. You would like to test a freshmen soccer player’s aerobic capacity, which of the following activities would be the best measure? πŸŸ₯
    a) 100 meter dash
    b) 200 meter dash
    c) 400 meter dash
    d) 1600 meter dash
A

d) 1600 meter dash βœ…

  • 400 yard dash is 70-90 secs for Novice and 40-45 secs for Elite.
  • 100 meter dash is the longest for speed
77
Q
  1. Which of the following represents a correct procedure during the application of the Sit-and-Reach-Test? πŸŸ₯
    a) Wear shoes
    b) Use Ballistic stretches to warm up the low back and hamstrings
    c) The tester may hold the athlete’s kneed down if necessary
    d) Reach forward as fast as possible
A

c) The tester may hold the athlete’s kneed down if necessary βœ…

78
Q
  1. When taking skin-folds of an athlete the mid-axilla measurement is represented by which of the following? πŸŸ₯
    a) Diagonal fold on the midaxillary line at the level of the nipples
    b) Vertical fold on the midaxillary line at the level of the nipples
    c) Diagonal fold on the midaxillary line at the level of the xiphoid process
    d) Vertical fold on the midaxillary line at the level of the xiphoid process
A

d) Vertical fold on the midaxillary line at the level of the xiphoid process βœ…

79
Q
  1. A strength and conditioning professional is conducting the T-Test on high school running backs. The initial movement is a forward sprint and touch of a cone. Which of the following represents the next movement in the testing sequence? πŸŸ₯
    A. Turn and sprint to the left
    B. Continue to face forward and shuffle to the left
    C. Run backward to the starting point
    D. Continue to face forward and shuffle to the right
A

B. Continue to face forward and shuffle to the left βœ…

80
Q
  1. All of the following are reasons for disqualification of a T-Test EXCEPT? βœ…
    A. During the initial movement, the athlete sprints forward only 10 yards
    B. The athlete crosses one foot in front of the other
    C. The athlete fails to touch a cone
    D. The athlete turns to the right
A

A. During the initial movement, the athlete sprints forward only 10 yards βœ…

81
Q
  1. A high school soccer player was tested during the offseason and here are the results
    Height: 5”9”
    Weight: 158 Ibs.
    1 RM Bench Press: 190 lbs.
    1 RM Squat: 245 Ibs.
    T-Test: 12 seconds
    Sit and Reach: 15 inches
    Vertical Jump: 25 inches
    40 yard Sprint: 4.7 seconds
    Which of the following needs improvement?
    A. Muscular strength and power
    B. Muscular power and speed
    C. Agility and Flexibility
    D. Flexibility and Speed
A

C. Agility and Flexibility βœ…

T-Test: 12 seconds

Sit and Reach: 15 inches

82
Q
  1. A college softball player was administered a battery of test 12 weeks before the start of the season. Here are the results πŸŸ₯
    Height: 5’6”
    Weight: 120 Ibs.
    Percent Body Fat: 18.5%
    1 RM Bench Press: 90 Ibs
    1 RM Squat: 150 Ibs.
    Vertical Jump: 19 inches
    Sit and Reach: 22.5 inches
    Which of the following should her program focus on?
    A. Body Composition
    B. Upper Body Strength
    C. Muscular Power
    D. Upper Body Strength and Body Composition
A

B. Upper Body Strength βœ…

83
Q
  1. Which of the following tests is MOST appropriate for assessing a professional football offensive lineman? πŸŸ₯
    A. 1 RM Bench Press
    B. 40 yard sprint
    C. Sit and Reach
    D. 1.5 mile run
A

A. 1 RM Bench Press βœ…

84
Q
  1. A female collegiate soccer player was administered a battery of tests, and here are the
    results πŸŸ₯
    Height: 5’8”
    Weight: 137 Ibs.
    1RM Bench Press: 110 lbs.
    1RM Squat: 155 Ibs.
    Vertical Jump: 18 inches
    T-Test: 10.6 seconds
    VO2 Max: 33 ml/kg/min
    Which of the following needs improvement?
    A. Muscular Power
    B. Upper Body Strength
    C. Agility
    D. Aerobic Capacity
A

D. Aerobic Capacity βœ…β†’ VO2 Max: 33 ml/kg/min

85
Q
  1. A strength and conditioning professional will be administering a 3 mile run to the lacrosse team in 91Β° heat. Which of the following guidelines should be followed in order to minimize the health risks associated with these conditions? πŸŸ₯
    A. Allow the athletes I day to acclimatize to the heat
    B. Make sure the athletes are well hydrated 8 hours before the test
    C. Measure the relative humidity
    D. Instruct the athletes to wear tight fitting dark clothing
A

C. Measure the relative humidity βœ…

86
Q
  1. A 6’4” 190 Ib. Division I basketball player is 21 years old and had the following test results.
    1RM Bench Press: 230 Ibs.
    1RM Squat: 280 Ibs.
    1RM Power Clean: 180 Ibs.
    T-Test: 8.8 seconds
    Which of the following needs improvement? πŸŸ₯
    A. Agility
    B. Power
    C. Lower Body Strength
    D. Upper Body Strength
A

B. Power βœ…β†’ 1RM Power Clean: 180 Ibs.

87
Q
  1. A 24 year old professional male tennis player was administered a battery of tests and had the following results.
    1RM Bench Press: 220 Ibs.
    1RM Squat: 265 Ibs.
    T-Test: 9.2 seconds
    1.5 Mile Run: 15:53
    Sit and Reach: 20.5 inches
    His strength and conditioning program should focus on improving which of the following? πŸŸ₯
    A. Aerobic Endurance
    B. Flexibility
    C. Agility
    D. Muscular Strength
A

A. Aerobic Endurance βœ…β†’ 1.5 Mile Run < 10 minutes

88
Q
  1. When performing the pro agility test the athlete initially sprints 5 yards to the line on the left. Which of the following maneuvers occurs next? πŸŸ₯
    A. Sprints 5 yards to the right
    B. Sprints 10 yards to the right
    C. Springs 5 yards forward
    D. Sprints 10 yards forward
A

πŸ’‘ Agility Test < 10 Secs, Pro Agility Test < 5 Secs

B. Sprints 10 yards to the right βœ…

89
Q
  1. A nutritionist is testing a male basketball player using the Jackson Pollack 3 site body composition formula. Which of the following skinfold sites should be used? πŸŸ₯
    A. Triceps, suprailiac, thigh
    B. Triceps, abdomen, thigh
    C. Chest, abdomen, thigh
    D. Abdomen, subscapular, calf
A

C. Chest, abdomen, thigh βœ…

90
Q
  1. A 5’10” 187 lb. college football defensive back was administered a battery of tests and had the following results.
    1RM Bench Press: 265 Ibs.
    1RM Squat: 320 Ibs.
    T-Test: 8.6 seconds
    Standing Long Jump: 65 inches
    Sit and Reach Test: 21.5 inches
    1.5 mile run: 9:59 seconds
    Which of the following exercises is the MOST beneficial to add to his training program? πŸŸ₯
    A. Barbell Bench Press
    B. Contract Relax PNF Stretching of his hamstrings
    C. Long Slow Distance Training of 5 kilometers
    D. Power Clean
A

D. Power Clean βœ…β†’ No Power Movement β€œFast Speed Strength”

91
Q
  1. In order to test the aerobic capacity of the members of the women’s soccer team, a collegiate strength and conditioning specialist could utilize which of the following tests? πŸŸ₯
    A. 300 yard shuttle
    B. Hexagon Test
    C. Yo-Yo Intermittent Recovery Test
    D. Margaria-Kalamen Test
A

A. 300 yard shuttle β†’ Less than 60 Seconds
B. Hexagon Test β†’ 18 Jump in < 18 Seconds
C. Yo-Yo Intermittent Recovery Test β†’ 6-20 mins βœ…
D. Margaria-Kalamen Test β†’ Anaerobic Power

92
Q
  1. Which of the following is utilized to calculate the Reactive Strength Index? πŸŸ₯
    A. Jump Height X Contact Time
    B. Jump Height / Contact Time
    C. (Box Height - Jump Height) Γ— Contact Time
    D. (Box Height - Jump Height) / Contact Time
A

B. Jump Height / Contact Time βœ…

93
Q
  1. When administering the partial curl up test, the strength and conditioning professional should set the metronome to how many beats per minute? πŸŸ₯
    A. 10
    B. 20
    C. 30
    D. 40
A

D. 40 βœ…

94
Q
  1. When is the Yo-Yo Intermittent Recovery Test Terminated? πŸŸ₯
    A. The first time the start line is not reached
    B. After 15 minutes
    C. Inability of an athlete to maintain the required pace for two trials
    D. After 400 m
A

C. Inability of an athlete to maintain the required pace for two trials βœ…

95
Q
  1. Which of the following would cause a trial of the Star Excursion Balance Test to be discarded? πŸŸ₯
    I. Athlete remains facing in the beginning direction
    II. Athlete maintains start and return position for 1 second
    III. Athlete rests 30 seconds between reaches
    IV. Athlete does not touch the line
    A. I, II, IV only
    B. II, IV only
    C. III, IV only
    D. II, III, IV only
A

C. III, IV only βœ…

III. Athlete rests 30 seconds between reaches

IV. Athlete does not touch the line

96
Q
  1. All of the following are types of basic PNF stretching EXCEPT? πŸŸ₯
    a) Hold-Relax
    b) Contract-Relax
    c) Hold-Relax with Antagonist Contraction
    d) Hold-Relax with Agonist Contraction
A

c) Hold-Relax with Antagonist Contraction βœ…

97
Q
  1. A golfer would like to incorporate PNF stretching into his program to improve his flexibility, and asks you what the most effective PNF stretching technique is? πŸŸ₯
    a) Hold-Relax
    b) Contract-Relax
    c) Hold-Relax with Antagonist Contraction
    d) Hold-Relax with Agonist Contraction
A

d) Hold-Relax with Agonist Contraction βœ…

Is the most effective PNF stretching technique due to facilitation via both reciprocal and autogenic inhibition

98
Q
  1. Contracting the hamstrings muscle group while it is passively being stretched stimulates the Golgi Tendon Organ and allows which of the following? βœ…
    a) Relaxation of the hamstrings muscle group by relaxing the hip flexors
    b) Relaxation of the hip flexors by contracting the hamstrings
    c) Relaxation of the hip flexors by the contraction of the hip flexors
    d) Relaxation of the hamstrings by contraction of the hamstrings
A

d) Relaxation of the hamstrings by contraction of the hamstrings βœ…

99
Q
  1. You are observing a group of football players performing the deadlift, which of the following is a common error? πŸŸ₯
    a) slowly flexing the hips and knees during the downward movement
    b) keeping the elbows extended
    c) extending the knees before the hips during the upward movement
    d) keeping the bar as close to the shins as possible
A

c) extending the knees before the hips during the upward movement βœ…

100
Q
  1. The minimum landing surface dimensions for a plyometric box is πŸŸ₯
    a) 18 x 24 inches
    b) 16 x 18 inches
    c) 24 Γ— 32 inches
    d) 10 Γ— 12 inches
A

a) 18 x 24 inches βœ…

101
Q
  1. To assess an athlete’s preparedness to participate in an advanced plyometric training program the athlete must maintain the single leg half squat for how many seconds? πŸŸ₯
    a) 20 seconds
    b) 5 seconds
    c) 30 seconds
    d) 60 seconds
A

c) 30 seconds βœ…

102
Q
  1. Which of the following upper body plyometric drills is generally considered the most intense? πŸŸ₯
    a) Power Drop
    b) Depth Push-Up
    c) Two Hand Side to Side Throw
    d) Single Arm Throw
A

a) Power Drop βœ…

103
Q
  1. The force used to return the ball to the partner during the 45 degree sit-up should come primarily from the πŸŸ₯
    a) Triceps
    b) Abdominals
    c) Iliopsoas
    d) Pectoralis Major
A

b) Abdominals βœ…

104
Q
  1. You are setting up a series of plyometric drills for the women’s basketball team, which of the following surfaces is best suited for this type of training? πŸŸ₯
    a) Concrete
    b) Tile
    c) Astro Turf
    d) Suspended Wood Floor
A

πŸ’‘ Grass, wooden gym floors, and rubber mats

d) Suspended Wood Floor βœ…

105
Q
  1. Running speed is the interaction between? βœ…
    a) Acceleration and stride length
    b) Acceleration and velocity
    c) Stride length and stride frequency
    d) Velocity and stride length
A

c) Stride length and stride frequency βœ…

106
Q
  1. What stage of sprinting consists of eccentric hip flexion, concentric knee extension and concentric plantar flexion? πŸŸ₯
    a) Early flight
    b) Mid flight
    c) Early support
    d) Late support
A

d) Late support βœ…

107
Q
  1. In order to achieve high stride frequency and optimal stride length and athlete should do all of the following EXCEPT?
    a) Maximize the backward velocity of the lower leg and foot at ground contact
    b) Maximize the vertical impulse and horizontal braking forces
    c) Emphasize brief ground support time
    d) Develop eccentric knee flexion strength to improve leg recovery mechanics
A

b) Maximize the vertical impulse and horizontal braking forces βœ…

108
Q
  1. A high school running back approaches you and asks how he can improve his maximum velocity sprinting. Which of the following has the greatest impact on maximum velocity sprinting? πŸŸ₯
    a) Maximum Velocity Sprinting
    b) Assisted sprinting
    c) Resisted sprinting
    d) Speed-endurance training
A

a) Maximum Velocity Sprinting βœ…β†’ SAID Principle

πŸ’‘ The two most common methods used to increase maximum velocity include top end sprinting for 2-3 seconds after a complete acceleration phase of 40 meters (maximal acceleration) or by running from less than 40 meters (sub-maximal acceleration) into top end speed for a short burst (2-3 seconds). The length of this phase can be anywhere from30 to 50 meters among top sprinters during a 100-meter race.

109
Q
  1. Which of the following has the greatest impact on a wide receiver’s maximum velocity during the 40 yard dash? πŸŸ₯
    a) Reaction time
    b) Leg length
    c) Stride length
    d) Stride frequency
A

d) Stride frequency βœ…

110
Q
  1. During the early support phase of the sprint cycle which movement helps absorb shock and control forward rotation of the tibia over the ankle? πŸŸ₯
    a) Eccentric plantarflexion
    b) Concentric plantarflexion
    c) Eccentric dorsiflexion
    d) Concentric dorsiflexion
A

a) Eccentric plantarflexion βœ…

111
Q
  1. In addition to change of direction ability, agility requires which of the following? βœ…
    A. The ability to change velocity
    B. The ability to change mode of travel
    C. The ability to decelerate
    D. The use of perceptual cognitive ability
A

D. The use of perceptual cognitive ability βœ…

112
Q
  1. Which of the following are benefits of bodyweight training? πŸŸ₯
    I. Develops absolute strength
    ll. Often includes open chain based exercises
    lll. Is specific to each individuals anthropometrics
    IV. Improves body control
    A. I and II only
    B. Ill and IV only
    C. II. III, IV only
    D. I, III, IV only
A

B. Ill and IV only βœ…

lll. Is specific to each individuals anthropometrics

IV. Improves body control

113
Q
  1. The strength and conditioning professional is selecting exercises to target the core of a 20 year old female basketball player. Performance of which of the following exercises will also improve sports performance? πŸŸ₯
    I. Plank
    ll. Deadlift
    lll. Push-Up
    IV. Push-Press
    A. I, Il, and IV only
    B. I and III only
    C. Il and IV only
    D. I, Il, and Ill only
A
  • C. Il and IV only βœ…ll. DeadliftIV. Push-Press
114
Q
  1. When compared to a barbell squat performance of a squat on a Smith Machine reduces the activity of the back stabilizers by what percentage? πŸŸ₯
    A. 10%
    B. 30%
    C. 60%
    D. 90%
A

B. 30% βœ…

115
Q
  1. Which of the following is an example of an accommodating load? πŸŸ₯
    A. Free Weights
    B. Chains
    C. Resistance Bands
    D. A device that controls the speed of movement throughout a range of motion
A

πŸ’‘ Variable Resistance: Chains & Resistance Bands

D. A device that controls the speed of movement throughout a range of motion βœ…

Because it accommodates with speed

116
Q
  1. A professional baseball player would like to train a 6RM load in the bench press with the addition of chains. Presently the athlete’s 6 RM is 200 lbs. How much weight should be placed on the barbell if the athlete applies a 24.4 lb. chain? βœ…
    A. 175 Ibs.
    B. 178 Ibs.
    C. 188 Ibs.
    D. 195 Ibs.
A

<aside>
πŸ’‘ 24.4 / 2 = 12.2 lb avg tension + 188 lbs bar = 200 lb

</aside>

C. 188 Ibs. βœ…

117
Q
  1. You have decided to use tire flips as part of the offseason conditioning program for a college football offensive lineman. Which of the following are suggested guidelines for tire selection and exercise setup? πŸŸ₯
    l. The tire should not be shorter than the athlete
    Il. The exercise surface should be hard
    lll. Tires with good tread are easier to grip
    IV. Narrow tires are easier to flip for tall athletes
    A. I, Il only
    B. II. III. IV only
    C. II, IlI only
    D. I, II, III only
A

C. II, IlI only βœ…

l. The tire should not be shorter than the athlete ❌

Il. The exercise surface should be hard βœ…

lll. Tires with good tread are easier to grip βœ…

IV. Narrow tires are easier to flip for tall athletes ❌

118
Q
  1. Which of the following relates to kettlebell training as a strength and conditioning tool?
    l. Kettlebell swings are superior to traditional weightlifting in terms of increasing vertical jump height
    ll. Kettlebell training increases muscular strength compared to no training
    lll. Kettlebell swings offer the same level of cardiovascular benefit as treadmill training
    IV. Kettlebell goblet squats are inferior to back barbell squats in terms of developing muscular strength
    A. I, Il only
    B. I, II, IV only
    C. II, III, IV only
    D. II, IV only
A

D. II, IV only βœ…

ll. Kettlebell training increases muscular strength compared to no training

IV. Kettlebell goblet squats are inferior to back barbell squats in terms of developing muscular strength

119
Q
  1. Bilateral facilitation during the performance of a front barbell squat leads to which of the following? πŸŸ₯
    A. Increased voluntary activation of the agonist muscle group
    B. Decreased voluntary activation of the agonist muscle group
    C. Asymmetries in force production between the quadriceps muscle group
    D. Increased voluntary activation of the antagonist muscle group
A

A. Increased voluntary activation of the agonist muscle group βœ…

120
Q
  1. In order to increase absolute leg strength, which of the following training methods should a professional football defensive back with a 1 RM of 450 Ibs. in the back squat utilize? πŸŸ₯
    I. Back Squat
    ll. Lunges
    lll. Single-Leg Squat
    lV. Step-Ups
    A. I only
    B. I, IlI only
    C. II, III, IV only
    D. IlI only
A

A. I only βœ…β†’ I. Back Squat

121
Q
  1. You have decided to include tire flips as part of the offseason conditioning program for the offensive lineman on the college football team. All of the following are true with regards to tire selection and exercise setup EXCEPT?
    a) The tire should not be shorter than the athlete
    b) The exercise surface should be hard
    c) Tires with good tread are easier to grip
    d) The exercise surface should allow good traction of the athlete’s shoes
A

a) The tire should not be shorter than the athlete βœ…

122
Q
  1. Improving weaknesses and maintaining strengths of the athlete typically occur during which sport season? πŸŸ₯
    a) Post-Season
    b) Off-Season
    c) Pre-Season
    d) In-Season
A

d) In-Season βœ…β†’ Key: Maintenance of Strength + Improve Sport Specific Skills

123
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes appropriate activity during the competition period for a college football wide receiver? πŸŸ₯
    a) Low intensity recreational exercise
    b) High volume, low intensity resistance training
    c) Sprinting specific plyometric drills
    d) High volume, high intensity resistance training
A

c) Sprinting specific plyometric drills βœ…

124
Q
  1. A softball player is rehabilitating her shoulder and utilizing the De Lorme resistance training program. She is ready for her third and final set of the standing dumbbell lateral raise exercise. Which of the following repetition and load schemes should she choose?
    a) 10 repetitions at 100% of the 10 RM
    b) 5 repetitions at 75% of the 10 RM
    c) 10 repetitions at 50% of the 10 RM
    d) 5 repetitions at 100% of the 10 RM
A

a) 10 repetitions at 100% of the 10 RM βœ