Q&A Flashcards
You are presented with a four-year-old obese male neutered cat with a two-day history of straining to urinate, urinary accidents in the house, and worsening depression and anorexia.
On physical exam you palpate an enlarged bladder.
Which physiologic abnormality do you expect?
This isfeline lower urinary tract disease(FLUTD). The clinical pathology abnormality of immediate concern is life-threatening hyperkalemia, due to anuria. Normally, excess potassium is eliminated from the body in urine. When a cat is blocked, potassium builds up.
ImmediateTx for a blocked cat is urinary catheterization.
FLUTD tends to cause a metabolic acidosis (which also contributes to hyperkalemia), hyponatremia, hyperglycemia, and POSTrenalazotemia.
An ECG of a hyperkalemic cat might show tall T waves and bradycardia.
Traumatic poll injury (rearing over backward) often results in rupture of which muscle in the horse?
The longus capitus muscle, one of the ventral straight muscles of the head, inserts on the basisphenoid bone at the base of the skull.
With traumatic poll injury, rupture occurs at the insertion of the muscle dorsal to the guttural pouch and results in severe hemorrhage. Bleeding from the guttural pouch, neurologic deficits, and death can occur.
A birnavirus causes which one of these avian diseases?
infectious bursal disease
Which of these parasites is reportable?
Cochliomyiais the genus of the screwworm. Screwworm larvae produce myiasis. REPORTABLE.
Screwworm has been eliminated in North America - it is still found in South America and Caribbean countries
inflammation of the corium of the hoof in large animals
Corium is the sensitive laminae of the feet.
Laminitis is inflammation of the laminae that connect the hoof wall to the coffin bone of the foot that can result in severe lameness.
Laminae are interdigitated finger-like projections of soft tissue that work like Velcro® to hold the 3rd phalanx in the hoof capsule and support the entire horse
A client is upset because half of his frogs have suddenly died after he recently changed out the habitat’s water.
What is the most appropriate next step?
Water quality analysis will provide information on pH and levels of ammonia metabolites, chlorine, oxygen, etc. These are all critical factors in tank health.
Buildup of ammonium and nitrate levels in the habitat of aquatic amphibians can lead to significant disease and death.
New tank syndrome is a buildup of ammonia metabolites due to lack of bacteria in new tanks (or right after all the water has been switched out). It can take up to 6 weeks for a new tank to become efficient in nitrogen metabolism.
In well-established aquariums, bacterial flora metabolizes ammonium to nitrite and nitrate. Nitrogen metabolite levels (e.g., ammonium, nitrate, and nitrite) must be weekly monitored in the habitat using a water-test kit.
What does strike-through refer to in surgery?
Strike-through is when a gown or drape becomes completely soaked through with blood or saline.
Once soaked through, a gown/drape is no longer impermeable to bacteria. This increases the risk of surgical field contamination. Remove any soaked items from the surgical field and replace with fresh sterile ones. Change a soaked gown (along with the gloves).
Replace instruments in contact with the region of strike-through as they are no longer sterile.
Which presentation best fits a dog with panosteitis?
The hallmark of panosteitis is an acute-onset shifting leg lameness with long bone pain in a young (6-16 mos) large rapidly-growing dog. German Shepherds are reported to be at highest risk.
Panosteitis is a self-limiting problem primarily affecting the diaphyses and metaphyses of long bones. In addition to lameness, affected dogs may be pyrexic and off feed. Radiography can show increased multifocal intramedullary densities/opacity and irregular endosteal surfaces along long bones.
The underlying cause is unknown: thought to be associated with remodeling of bone after the death of hematopoietic cells and intramedullary adipocytes. Cell death is attributed to increased intramedullary pressure and vascular congestion.
Which one of the following enzymes is found in the liver, pancreas, and kidney in large animals?
Gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT) is found in all three organs.
Renal disease leaks GGT into the urine, not circulation. Pancreatic diseases is relatively uncommon in large animals. Therefore, serum increases in GGT in large animals are considered fairly specific for liver disease.
A modified Knott’s test, the capillary hematocrit tube test, and the fresh blood-saline preparation test can all be used to find which one of the following parasite stages?
These are all tests used to find themicrofilariaofheartwormsin the circulatory system.
Microfilaria are the first larval stage produced by the adult heartworm, equivalent to the egg stage of other types of nematodes.
A fresh blood-saline slide can allow you to observemicrofilaria movement.
flock of sheep is evaluated for weight loss and several have swollen areas under their jaws and in their flanks. A couple ewes have a cough and purulent nasal discharge.
This all began after the farmer bought some replacement ewes from auction several months ago. The farmer began to shear one sheep and noted abnormalities on the neck as seen here:
Which one of the following choices best describes the organism responsible for this condition?
This sheep has caseous lymphadenitis (CL) – a chronic, contagious disease caused by Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis, which is a gram-positive, intracellular, facultative bacteria.
When endemic, it causes huge economic losses for small ruminant producers in the United States due to death, carcass condemnation, loss of hide or wool, and premature culling.
CL is characterized by abscesses in or near external lymph nodes (external form) or within organs or internal lymph nodes (internal form).
Definitive Dx requires bacterial culture of external abscesses or serology for internal abscesses (variably helpful).
It is hard to eliminate CL from endemic flocks due to its highly contagious nature, its ability to live in the soil, and silent carriers. Recommendations include culling affected animals, strict biosecurity, and vaccination protocols.
Treatment of affected animals with antibiotics and abscess care can be done in certain circumstances.
A ten-month-old foal presents in a saw-horse stance, very rigid in all four limbs, but is alert. When you clap your hands his nictitating membranes quiver.
Which one of the following conditions is the most likely cause?
The clinical signs are typical of a horse with tetanus, which results in sustained skeletal muscle contractions. Clostridium tetani is an anaerobic, spore-forming bacteria that lives in soil and the GI tract.
Most commonly, the bacteria release a potent neurotoxin when anaerobic conditions predominate in a C. tetani-infected wound. The neurotoxin binds irreversibly to nerve terminals so affected animals must grow new nerve terminals to recover. This can take weeks to months.
Often there is a recent history of an infection, usually after stepping on a nail. Horses and humans are more prone to tetanus than are carnivores, such as dogs and cats. Tetanus is often fatal in horses.
Immediate Tx typically includes tetanus antitoxin IV (or subarachnoid intrathecal) and metronidazole PO or per rectum. Penicillin used to be the Tx of choice for tetanus in all species. However, it may have anti-GABA and proconvulsant activities (not ideal in an animal with tetanus!). So, when available, metronidazole is now the Tx of choice HOWEVER it is not legal to use in food animals in North America.
Additional Tx include sedatives/muscle relaxants (e.g., acepromazine, phenobarbital), wound care, and supportive care (including a dark, quiet stall, keeping soft feed and water high up, and the use of slings).
What is the normal percentage of reticulocytes in equine blood?
Horses do not have reticulocytes on a complete blood count (CBC) in health or with anemia.
Reticulocytes are immature red blood cells (RBCs) that are found in very small percentages in normal blood of dogs and cats, and are significantly elevated with a regenerative anemia. Healthy ruminants do not have them, but they should appear in response to anemia.
Typically, you see reticulocytes on a CBC in a dog or cat when the bone marrow tries to compensate for an anemia by releasing more immature RBCs (the reticulocytes).
What events coincide with the luteinizing hormone (LH) surge in the bitch?
In the canine estrous cycle, the luteinizing hormone (LH) surge peaks at behavioral estrus (acceptance of the male) and on the same day or 2 days after full cornification as seen on vaginal cytology. Ovulation typically occurs 2 days after the LH surge.
In proestrus, estrogen levels have risen to a peak just prior to the LH surge, then they drop back to baseline by the end of estrus.
Rising serum progesterone can predict the LH surge and help estimate ovulation. Progesterone levels are at baseline in proestrus, but start to rise at the time of the LH surge to a peak 25 days after ovulation.
A six-month-old Nubian goat is presented for dehorning. Which of the following should be blocked for this procedure?
cornual & infratrochlear
