Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Frontier Airlines > Systems Question Bank > Flashcards

Systems Question Bank Flashcards

1
Q

The temperature of each aircraft zone is optimized by means of…..

A

A Trim Air valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Under what condition should the pack flow controller be set to low?

A

With a low passenger load to reduce the amount of bleed air demand and improve fuel efficiency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The Pack Flow controller is set to NORM and yet the ECAM display shows Pack Flow to be high. How is this possible?

A

High flow is automatically selected regardless of pack flow selector position because air is being supplied by the APU.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The safety valve protects the aircraft against…

A

Excessive differential pressure in the cabin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

In AUTO the cabin differential pressure is normally controlled by….

A

The outflow valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

On the ground the cabin should be…

A

Depressurized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The LDG ELEV has been set manually. What is the value?

A

6000 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

As you can see, cabin pressure control is manual. You want to descend from FL350 to FL 310. What is you target cabin alt?

A

5300 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

By moving the MAN V/S CTL to this position…

A

The cabin altitude is raised by opening the outflow valve.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

For the aircraft to be in this normal operation, open circuit configuration, what condition must be satisfied?

A

The aircraft must be on the ground with thrust levers not at T/O.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

With both the BLOWER and EXTRACT pb sw in OVD, what happens to the ventilation system?

A

The system goes into intermediate configuration and the blower fan stops.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

This aircraft is following a track of 140.

A

False.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Have a look at the FMA. The functions displayed in green on the first line are…

A

All in active mode as they are on the first line and green.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Have a look at the FMA. The blue LOC is in the armed mode.

A

True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A/THR in the blue means it is Armed. Why is there a white box around it?

A

The A/THR has only become armed within the last 10 seconds and the box is drawn to draw attention to the change.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A/THR in white means it is…

A

Active.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

You notice that some waypoints have a small triangle after the name. What does it mean?

A

It means the point has to be overflown.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Why is the word DECELERATE on the FMA?

A

The aircraft has passed the computed ideal descent point.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How can you get the mechanics attention when he is outside the aircraft?

A

Use the Mech pb sw on the CALLS panel which sounds an external horn.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

In this example what does the white SEL light mean?

A

It is an indication that both RMP 1 and RMP 2 are being used to tune VHF2.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

In case of RNP 2 failure, VHF 2 is lost.

A

False.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The flashing amber MECH light indicates that the interphone system is faulty.

A

False.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

If the battery voltages are below minimum how do you charge them?

A

I have to switch the external power on and check that the battery pbs are on.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the meaning of the green AVAIL light?

A

External power has been plugged in, you must push the EXT PWR pb to connect it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Both batteries are now charged by the external power unit. Approximately how long does the charging process take?

A

20 minutes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Having started the APU, how can you get the APU generator to power the electrical system?

A

By pushing the EXT PWR pb thus disconnecting the external power.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Take a look at the ECAM. Now the IDG oil temperature has cooled, the IDG can be reconnected by pressing the IDG pb.

A

False.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

You notice the red FAULT light on the RAT & EMER GEN pushbutton. How do you interpret this indication?

A

The EMER GEN is not yet supplying the system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

You want to open the cabin door, whilst lifting the control handle the white light illuminates. What does this mean?

A

The slide is still armed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

There is no other way of deploying the overwing escape slide if it fails to deploy automatically on the opening exit.

A

False.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

If the oxygen masks fail to deploy automatically how else can they be deployed?

A

They can be deployed by pressing the MASK MAN pb on the overhead panel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Can the APU fire test be performed using battery power only?

A

Yes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

According to these indications…

A

One fire detection loop has failed. Fire detection for both engines is still available.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which control surfaces are used for the mechanical backup?

A

THS and rudder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What does the white cross indicate?

A

It is an indicator for the sidestick deflection during the flight control check.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

In Normal Law, if one sidestick is rapidly pulled fully back, can the aircraft’s maximum allowed “G” load be exceeded?

A

No. The load factor limitation overrides sidestick command to avoid excessive “G” loads.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

In Normal Law, what is the maximum bank angle you can reach with the sidestick fully deflected?

A

67 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

According to these indications, which flight control law is active?

A

Normal Law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

According to these indications, which flight control law is active?

A

Alternate Law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

According to these indications, which flight control law is active?

A

Direct Law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

According to these indications, which flight control law is active?

A

Mechanical Back Up

42
Q

Observe the PFD. Without sidestick inputs…

A

The aircrafts attitude will stay constant.

43
Q

According to these indications, if the sidestick is held at full back position…

A

The High Angle Of Attack protection will override the sidestick input. The pitch will be lowered to maintain 120 kts.

44
Q

In Normal Law, is there a maximum pitch attitude?

A

Yes, indicated by the green dashes (A)

45
Q

How do you interpret the amber crosses on the PFD?

A

The bank angle protection is lost.

46
Q

Let’s assume the FO presses his take over pb and releases it after more than 40 secs…

A

The Capt’s sidestick is de-activated unless he presses his take over pb.

47
Q

With either AP engaged, which statement is true?

A

Both sidesticks are locked in neutral position. By applying certain force, the lock can be overridden and the AP disengaged.

48
Q

According to this indication, only the center tank pumps are feeding the engine.

A

True.

49
Q

What does an amber line across the last two digits of the fuel quantity mean?

A

The fuel quantity indication in inaccurate.

50
Q

After engine shutdown, what are your actions to close the fuel transfer valves?

A

No action is required. The valves will close automatically during the next refueling.

51
Q

The message OUTER TK FUEL XFRD appears in the MEMO. What does it mean?

A

Fuel is transferred from the outer tank to the inner tank.

52
Q

Why do the center tank pumps switch off automatically when the slats are extended for take-off?

A

To ensure the wing tanks are used for take-off.

53
Q

You have started engine 2 during pushback, but the PTU has not operated to pressurize the GREEN hydraulic system. Why not?

A

The PTU will not operate until the second engine has been started.

54
Q

How is the RAT deployed to power the BLUE system?

A

By lifting the cover and pressing the RAT MAN ON pb.

55
Q

During startup, when is the BLUE hydraulic system pressurized?

A

Automatically after first engine start.

56
Q

On the hydraulic quantity indicator what does the amber level indicate?

A

The warning level.

57
Q

With reference to the PTU, which statement is correct?

A

The PTU is bi-directional allowing the YELLOW and GREEN systems to pressurize each other.

58
Q

If one engine anti-ice system fails, the second one takes over and provides anti-icing for both engines.

A

False

59
Q

In the event of an electrical power supply loss…

A

The engine anti-ice valves will open automatically, icing is ensured.

60
Q

Colorcoding on the EFIS screens: which color indicates that crew awareness is required?

A

AMBER

61
Q

Colorcoding on the EFIS screens: which color indicates that there is immediate action required?

A

RED

62
Q

What does a pulsing green parameter indicate?

A

An ADVISORY, the parameter is about to reach a limit.

63
Q

On the bottom of the STATUS page, what does the green arrow mean?

A

It means that there is more information to be seen.

64
Q

The upper ECAM DU has failed. You want to see the DOOR / OXY page. How do you see it?

A

You have to press and hold the DOOR pb on the ECP.

65
Q

What is the actual speed?

A

204 kt

66
Q

Above what speed can the slats be safely retracted?

A

191 kt

67
Q

What is the meaning of 9000 in blue at the top of the altitude scale?

A

It marks the FCU selected altitude in case of a go-around.

68
Q

What is the actual vertical speed?

A

500 ft/min in descent

69
Q

What is the actual heading?

A

148

70
Q

What is the selected heading?

A

069

71
Q

What is the actual track?

A

156

72
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

A

The Flight Path Vector is displayed, the flight path angle is about five degrees nose up.

73
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

A

The track to the next waypoint PAS is 108, it will be overflown at 14:30.

74
Q

What does NW STRG DISC memo indicate to you?

A

The nose wheel steering has been disconnected by ground personnel.

75
Q

During push back you start engine 2. You observe the NW STRG DISC memo has changed to amber. Why?

A

The memo has become amber because one engine is running.

76
Q

There are two triangles for each gear on the ECAM WHEEL page. What do they represent?

A

Each triangle represents the position detected by one of the two computer systems.

77
Q

What is meant by the red triangle on the nose gear indication?

A

Only one system has detected the nose gear down and locked, the other has detected it unlocked.

78
Q

How do you interpret the green arc shown here over a wheel indication?

A

It marks the hottest brake with a temperature of more than 100 Celsius.

79
Q

You perform a landing with AUTO / BRK set to MED. After touch down what triggers the AUTO / BRK?

A

The AUTO / BRK system is triggered when the spoilers deploy.

80
Q

During your walk-around, you see that one light needs a new bulb. What is its name?

A

Taxi light.

81
Q

The STROBE light selector is set to AUTO. in this position, when do the strobe lights stop flashing?

A

When the aircraft touches down.

82
Q

IR alignment has counted down to one minute and the ALGN lights are flashing. What does this mean?

A

It is an indication that alignment has stopped as the present position data has not been entered.

83
Q

From these screens, can the Captain and F/O monitor each other’s ILS indications?

A

Yes, but they must have ILS selected on their own ROSE NAV selector.

84
Q

This radar display is in MAP mode. What do the colors represent.

A

Black = Water
Green = Land
Yellow = Buildings etc.

85
Q

According to these indications, which source is supplying the bleed air?

A

The engines are running, the APU is supplying bleed air.

86
Q

The APU is now switched off. Why do you still have the APU AVAIL indications?

A

The APU will run for 2 minutes to cool down because you have been using the APU bleed.

87
Q

According to the ECAM APU page indications:

A

The APU is running and available. It is providing bleed air only.

88
Q

If you have an APU FIRE which statement is correct?

A

On the ground, an APU EMER shut down will occur and the APU fire bottle will be discharged automatically.

89
Q

You notice that the APU N won’t increase anymore. Which statement is true?

A

An APU AUTO SHUT DOWN will occur.

90
Q

What does the white SLIDE indication mean?

A

The slide is armed.

91
Q

Given this situation, if somebody was to open the left forward door from the outside the slide would not be deployed.

A

True.

92
Q

According to these indication…

A

The left forward cabin door and the forward cargo door are unlocked.

93
Q

Take-off can be performed using which power setting?

A

FLEX/MCT and TO/GA.

94
Q

You are about to perform a take-off. You have not inserted a FLEX temperature. Can you still take-off?

A

Yes, but only using the TO/GA detent.

95
Q

During the automatic start sequence of ENG 2, you notice that only igniter B is powered. Is this normal?

A

Yes, igniters are used alternatively for the engine start, in this case B.

96
Q

You are performing a take-off with the thrust levers in the FLEX position. Is A/THR now active?

A

No

97
Q

After take-off the A/THR will not become active until…

A

The thrust levers are placed in the CLIMB position.

98
Q

A few seconds after selecting reverse, the amber REV indication changes to green. What does this mean?

A

The reversers are now fully deployed.

99
Q

During engine start the amber FAULT light on the ENG panel illuminates. This indicates…

A

That there is a failure in the automatic start sequence.

100
Q

You deployed the cabin masks. What is their effective time of use, once activated?

A

15 minutes.

Frontier Airlines (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions