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Scribe America > PCBT Surgical Study Final- the basics > Flashcards

PCBT Surgical Study Final- the basics Flashcards

1
Q

Neer’s Test

A

Test to rule out shoulder impingement

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2
Q

Hawkin’s Test

A

Test to rule out shoulder impingement

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3
Q

What is impingement related to the shoulder

A

A “pinching” of the rotator cuff under the end of the collar bone during overhead motion.

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4
Q

O’brien’s Test

A

Rule out labral (SLAP) lesions/tears

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5
Q

What is a SLAP Lesion Tear

A

Means that the cartilage that connects your arm to your shoulder has been damaged

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6
Q

Jergeson’s Test

A

Rule out biceps tendon pathology

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7
Q

Speed’s Test

A

Rule out superior labral tear or biceps tendon pathology

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8
Q

Apprehension test

A

Tests the integrity of the glenohumeral joint capsule

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9
Q

Relocation test

A

Test anterior stability of the glenohumeral joint

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10
Q

McMurrary’s test

A

Test for torn meniscus

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11
Q

Thessaly’s Test

A

Test for torn meniscus

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12
Q

Thompson Test

A

Test to determine if Achilles tendon is ruptured

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13
Q

What is ESR

A

Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate

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14
Q

What is CRP

A

C-Reactive Protein

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15
Q

What is CBC

A

Complete blood count

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16
Q

What is GH

A

Growth Hormone

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17
Q

What is IGF-1

A

Insulin Growth Factor-1

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18
Q

What is ACTH

A

Adrenocorticotropic Hormone

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19
Q

What does F stand for (serum)

A

Cortisol

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20
Q

What does PRL stand for

A

Prolactin

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21
Q

What does FSH stand for

A

Follicle Stimulating Hormone

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22
Q

What does LH stand for

A

Luteinizing Hormone

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23
Q

What does T stand for

A

Testosterone

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24
Q

What is Free T3

A

Free Triiodothyronine

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25
Q

What is Free T4

A

Free Thyroxine

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26
Q

What is TSH

A

Thyroid Stimulating Hormone

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27
Q

What is Achilles Tendonitis

A

Overuse of the Achilles tendon causing pain, inflammation, and swelling

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28
Q

What is osteoarthritis

A

Degeneration of joint cartilage and underlying bone

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29
Q

What is an Ankle Fracture

A

Fracture of one of the bone in the ankle

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30
Q

What is an Avulsion Fracture

A

When a small chunk of bone attached to a tendon or ligament gets pulled away from the main part of the bone

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31
Q

What is a bunion

A

Bony mass that typically forms at the base of the big toe

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32
Q

What is a hammertoe

A

Deformity of the toe in which the toe is bent at the middle joint

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33
Q

What is Ankle Instability

A

Instability of the ankle joint

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34
Q

Metatarsalgia

A

Overuse injury with pain at the ball of the foot

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35
Q

Neuroma

A

Also referred to as a “pinched nerve”

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36
Q

Osteochondral Defect

A

Focal area of damage to the cartilage and bone of an area

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37
Q

Plantar Fasciitis

A

Inflammation of the plantar fascia resulting in pain

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38
Q

Ankle Sprain

A

Rolling or twisting the ankle, possibly tearing the ankle ligaments

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39
Q

Rotator Cuff Tear

A

Tear of the rotator cuff

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40
Q

Biceps Tendonitis

A

Inflammation of the biceps tendon and resulting pain

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41
Q

ACL Tear

A

Tear of the ACL ligament

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42
Q

Frozen Shoulder

A

Adhesive Capsulitis

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43
Q

Adhesive Capsulitis

A

Stiffness (decreased ROM) and pain at the shoulder

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44
Q

SLAP Tear

A

Superior Labral Tear

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45
Q

Meniscus Tear

A

Tear of the meniscus (can be a medial or lateral meniscus tear)

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46
Q

Shoulder Instability

A

Instability of the shoulder joint - can result from traumatic injury to the labrum

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47
Q

Heterotopic Ossification

A

Abnormal growth of bone in non-skeletal tissues

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48
Q

Infection of Prosthesis

A

Infection at the site of a prosthesis (ie after a knee, shoulder, or hip arthroplasty/replacement)

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49
Q

Laceration

A

Cut/skin wound

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50
Q

Achilles Tendon Rupture

A

Rupture of the Achilles tendon

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51
Q

Dupuytren’s Contracture

A

Abnormal thickening of the skin on the palm of the hand/base of the fingers.
Progressive contracture of palmar fascia causing fingers to become stuck in a flexed position

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52
Q

Hidradenitis suppurativa

A

Small, painful lumps under the skin

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53
Q

Closed Fracture

A

Bone break with no puncture through the skin

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54
Q

Proximal Humerus Fracture

A

Fracture of the proximal humerus

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55
Q

Clavicle Fracture

A

Fracture of the clavicle

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56
Q

Deviated Septum

A

Nasal septum is displaced to one side

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57
Q

Facial Paralysis

A

Inability to move the muscles of the face

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58
Q

Cleft Palate

A

Birth defect, opening or split in the ceft (root of mouth)

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59
Q

Cleft lip

A

Birth defect, opening or split in the lip

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60
Q

Lipoma

A

Slow growing, fatty lump

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61
Q

Fibrous Dysplasia

A

Scar-like tissue grows in place of normal bone

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62
Q

Plagiocephaly

A

When an infant’s soft skull becomes flattened in one area

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63
Q

Steroid Injection

A

Steroids are typically injected into an area of inflammation

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64
Q

Nasopharyngeal Laryngoscopy

A

Also called “nose noodle” - usually a flexible thin scope that is entered through the nasal passage to visualize the nasal passages, base of tongue, and larynx.

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65
Q

Fine Needle Aspiration

A

A needle is entered into the mass to collect a sample of cells. The sample is sent to the lab for formal pathologic biopsy and staining

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66
Q

Ultrasound Guided Injection

A

Usually a steroid injection, ultrasonography is used to visualize the surrounding structures

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67
Q

Botox Injection

A

A very thin needle is used to inject small amounts of botulinum toxin into specific muscles.

68
Q

Biopsy

A

Can be performed surgically, via laryngoscopy, or via FNA. Biopsy is completed for masses or lesions to determine the presence of cancerous cells

69
Q

What is the brand name for Diclofenac

A

Voltaren Gel

70
Q

What is Voltaren Gel used for

A

Used to relieve joint pain from arthritis (topical cream)

71
Q

What is the brand name for Capsaicin

A

Capsaicin

72
Q

What is Capsaicin used for

A

Another form of pain relief used to treat minor muscle/joint pain

73
Q

What is the brand name for Ibuprofen (NSAIDS)

A

Advil

74
Q

What is Advil used for

A

Used for pain relief, fever, and inflammation

75
Q

What is the brand name for Acetaminophen

A

Tylenol

76
Q

What is Tylenol used for

A

Used for mild to moderate pain relief

77
Q

What is the brand name for Hydrocodone

A

Norco

78
Q

What is Norco used for

A

Oral opioid pain reliever used to relieve moderate to severe pain

79
Q

What is the brand name for Neurontin

A

Gabapentin

80
Q

What is Gabapentin used for

A

Primarily used to treat seizures, but can assist with neuropathy

81
Q

What is the brand name for Lidoderm

A

Lidocaine Patch

82
Q

What is the Lidocaine Patch used for

A

External local anesthetic patch used to relieve nerve pain

83
Q

What is the brand name for Bactrim

A

Sulfamethoxazole

84
Q

What is Sulfamethoxazole used for

A

Antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections; including urinary tract infections, middle ear infections (otitis media), bronchitis, traveler’s diarrhea, and shigellosis (bacillary dysentery).

85
Q

What is the brand name for Vibramycine/Doryx

A

Doxycycline

86
Q

What is Doxycycline used for

A

To treat many different bacterial infections, such as acne, urinary tract infections, intestinal infections, respiratory infections, eye infections, gonorrhea, chlamydia, syphilis, periodontitis (gum disease), and others

87
Q

What is the brand name for Celecoxib

A

Celebrex

88
Q

What is Celebrex used for

A

Used to treat rheumatoid arthritis and osteoarthritis

89
Q

What is the Spinal cord

A

Transmits impulses to and from the pain throughout the cervicothoracic spine and receives info from the peripheral nervous system

90
Q

Spinal nerves

A

31 pairs of spinal nerves emerge from the spinal cord

91
Q

Vertebra

A

Each of the series of small bones forming the backbone

92
Q

Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

A

Bathes the brain and spinal cord in fluid, and acts as a shock absorber. Water-like fluid that circulates the brain

93
Q

Neurological deficit

A

An abnormal function of a body area due to weaker function of the brain, spinal cord, muscles, or nerves

94
Q

Aphasia

A

Difficulty with language which is related to a brain lesion/abnormality

95
Q

Ataxia

A

Loss of muscular coordination

95
Q

Ataxia

A

Loss of muscular coordination

96
Q

Benign tumor

A

non-cancerous and won’t spread (metastasize)

97
Q

Malignant tumor

A

made of cancer cells and may spread (metastasize)

98
Q

Stenosis

A

Narrowing or constriction of diameter of a bodily passage

99
Q

Hematoma

A

A pool of mostly clotted blood that forms in an organ, tissue, or space

100
Q

Radiculopathy

A

Irritation of a nerve root that can cause pain

101
Q

Shunt

A

Used to diver cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the brain to another body compartment

102
Q

Traumatic brain injury (TBI)

A

Effects on the brain after a head injury

103
Q

Bradykinesia

A

Slowness of movement

104
Q

Aneurysm

A

Abnormal bulging/ballooning at a weak spot in a blood vessel

105
Q

Blood brain barrier (BBB)

A

Barrier between blood capillaries and brain tissue

106
Q

Red flag symptoms

A

Signs/symptoms which may indicate urgent need for treatment (e.g. urinary or bowel incontinence or retention, saddle anesthesia, lower extremity weakness, gait disturbance, loss of sphincter tone)

107
Q

Orthopedics

A

The branch of medicine concerned with conditions involving the musculoskeletal system

108
Q

Anterior (ventral)

A

toward the front of the body

109
Q

Posterior (dorsal)

A

toward the back of the body

110
Q

Superior

A

toward the head (above)

111
Q

Inferior

A

toward the feet (below)

112
Q

Medial

A

toward the midline

113
Q

Lateral

A

away from the midline

114
Q

Proximal

A

toward the trunk

115
Q

Distal

A

away from the trunk

116
Q

Arthritis

A

Degenerative or inflammatory joint disease causing chronic pain

117
Q

Carpal tunnel syndrome

A

Compression of the carpal tunnel on the volar side of the wrist which contains the median nerve along with the FDP, FDS, and FPL tendons

118
Q

Achilles tendinopathy

A

Partial tear or degeneration of the Achilles tendon

119
Q

Adjuvant therapy

A

Treatment/therapy given after primary treatment (typically surgery) used to decrease the likelihood of disease recurrence

120
Q

Carcinogen

A

A substance that is known to cause cancer

121
Q

Clinical trial

A

A planned scientific study that studies the effect of diagnostic testing or treatment on selected patients

122
Q

Invasive cancer

A

Cancer that has spread beyond the layers of cells where the cancer started or originated from

123
Q

Remission

A

no evidence of disease on tests and scans, post cancer

124
Q

Abbreviation ICP means what

A

Intracranial pressure

125
Q

Abbreviation AVM means what

A

Arteriovenous malformation

126
Q

Abbreviation CSF means what

A

Cerebrospinal Fluid

127
Q

What does MRI stand for

A

Magnetic resonance imaging

128
Q

What does PET stand for

A

Positron emission tomography

129
Q

What does CT stand for

A

computed tomography

130
Q

What does TBI stand for

A

traumatic brain injury

131
Q

What does EMG stand for

A

electromyography

132
Q

What does TIA stand for

A

transient ischemic attack

133
Q

What does EEG stand for

A

electroencephalogram

134
Q

What does ESI stand for

A

epidural steroid injection

135
Q

What does VP stand for (VP Shunt)

A

ventriculoperitoneal

136
Q

What does CTA stand for (CT A-)

A

computed tomography angiogram

137
Q

What does FNAB stand for

A

Fine needle aspiration and biopsy

138
Q

What does AC stand for (shoulder)

A

acromioclavicular

139
Q

What does ACL Stand for (knee)

A

anterior cruciate ligament

140
Q

What does EUA stand for

A

exam under anesthesia

141
Q

What does I&D stand for

A

incision and drainage (debridement)

142
Q

What does AROM stand for

A

active range of motion

143
Q

What does PROM stand for

A

passive range of motion

144
Q

What does TTP stand for

A

tenderness to palpation

145
Q

What does WBAT stand for

A

weight bearing as tolerated

146
Q

What does PWB stand for

A

partial weight bearing

147
Q

What does TTWB stand for

A

toe touch weight bearing

148
Q

What does NWB stand for

A

non-weight bearing

149
Q

What does ORIF stand for

A

open reduction and internal fixation

150
Q

What does TT stand for

A

tummy tuck

151
Q

What does BA stand for

A

breast augmentation

152
Q

What does NAD stand for

A

No acute distress

153
Q

What does CVA Stand for

A

Costovertebral angle

154
Q

What does BCC stand for

A

basal cell carcinoma

155
Q

What does SCC stand for

A

squamous cell carcinoma

156
Q

What does CIS stand for

A

carcinoma-in-situ

157
Q

What does FNAP stand for

A

fine needle

158
Q

What does CYTO stand for

A

cytology

159
Q

What is the Elements of HPI?

A

Onset, timing, location, quality, severity, modifying factors, associated sx, context

160
Q

What is included in the S of SOAP note?

A

Subjective-feeling complaints, HPI/ROS

161
Q

What is included in the O of SOAP note?

A

Objective-Facts, PE, Orders & Results

162
Q

What is included in the A of SOAP note?

A

Assessment, Current DX

163
Q

What is included in the P of SOAP note?

A

Plan, treatment & F/U

164
Q

What does PHI stand for

A

Protected health information

Scribe America (4 decks)

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