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May 2023 SWE > EPME Bank May 2023 > Flashcards

EPME Bank May 2023 Flashcards

1
Q

An Individual Development Plan (IDP) is _____.

A

A tool to facilitate a conversation that the supervisor, and mentor if desired, uses to discuss professional and personal goals

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2
Q

An Individual Development Plan (IDP) is not _____.

A

A performance evaluation method, a contract for training, or a means for clarifying or revising a position description

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3
Q

A first term enlisted member’s Individual Development Plan (IDP) must be introduced and discussed with their supervisor within _____ days of reporting to the unit.

A

No later than 30 days after reporting date

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4
Q

What does analysis of mishap data reveal as the most common cause of mishaps?

A

Is a lack of deliberate and systematic RM during preparation, planning, and execution of operations and activities

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5
Q

What does the Risk Management (RM) process rely on to identify, assess, control, mitigate, and manage potential hazards?

A

Effective teamwork and communication

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6
Q

Which of the following is the foundation of the Risk Management (RM) process?

A

Hazard identification

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7
Q

In step 1 of the Risk Management (RM) process, if time is limited and a thorough task analysis cannot be performed, what model can be used?

A

PEACE model (Planning, Event complexity, Asset selection, Communications, and Environmental conditions)

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8
Q

In the first step of the Risk Management Process Cycle, “Why” analysis is used in which action?

A

Action 3—List Causes

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9
Q

How is risk defined within Risk Management (RM)?

A

As the possibility of loss or injury due to exposure to a hazard

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10
Q

Which of the following is a risk assessment pitfall?

A

Over-optimism, Misinterpretation, Alarmism, Indiscrimination, Prejudice, Inaccuracy, Enumeration

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11
Q

Develop Controls is the first action in which step of the Risk Management (RM) process?

A

Step 3

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12
Q

Reducing risks by transferring all or some portion of that mission or task to another individual, unit or platform that is better positioned, more survivable, or more expendable is a control option using the _____ approach.

A

Transfer (STAAR Model)

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13
Q

The movement of forces, equipment, or tasks to other areas in order to avoid risk to the entire mission refers to what control option to eliminate or reduce risk?

A

Spread Out (From STAAR Model)

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14
Q

What is the control option used for specific risks by “going around” them or doing the mission or task in a different way?

A

Avoid (STAAR Model)

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15
Q

Within the Risk Management (RM) process, which is a type of control that can be applied to hazards to mitigate the risk?

A

Suitability

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16
Q

What mnemonic provides a simple and convenient aide to identify some approaches to eliminate or reduce risk?

A

STAAR

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17
Q

What is the first choice in the standard of order of precedence for Risk Management (RM) controls?

A

Use design and engineering solutions

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18
Q

In which step of the Risk Management Process Cycle does a member establish accountability?

A

Step 4

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19
Q

Which of the following is an action in step 4 of the Risk Management (RM) process?

A

Make Implementation Clear, Establish Accountability, Provide Support

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20
Q

Documentation is critical to the success of which step in the overall RM process?

A

Step 5

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21
Q

How many actions are there in the last step of the RM process?

A

3 actions

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22
Q

In step 5 of the RM process, ensure changes requiring further RM are identified, is part of which action?

A

Action 1 - Monitor

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23
Q

In the RM process, what action follows an evaluation?

A

Action 2

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24
Q

What is the first step in resolving conflict among peers?

A

DEFINE conflict

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25
Q

Which of the following is a behavioral clue that a conflict with a peer may exist?

A
  1. Previously close working relationships and team members, choosing to work alone or on different teams.
  2. Decreased interaction among normally friendly individuals or groups.
  3. Individuals decreased involvement unit activities, athletics, after work events, social gatherings.
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26
Q

What is the third stage of conflict?

A

Escalation

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27
Q

What is a characteristic of the escalation stage of conflict?

A

Aggression

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28
Q

What is the first stage of conflict escalation?

A

Disagreement

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29
Q

Which stage of conflict escalation is the point of contention where a peer-to-peer conflict can become increasingly aggressive?

A

Stage 3

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30
Q

Which stage of conflict represents the path for resolving a conflict without first escalating?

A

Stage-4 – De-Escalation

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31
Q

The Coast Guard’s preferred style for conflict management is _____.

A

Collaborating

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32
Q

In this conflict management style, the conflict must be resolved quickly and without regard for the other person’s desires.

A

Competing

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33
Q

In this conflict management style, intervention is considered but without a high value placed on your own desires.

A

Accommodating

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34
Q

In this conflict management style, each person makes a sacrifice so that both parties get part of what they want.

A

Compromising

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35
Q

What is the last stage in resolving conflicts among peers?

A

Stage-5 – Resolution

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36
Q

Where should Coast Guard voluntary education services inquiries related to tuition assistance be sent to?

A

ETQC-SMB-TAG@uscg.mil

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37
Q

Registrar services provided by ETQC include which of the following?

A

JST, CST, ACE

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38
Q

Which directive provides specific guidance on the Coast Guard voluntary credentialing program?

A

COMMANDANT INSTRUCTION 1540.10 The Coast Guard Voluntary Credentialing Program Instruction

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39
Q

Where are tuition assistance waivers submitted for final review?

A

The waiver must be routed through the members chain of command to FORCECOM, thru ETQC

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40
Q

The Harry W. Colmery Veterans Educational Assistance Act is also known as the _____.

A

Forever GI Bill

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41
Q

Under the Post-9/11 GI Bill, a Veteran enrolled at more than one-half time can qualify for a monthly housing allowance based on DoD’s Basic Allowance for Housing (BAH) rate for an _____ with dependents.

A

E-5

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42
Q

The Montgomery GI Bill-Active Duty provides up to ____ months of education benefits.

A

36

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43
Q

The GI Bill Comparison Tool offers information based on which of the following GI Bill benefits?

A

Post 9/11 GI Bill?

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44
Q

Veterans in their second 6 months of OJT & Apprenticeship Training programs may use their GI Bill benefits to receive ____% of the applicable Monthly Housing Stipend.

A

80%

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45
Q

One purpose of the ________ program is to provide developmental incentives for personnel with high ability, dedication and the capacity for professional growth to remain in the Coast Guard.

A

ADVANCED EDUCTAION

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46
Q

Who acts as subject matter expert to assist Coast Guard members with voluntary education programs?

A

ESO

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47
Q

Which of the following is one of the four firearm safety rules?

A
  1. Treat all firearms as if they are loaded.
  2. Always maintain proper muzzle control.
  3. Keep finger off the trigger until on target and ready to shoot.
  4. Know your target and what is beyond it.
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48
Q

Which of the following is a requirement to advance to E-3?

A

Six months in pay grade E-2 or satisfactory completion of Class “A” course

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49
Q

Which of the following is a requirement to advance to E-4?

A

Completion of the Apprentice Leadership Program (ALP) is required prior to advancement to pay grade E-4. ALP may be completed as a portion of the member’s Class “A” Course.

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50
Q

The _____ and ASVAB tests are different version of the same battery of tests.

A

AFCT

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51
Q

Class “A” Course graduates who had their advancement to E-4 withheld upon graduation due to receiving an “UNSAT” conduct while attending a Class “A” Course, are required to complete how many months of good conduct prior to being advanced?

A

6 months

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52
Q

Which of the following ratings have no direct path of advancement from E-3 to E-4?

A

Investigator (IV) and Diver (DV)

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53
Q

Where is the list of ratings open to striking found?

A

ALCOAST message

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54
Q

Where are “A” school rating requirements listed?

A

Coast Guard PSC website

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55
Q

Which stress management term is defined as “Bad” stress?

A

DISTRESS (perceived as negative and associated with a sense of loss of control)

56
Q

“Good” stress is related to which stress management term?

A

EUSTRESS (perceived as positive and associated with a sense of control.)

57
Q

Which term is defined as “the non-specific response of the body to any demands placed upon it or what you feel after you encounter a stressor”?

A

STRESS (anxiety, frustration, depression, etc.)

58
Q

What are stressors?

A

The causes of stress (transfers, deadlines, etc.)

59
Q

What term is defined as a stress management tool used to measure a person’s personal stress load?

A

STRESSMAP A stress management tool used to measure a person’s personal stress load.

60
Q

Stress is defined within the Coast Guard Stress Management Program as:

A

The non-specific response of the body to any demands placed upon it or what you feel after you encounter a stressor (anxiety, frustration, depression, etc.)

61
Q

The services provided by the _____ are available for professional assistance with Stress Management.

A

Employee Assistance Program Coordinator (EAPC)

62
Q

How can you contact the Employee Assistance Program?

A

CG SUPRT - Employee Assistance Program (EAP) 1-855-CGSUPRT (247-8778) or www.CGSUPRT.com

63
Q

Who is eligible for the Office of Work-Life Stress Management Program?

A

Active Duty members and their dependents
Reservists
Civilian Employees of the Coast Guard

64
Q

The National Institute of Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA) low-risk guidelines suggest that “zero” drinks is the low risk option

A

when one is driving, using machinery, cleaning a weapon, pregnant, or on certain medications

65
Q

Key behaviors for low-risk alcohol use include what model?

A

0,1,2,3 Model

66
Q

Where can you find additional clarification on low-risk drinking guidelines?

A

National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism website. www.niaaa.nih.gov

67
Q

According to the National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA), more than ____ people die from alcohol-related causes in the United States each year.

A

95,000

68
Q

Being able to “hold your liquor” or having a high tolerance for alcohol is

A

a reason for caution

69
Q

What is considered binge drinking for men?

A

5 or more drinks in about 2 hours

70
Q

What is considered binge drinking for women?

A

4 or more drinks in about 2 hours

71
Q

Binge drinking is a pattern of drinking that brings BAC to what percent or higher?

A

0.08 or higher

72
Q

What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by a person being slightly impaired?

A

0.08

73
Q

What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by a person being “sloppy” drunk?

A

0.16

74
Q

What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by stupor or blackout?

A

0.30

75
Q

What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by coma and risk of death?

A

0.40

76
Q

Which of the following is a reason women face higher risks of drinking alcohol?

A

alcohol resides predominantly in body water, and pound for pound, women have less water in their bodies than men.

77
Q

What is a standard drink for 80 proof hard liquor?

A

1.5 ounces

78
Q

How many grams of pure alcohol is in a “standard” drink?

A

14 grams

79
Q

How many fluid ounces of table wine are in a standard drink?

A

5 ounces

80
Q

How many fluid ounces of beer are in a standard drink?

A

12 ounces

81
Q

Using the BAC calculator, what would be the BAC percentage for a 150 pound male who consumed 3 oz. of 40% alcohol over one hour?

A

0.05%

82
Q

Across the United States, a recorded Blood Alcohol Content (BAC) test of ____ or higher alcohol is proof of DUI without any other evidence.

A

0.08%

83
Q

A member diagnosed within the first ____ days of CG service as drug/alcohol abusive or dependent is considered physically disqualified for enlistment.

A

180

84
Q

Where are deadlines for Personal Data Extract (PDE) verifications and corrections provided?

A

ALCGENL or ALCGRSV message. This message will provide deadline dates for PDE corrections.

85
Q

On your Personal Data Extract (PDE), Time in Rating (TIR) and Time in Service (TIS) are computed up to what point?

A

Time in Rating (TIR) and Time in Service (TIS) are computed up to this future date of (TED). The TED is 1 January of the year following the May SWEs

86
Q

On your Personal Data Extract (PDE), award points are earned up to what point?

A

Only the awards earned on/after the members Point Start Date up to the SED. Awards must be effective dated NLT 1 February preceding the May SWE.

87
Q

Sea Time points on a Personal Data Extract (PDE) are calculated at what rate?

A

Credited at 2 points per year, or 0.166 points per month

88
Q

On your Personal Data Extract (PDE) you will receive credit for all sea/surf/award points for your first advancement on or after what date?

A

1JAN2010

89
Q

What should you do if you find errors on your Personal Data Extract (PDE)?

A

If errors are found, note them on the printed copy of this form, sign it, and provide it to your admin personnel.

90
Q

What should you do after ranking positions in order of preference on your eResume?

A

Return to previous page and ADD MEMBER COMMENTS

91
Q

Once you have chosen all desired Job Basket boxes for an eResume, what should be your next step?

A

Click Save to Job Basket

92
Q

You have submitted an eResume but immediately notice that the Job Ranking Preferences are incorrect. How should you make corrections?

A

Corrections/updates will have to be made on the following day after submission. Only 1 eResume per day

93
Q

You have submitted an incorrect eResume in Direct Access (DA). What can you do to delete your eResume?

A

DA does not allow for deletions of incorrect eResumes. Resubmit a new one

94
Q

What is the form number for the Enlisted Individual Development Plan (IDP)?

A

CG-5357

95
Q

Which term is defined as self-inflicted death with evidence, either explicit or implicit, or intent to die?

A

Suicide

96
Q

What term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior for which there is evidence, either implicit or explicit, that the person did not intend to kill himself/herself?

A

Self-Harm

97
Q

What term is defined as any interpersonal action, verbal or nonverbal, without a direct self-injurious component, passive or active, for which there is evidence, either explicit or implicit, that the person is communicating that a suicide-related behavior might occur in the near future?

A

Suicide Threat

98
Q

Which of the following is part of the mnemonic for recognizing warning signs and circumstances associated with suicidal behavior?

A

IS PATH WARM

99
Q

____ is not an easy thing to do, but it is essential for suicide prevention

A

ASK

100
Q

What mnemonic is used as an aid for what to do when you suspect someone is thinking of suicide?

A

ACE: Ask - Care - Escort

101
Q

Which form of birth control is both reversible and can be used as emergency contraception?

A

Copper T intrauterine device (IUD)

102
Q

The service stripe is placed at a ______ angle on the SDB jacket.

A

45 DEGREE ANGLE

103
Q

What color is the service stripe on the SDB jacket for an E-7?

A

The color of the service stripes worn by E-7 through E-9 including the MCPOCG is gold for all jackets

104
Q

What color is the service stripe on the SDB jacket for an E4?

A

The color of the service stripes for E-4 through E-6 is scarlet for all jackets
except the Dinner Dress White Jacket, those service stripes are navy blue.

105
Q

What is the only authorized knot for the blue standard necktie?

A

The Double Windsor tie knot is the only authorized knot.

106
Q

When wearing the women’s overblouse with the Service Dress Blue (SDB), the bottom of the overblouse shall _____.

A

Note: When wearing with the SDB, the bottom of the overblouse shall not be visible under the SDB coat

107
Q

What does the women’s long sleeve light blue shirt have?

A

The short and long sleeve shirt has a fly
front covering the button closure (right
over left).

108
Q

What is the only alteration that is authorized for the light blue shirt?

A

ALTERATIONS: Sleeve of the long sleeve shirt may be shortened. Both
the long and short-sleeved versions of the light blue shirt may be altered to
provide a better or more athletic fit. No other Alternations are authorized

109
Q

Commands may prohibit the wear of which type of blue crew neck t-shirt in spaces subject to intense heat or fire?

A

100% polyester moisture wicking blue crew neck t-shirt

110
Q

What is required for wear with all uniforms?

A

Undershirts with quarter length sleeves are required for wear
with all uniforms

110
Q

What shirt(s) are women authorized to wear with the Tropical Blue Short Sleeve (TBSS) uniform?

A

Women may wear women’s shirt, Overblouse, or men’s shirt.

111
Q

When wearing the Tropical Blue Short Sleeve (TBSS) uniform, men are required to wear _____

A

Oxfords required for men. Optional high-gloss.

112
Q

When wearing the Tropical Blue Short Sleeve (TBSS), what footwear is authorized for women wearing slacks?

A

Oxfords, pumps, or flats are worn with the slacks.

113
Q

What head gear is authorized for wear with the Tropical Blue Long Sleeve (TBLS) uniform?

A

Combination cap or Garrison cap

114
Q

Oxfords are not authorized _____.

A

Note: Oxfords are NOT authorized
when the skirt is worn.

115
Q

The women’s shirt and women’s slacks align with the belt so that the _____.

A

Align the belt so that the tab edge touches the wearer’s RIGHT side of the buckle

116
Q

In all cases, the non-tab edge of the black belt with brass tip must align with the _____.

A

However, in all cases, the non-tab edge of the belt must align with the fly.

117
Q

You can wear a maximum of _____ ring(s) per hand.

A

Maximum of one ring per hand. Engagement/wedding ring or
class/wedding ring sets are counted as one ring. Thumb rings
are not authorized

118
Q

Which of the following is a prohibited watch color?

A

Prohibited
examples include diamond covered, neon, white, and bright
colors

119
Q

According to COMDTINST M1020.6K, fitness trackers are _____.

A

Watches

120
Q

When wearing the Tropical Blue Long Sleeve (TBLS) uniform, _____ will be worn over the wearer’s left pocket.

A

Qualification insignia

121
Q

When wearing the Tropical Blue Long Sleeve (TBLS) uniform, _____ will be worn over the wearer’s right pocket.

A

NAMETAG

122
Q

While conducting a personnel inspection you notice a member is wearing their ribbons out of order. What reference can you advise them to consult to properly align their awards?

A

TABLE 1-1 COAST GUARD AWARDS AND DECORATIONS
(Listed in order of precedence)

123
Q

Which award has the highest precedence?

A

Medal of Honor

124
Q

Which of the following awards would be excluded if you wanted to wear the highest three?

A

Humanitarian Service Medal Ribbon
Coast Guard Arctic Service Medal Ribbon

125
Q

How do you access the Coast Guard Business Intelligence (CGBI)?

A

Access the Coast Guard Business Intelligence (CGBI)
System: http://cgbi.osc.uscg.mil

126
Q

The purpose of form CG-4903 is to _____.

A

The Coast Guard Employee Hazard Report Form, CG-4903

127
Q

You have been directed to prepare a CG-3307 to document counseling for inappropriate relationships. Which template would you use?

A

PD-12

128
Q

Which template would you use to prepare a General Negative CG-3307?

A

PD-07
(PD-06 is general positive)

129
Q

What is the Thomas-Kilmann definition for conflict?

A

Conflict is defined as: “Any situation in which your concerns or desires differ from those of another person.”

130
Q

What stage of conflict is it when members actually make overt communications in an attempt to convince the other party of a better solution?

A

Stage 2 Confrontation

131
Q

In which stage of conflict should peers look for assistance in managing the conflict or look to using a tool for reaching and addressing the concerns of the parties?

A

Stage 3 Escalation

132
Q

What is the final stage of conflict?

A

Stage 5 is Resolution

133
Q

How many stages are there in conflict?

A

There are 5 stages.
1. disagreement
2. confrontation
3. escalation
4. de-escalation
5. resolution

134
Q

What training code(s) direct PDCs to ensure members can complete an EPQ or RPQ correctly without assistance, prompting or the use of any job or memory aid?

A

Code 1 Train-to-memory

May 2023 SWE (11 decks)

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