Obs 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Define epilepsy in pregnancy

A

A continuing tendancy to have seizures

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2
Q

What are the RFs for epilepsy?

A
  • Family history
  • Previous intracranial surgery
  • Head injury
  • Cerebrovascular disease
  • CNS infections
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3
Q

What are the S/S of epilepsy in pregnancy?

A

Known personal history of epilepsy

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4
Q

What are the causes of seizures in pregnancy?

A
  • Epilepsy
  • Eclampsia
  • Encephalitis or meningitis
  • SOL
  • CVA
  • Cerebral malaria or toxoplasmosis
  • TTP
  • Drug/alcohol withdrawal
  • Toxic overdose
  • Metabolic abnormalities (e.g. hypoglycaemia)
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5
Q

What are the investigations for epilepsy in pregnancy?

A
  • Bloods: (Effects of anticonvulsants) FBC (increase MCV), serum folate, serum anticonvulsants levels, LFTs
  • Fetus: Detailed foetal anomaly scan +/- foetal echo
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6
Q

What is the management of epilepsy in pregnancy?

A

Pre-conceptual:

  • Maximise control on least teratogenic monotherapy if possible
  • Folic acid 5mg od
  • Stress importance of compliance with medication
  • Explain risk of congenital malformation
  • Explain risk from recurrent seizures

Medication:

  • Remains the same (benefits outweigh risks of changing) if well controlled with phenytoin, carbamazepine, lamotrigine, valproate, phenobaritone or levetiracetam
  • Seizures should be controlled with the minimum possible dose of the optimal anticonvulsant drug
  • May require increased doses / may need to monitor drug levels
  • If diagnosed in pregnancy, lamotrigine and carbamazepine are drugs of choice
  • Vitamin K from 36/40 if enzyme- inducing drugs taken
  • Seizures (1st presentation) in 2nd half of pregnancy, which can’t be attributed to epilepsy - immediate treatment for eclampsia until definitive diagnosis made by full neuro assessment

Delivery:

  • Delivery MODE and TIMING unaffected unless seizures are increasing in frequency
  • Continue medications
  • May require diazepam/lorazepam if seizures during labour
  • Epidural recommended to reduce stressors that can illicit seizures

Post-natal:

  • IM neonatal vitamin K
  • Gradually reduce doses of any medications increased in pregnancy to baseline
  • Encourage breastfeeding (this is safe)
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7
Q

What are the complications of anti-epileptic medication on pregnancy?

A

Increased risk of congenital abnormality (2-3x increase)

  • Neural tube defects
  • Facial clefts
  • Cardiac defects
  • Developmental delay
  • Nail hypoplasia
  • IUGR
  • Midface abnormalities

These complications can often be detected in anomaly scans

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8
Q

What are the best AEDs to use in pregnancy?

A

NO Sodium valproate > neural tube defects
NO Phenytoin > cleft palate

YES Lamotrigine > lowest rate of congenital malformations (and levetiracetam)
YES Carbamazepine > least teratogenic of the old antiepileptics

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9
Q

What is gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD)?

A

Molar pregnancy

A group of rare diseases in which abnormal trophoblast cells grow inside the uterus after conception.

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10
Q

What is the aetiology of GTD?

A

Caused by a chromosomal abnormality of trophoblastic tissue

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11
Q

What are the 2 classifications of GTD?

A

Non-invasive:

  • Hydatidiform mole

Invasive:

  • Malignancy
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12
Q

What is a Hydatidiform mole?

A

A benign tumour of the trophoblastic tissue

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13
Q

What are the types of Hydatidiform mole?

A

Complete:

  • Empty egg fertilised by 2 sperm or 1 which duplicates DNA
  • Diploid - 46 XY or 46 XX
  • Paternal origin
  • 15% > GTN

Partial:

  • Normal egg fertilised by 2 sperm or 1 which duplicates DNA
  • Triploid - 69 XXX or 69 XXY
  • 1x maternal and 2x paternal origin
  • 0.5% > GTN
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14
Q

What are the RFs for GTD?

A
  • Extremes of reproductive age
  • Asian ethnicity
  • Previous GTD
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15
Q

What are the S/S of a Hydatidiform mole?

A
  • Painless PV bleeding (i.e. miscarriage) in 1st or early 2nd trimester
  • Exaggerated symptoms of pregnancy e.g. hyperemesis
  • Uterus large for dates
  • Very high serum levels of hCG
  • Hypertension / pre-eclampsia
  • Hyperthyroidism (high bHCG mimicking TSH)
  • Often seen on USS before symptoms
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16
Q

What does pre-eclampsia occurring early on in pregnancy suggest?

A

Molar pregnancy?

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17
Q

What are the investigations for a Hydatidiform mole?

A

Bloods:

  • βHCG grossly elevated
  • (b-hCG similar to TSH > low TSH, high T4)

Pelvic USS:

  • Complete mole = snowstorm (solid collection of echoes with numerous small anechoic spaces) / ‘cluster of grapes’ (swollen chorionic villi), no foetal parts
  • Incomplete mole = abnormal foetal parts
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18
Q

What is the management for a Hydatidiform mole?

A

Urgent referral to specialist centre…

1st = Surgical:

  • ERPC / surgical curettage
  • Products sent for histopathology and genetic testing

Then… monitoring:

  • Weekly βHCG monitoring until it’s no longer detectable
  • If bhCG continues to rise / plateaus / till positive at 6m > refer to gynae oncologist for likely chemo > choriocarcinoma?
  • Methotrexate if rising or stagnant levels?

Advice:

  • Avoid pregnancy until 6 months of normal levels
  • Do not conceive until follow-up is complete (barrier and COCP)
  • Avoid IUDs until hCG normalised
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19
Q

What is malignant GTD?

A

A form of GTD associated with local invasion or metastasis

  • Rapidly metastasising (lung, vagina, brain, liver, kidney)
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20
Q

What are the types of malignant GTD?

A

Invasive mole:

  • Hydatidiform mole with local invasion in the uterus (myometrium, necrosis and haemorrhage)

Choriocarcinoma:

  • Rare, fast growing trophoblastic malignancy
  • Rapidly metastasise (commonly lung)

Placental site trophoblastic tumour:

  • From intermediate trophoblasts (very rare – less than 1% of GTD is PSTTs)
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21
Q

What are the aetiologies of malignant GTD?

A
  • Invasive moles always follow hydatidiform mole

Choriocarcinoma arises from…

  • Molar pregnancy (50%)
  • Viable pregnancy (22%)
  • Miscarriage (25%)
  • Ectopic pregnancy (3%)
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22
Q

What are the S/S of malignant GTD?

A
  • Persistent PV bleeding, hyperemesis gravidarum, lower abdominal pain
  • Lung metastasis – haemoptysis, dyspnoea, pleuritic pain
  • Bladder/bowel – haematuria, PR bleeding
  • O/E → excessive uterine size for gestation
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23
Q

What are the investigations for malignant GTD?

A
  • Bloods – serum βHCG (persistently raised or rising after ERPC), FBC, LFT (mets)
  • Imaging – pelvic USS (snowstorm, vesicles or cysts), CXR, CT CAP, MRI brain
24
Q

What is the management of malignant GTD?

A
  • Manage in specialist centres – CX, Sheffield, Dundee
  • Chemotherapy – methotrexate
  • Hysterectomy for PSTT
  • Avoid pregnancy until 12m after chemo
25
Q

What are the complications of malignant GTD?

A
  • Metastasis
  • Chemotherapy side effects
26
Q

What is hyperemesis gravidarum?

A

Protracted vomiting originating during the first trimester and the triad of >5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration and electrolyte imbalance.

27
Q

How common is hyperemesis gravidarum?

A
  • 80% of women get NVP > emesis gravidarum
  • ~1% of women get hyperemesis gravidarum
28
Q

What are the RFs for hyperemesis gravidarum?

A
  • Nulliparity
  • Increased levels of hCG (multiple pregnancy, GTD)
  • Obesity
  • Hyperthyroid
  • PMHx or FHx of HG / NVP

N.B smoking is protective

29
Q

What are the S/S of hyperemesis gravidarum?

A

RCOG diagnostic criteria to diagnose HG requires ALL THREE:

  • ≥5% pre-pregnancy weight loss
  • Dehydration
  • Electrolyte imbalance

+Vomiting and inability to tolerate food and fluids:

  • Signs of muscle wasting
  • Signs of dehydration
30
Q

What is the timeline of hyperemesis gravidarum?

A
  • Starts between 4th and 7th gestational week
  • Peaks at 9th week
  • Resolves by 20th week
31
Q

What are the investigations for hyperemesis gravidarum?

A

Exclude other causes: abdominal pain, urinary symptoms, infection, drugs, chronic H. pylori

  • Basic obs + weight
  • Urine: Exclude UTI, check for ketones (if severe > ketonuria and raised urea)
  • Bloods: FBC, U&E, LFTs and TFTs.
  • USS: Exclude multiple pregnancy and GTD
32
Q

What is the PUQE-24 score?

A

RCOG Guidelines for assessing severity of HG

  • Mild = <=6
  • Moderate = 7-12
  • Severe = 13-15

If ‘severe’ from PUQE-24 > > admit

33
Q

What is the admission criteria for hyperemesis gravidarum?

A
  • Unable to keep down fluids / oral antiemetics
  • Ketonuria
  • Weight loss >5%
  • Co-morbidity (i.e. diabetes) – lower threshold for admission

Mild and moderate NVP/HG treated in the community:

  • If fails, treat as a day case in ambulatory care
34
Q

What is the management of hyperemesis gravidarum?

A

1st line = Antihistamines

  • e.g. IV promethazine, cyclizine, prochlorperazine, chlorpromazine

2nd line = Antiemetics

  • IV ondansetron, metoclopramide (≤5 days), domperidone
  • Ondansetron is 2nd line due to unknown effects in pregnancy
  • Metoclopramide is 2nd line due to chance for extra-pyramidal symptoms (EPS)

Adjunct:

  • Reassess in 24hrs
  • If admitted (dehydration) > give VTE prophylaxis (LMWH)
  • IV normal saline with KCl, thiamine (Vitamin B1) supplementation

3rd line = Steroids

  • IV hydrocortisone (convert to PO when capable)

N.B. Combinations can be used if a single medication is ineffective

General:

  • Pay attention to the psychological effect of hyperemesis gravidarum
  • Rest and avoid triggers e.g. odours
  • Bland, plain food, particularly in the morning
  • Ginger
  • P6 (wrist) acupressure
35
Q

What are the complications of hyperemesis gravidarum?

A

Maternal:

  • Major = VTE, Wernicke’s, hypokalaemia, hyponatraemia
  • Dehydration
  • Mallory-Weiss tear
  • Central pontine myelinolysis (from rapid [Na+] correction)
  • Acute tubular necrosis (dehydration)

Foetal:

  • IUGR
  • PTL
  • Termination
36
Q

Define HTN in pregnancy

A

BP 140/90 to 159/109mmHg

37
Q

Define severe HTN in pregnancy

A

BP >160/110mmHg

38
Q

Define chronic HTN in pregnancy

A

Hypertension present before 20 weeks (assumed to have been present before pregnancy)

39
Q

Define gestational HTN

A

Hypertension (new) present after 20 weeks, without significant proteinuria

40
Q

Define pre-eclampsia

A

- Hypertension (new) present after 20 weeks and ≥1 of…
- Proteinuria (>0.3g in 24 hours); AND/OR
- Any maternal organ dysfunction:

-Renal (rising creatinine)
-Liver (rising AST/ALT ± epigastric/RUQ pain)
-Neurological (eclampsia, blind, stroke, clonus, severe headache, visual scotomata)
-Haematological (thrombocytopaenia, DIC, haemolysis)
-Uteroplacental (IUGR, abnormal dopplers, stillbirth)

41
Q

What is HELLP syndrome?

A

“Haemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, and Low Platelets” [SEVERE FORM OF PRE-ECLAMPSIA]

42
Q

What is eclampsia?

A

≥1 seizure in one with pre-eclampsia

43
Q

What are high-risk RFs for eclampsia?

A
  • Pre-eclampsia in previous pregnancy
  • CKD
  • Autoimmune disease (SLE, APLS)
  • T1DM, T2DM
  • Chronic hypertension

≥1 = Aspirin

44
Q

What are moderate-risk RFs for eclampsia?

A
  • Primigravid
  • Age ≥40 years
  • Pregnancy interval of >10 years
  • BMI ≥35
  • FHx of pre-eclampsia
  • Multiple pregnancy

≥2 = Aspirin

45
Q

What are the S/S of pre-eclampsia?

A

Largely, asymptomatic:

  • Severe headache
  • Visual disturbances (i.e. flashing lights)
  • Epigastric/RUQ pain
  • Sudden swelling face, feet, hands
  • Vomiting
  • Breathlessness
46
Q

What are the investigations for pre-eclampsia?

A
  • Urine dipstick (proteinuria), if ≥1+ > PCR quantification (>30mg/mmol = significant)
  • Do NOT use 24hr urine collection
47
Q

What is the management of pre-eclampsia?

A

High risk pre-eclampsia / Chronic Hypertension:

  • Aspirin (from 12w until birth)

Pharmacological therapy:

  • 1st line: Labetalol (contraindicated in asthma)
  • 2nd line: Nifedipine (causes tocolysis - use methyldopa at term)
  • 3rd line: Methyldopa
48
Q

What is the management of eclampsia?

A

IV magnesium sulphate (potent cerebral vasodilator)

  • Continue 24hrs after last seizure/delivery
  • Reversing agent: Calcium Gluconate
    (10mL, 10%, over 10 minutes)
49
Q

Describe the ongoing care pathway for gestational hypertension

A

After the DISCHARGE post-admission:

Antepartum:
Foetal and maternal monitoring

  • Tests on repeat assessment every 2-4w = USS for foetal growth, amniotic fluid volume assessment, umbilical artery doppler, dipstick, BP measurement
  • FBC, LFTs and renal function once per week

Delivery:

  • Aim to deliver after 37 weeks’ gestation (unless clinically indicated)
50
Q

What is the immediate management for pre-eclampsia / gestational hypertension?

A

TARGET ≤135/85mmHg

Moderate: (140/90 to 159/109)

  • Admission if concerns
  • 1st line: Labetalol; 2nd line: Nifedipine; 3rd line: Methyldopa
  • BP every 48 hours if outpatient, 4x/day if inpatient
  • Urine dip repeated if indicated
  • FBC, LFTs and renal function twice a week
  • Foetal heart auscultation (at every antenatal appointment)
  • USS for foetal growth
  • Amniotic fluid volume assessment
  • Umbilical artery doppler

Severe: >160/110

  • ADMISSION
  • BP every 15 to 30 minutes until <160/110mmHg
  • Urine dip only repeated if indicated
  • FBC, LFTs and renal function three times a week
51
Q

Describe the ongoing care pathway for pre-eclampsia / severe hypertension

A

Antepartum:
Foetal and maternal monitoring

  • Tests on repeat assessment every 2w = USS for foetal growth, amniotic fluid volume assessment, umbilical artery doppler, dipstick, BP measurement
  • FBC, LFTs and renal function 2/3x per week

Delivery:

  • Birth <34w - continue surveillance unless delivery indicated (i.e. uncontrollable BP, maternal/foetal distress, eclampsia); if delivery, offer: antenatal steroids, MgSO4
  • Birth 34-36+6 weeks - Continue surveillance unless delivery indicated in care plan
  • Birth >37 weeks - Initiate birth within 24-48 hours
52
Q

When would you repeat a CTG?

A

Only repeat the CTG (in any situation) if…

  • Woman report change in foetal movement
  • PV bleeding
  • Abdominal pain
  • Deterioration of mother
53
Q

Describe the intrapartum management of PET / HTN

A

Monitoring:

  • CTG (continuous)
  • BP monitoring: 140/90 = hourly measurement, >160/110 = every 15-30 minutes (until <160/110)
  • Continue antihypertensives during labour

Delivery:

  • Epidural anaesthesia should help reduce BP
54
Q

Describe the Postnatal Inpatient Monitoring for pre-eclampsia?

A

Discharge criteria:

  • No symptoms of pre-eclampsia
  • Blood pressure <150/100mmHg (with or without treatment)
  • Blood test results are stable or improving

BP monitoring:

  1. Inpatient = BP at least 4x a day
55
Q

What is the follow up / management for pre-eclampsia post partum?

A
  • BP checked every other day by community midwife until targets achieved, ie BP maintained at < 150/100 mmHg
  • Once achieved, BP checked weekly, and medication weaned as required
  • BP < 130/80 mmHg should prompt cessation of antihypertensives
  • Once antihypertensives stopped, BP checked two weeks later to ensure it is stable
  • Following this, the woman can be discharged
56
Q

What breastfeeding advice should patients with pre-eclampsia be given?

A
  • Avoid diuretic treatment
  • NOT recommended when breastfeeding = ARBs, ACEi (except enalapril and captopril), Amlodipine
  • Drugs that are safe: labetalol, nifedipine, enalapril, captopril, atenolol, metoprolol