NA Flashcards

1
Q

What is WANTS

A

Weather
Activate Flight Plan
NOTAMS
TOLD
SID/STAR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are clearances designed to do?

A

Deconflict IFR aircraft in the NAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What should you have prior to contacting clearance delivery?

A

Weather and ATIS Information Code

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How should you readback a clearance?

A

In the same sequence it was given

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Prior to an ITO, within how many degrees of runway heading should the heading indicator be?

A

5 Degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Once vectored off an ODP is it considered cancelled?

A

Yes. Assigned altitude must be higher than the MVA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Unless specified otherwise, obstacle clearance is based on the aircraft crossing the DER at least

A

35 feet above the DER
0 feet for USAF and USN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Before making an initial turn how high do you need to be in order to maintain obstacle clearance?

A

400 feet above the DER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

To maintain obstacle clearance, what is the standard minimum climb gradient required until the minimum IFR altitude?

A

200 feet per nautical mile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

ODPs can be published textually or graphically while SIDs are always published

A

graphically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

4 Types of ODPs

A

ODPs make me nervous (NRVS)
N - Non Standard Takeoff Mins
R - RTRL (Reduced TO Rnwy Length)
V - VCOA (Visual Climb Over Airport)
S - Specific Routing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which ODP requires you to takeoff prior to a specified distance from the end of the runway?

A

RTRL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Do SIDs provide obstacle clearance?

A

Yes, however they are not ODPs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

If ATC issues an altitude during a SID do you continue to fly the lateral guidance and speeds?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

If ATC vectors you off a SID, is the SID cancelled?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a Diverse Departure?

A

Turn whatever direction you want after reaching 400 feet above the DER and maintaining 200 feet per NM climb until min IFR altitude (must be AT LEAST 35 feet above DER at DER)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How far from the airfield is a Diverse Departure good for?

A

25 NM (non-mountainous)
46 NM (mountainous)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Does a diverse departure procedure clear aircraft from low close in obstacles from NOTAMs, Takeoff Minima and DPs?

A

No, conflicts must be identified individually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is a Diverse Vector Area?

A

an area where ATC may provide random radar vectors during an uninterrupted climb from the departure runway until above MVA or min IFR altitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Where can you find a DVA?

A

Trouble T section

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Can DVAs have a higher climb gradient than 200 fpNM?

A

Yes it will be published

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Do IFR DPs provide clearnace for low close in obstacle? (TAKEOFF OBSTACLE NOTES)

A

No. None do. Not even ODPs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the 7 types of DPs?

A

DODMASS

Diverse Departure Area
ODPs
Diverse Vector Area
MAJCOM Specific Training
ATC Instructions
SIDs
Special Departures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Once vectored off an ODP, is it cancelled?

A

Yes. (Cannot be vectored until above the MVA/min IFR alt)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What altitudes are victor routes flown?

A

Below 18,000 MSL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What altitude block are jet routes flown at?

A

FL180-FL450

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What does a flag with an X indicate?

A

MCA (Min Crossing Altitude)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are Tango Routes?

A

RNAV Routes flown with GPS from 1200 to FL180

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are Q routes?

A

RNAV Routes flown using GPS from FL180 to FL450

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which number is the top number along a route?

A

MEA (Minimum Enroute Altitude)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which number is the bottom number along a route with an asterisk?

A

MOCA (Minimum Obstacle Clearance Altitude)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What does the MEA ensure?

A

acceptable navaid reception and 1000 feet of obtacle clearance (2000 feet in mountainous terrain)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What does the MOCA ensure?

A

1000 feet of obstacle clearance (2000 feet in mountainous terrrain) but only guarantees signal 22 nm from the NAVAID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What does a flag with an R in it indicate?

A

MRA (Minimum Reception Altitude)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

In the absence of a changeover point, when do you change to the next NAVAID? (Straighline)

A

At the midpoint of the total straightline distance between the two NAVAIDS. (not necessarily a fix)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

In the absence of a changeover point, when do you change to the next NAVAID? (Bend)

A

At the fix where the line bends

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the OROCA?

A

Off Route Obstacle Clearance Altitude (similar to a maximum elevation figure on a VFR chart) 1000 feet clearance (2000 feet mountainous) may not provide NAVAID reception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the preferred method of filing a flight plan?

A

DD 1801

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

When an ODP says ‘std’ what is ‘std’?

A

lowest compatible approach minimums

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is CRAFT?

A

Clearance Limit
Routing
Altitude
Frequency
Transponder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Why is IFR clearance necessary?

A

To deconflict IFR in the NAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

When should you expect an ITO?

A

Night, Snowy, Desert, Water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Is it required to readback CRAFT on the ground?

A

No. All airborne clearances MUST be readback

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

When can you turn off runway heading?

A

200 fpNM
400 feet above DER
at least 35 feet over DER
140 KIAS (T6 only)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Where can you retrieve NOTAMs?

A

DAIP

46
Q

Where are BASH and BAM models found?

A

AHAS

47
Q

What is MRDOF?

weather sources order of precedence for retrieval

A

MAJCOM
Regional
DoD
Other US
Foreign

48
Q

How are ODPs depicted?

A

Textually or Grapically

49
Q

Are SIDs depicted textually?

A

No. Always graphically

50
Q

Should waypoints be double checked on a SID?

A

Yes. Just like any other GPS flight plan

51
Q

Destination airport reports 2000-3.
What does this mean to you?

A

You need an alternate.

Run the alternate tree

52
Q

Your looking for a suitable alternate. what is the minimum weather required to list the alternate?

A

1000-2

Run the decision tree in the IFG

53
Q

Where can you find info about METRO (PMSV) Stations

A

The FIH

54
Q

What is the NTAP?

A

NOTAMs Publication. It contains seasonal and long standing NOTAMS.

55
Q

What is a Form 70?

A

Flight Log Overview (Fuel Planning)

56
Q

STTO

Time and Fuel

A

1 min/50 pounds

57
Q

P+A
Pattern and Approach

Time and Fuel

A

15 mins/100 pounds

58
Q

Reserve Fuel

Time and Fuel

A

20 mins/100 pounds

59
Q

Where can you find out how to fill out an 1801?

A

GP Chap 4

60
Q

What is Pilotage?

A

Using visual refernces to determine position

61
Q

What is Dead Reckoning?

A

The use of timing and headings to determine position

62
Q

Hod do you choose an altitude?

A

10% of the total distance, then correct IFR/VFR altitude

63
Q

What products do you use to plan low levels?

A

TPC (Tactical Pilotage Charts) and Sectionals

64
Q

Where can you find airfield info?

A

IFR Supp and Sectionals

65
Q

Can you use foreflight for fuel planning?

A

No, unless you supplement it

66
Q

What is 255.4?

A

Universal Flight Services Frequency

67
Q

What is POSEC?

A

Purpose
Objective
Situation
Execution
Contingencies

68
Q

What product do you use to determine what airports you can go to?

A

IFR Supp

69
Q

Where can you find supplementary airfield info?

A

AP1

There may be a misleading question that makes you pick IFR Supp

70
Q

When typing in KGPS into the ICAO code on DAIP what do you get?

A

GPS Notams

Check every flight

71
Q

MAX Endurance

A

8.8 AOA Diamond
Max Time Aloft

72
Q

MAX Range

A

Triangle 4.9 units AOA

73
Q

Long Range Cruise

A

99% of Max Range

74
Q

MAX Cruise

A

Set PCL to 780PPH

75
Q

What is JMPS?

A

Joint Mission Planning Software.
Its the Primary Source of planning

we dont use it for T-6s

76
Q

On the Form 70 what fuel number do you put in the top block?

Test Answer

A

Initial or ramp weight

we use 1100 tho

77
Q

Why is there an asterisk by the TEX2 in the GP Chap 4?

A

Single Pilot

78
Q

What can you find in FIH section C?

A

Weather stuff, TAF Decoding, PMSV Frequencies

79
Q

Where can you find out how to code mil routes in a flight plan?

A

AP/1B

80
Q

ONC

A

Operational Navigation Chart

14 miles

81
Q

TPC

A

Tactical Pilotage Chart

7 miles

82
Q

JOGS

A

Joint Operations Graphic

3.5 Miles

83
Q

What do you squawk in a SR?

Slow Speed Low Level

A

1200

84
Q

What is the VR squawk?

A

4000

85
Q

What is the squawk for IR routes?

A

Whatever is assigned

86
Q

What do you use for low-level planning?

A

AP/1B

87
Q

What speed do you plan for in a low level?

A

210 GS

88
Q

What is the min alt for low levels

A

Whatever is listed in the AP/1B
For UPT (AETC) is is 500 feet

89
Q

What is ERAA?

A

Emergency Route Abort Altitude
1000’ obstacle clearance
2000’ in mountainous areas
25NM radius

90
Q

Describe the Proportional Method for timing corrections

A

For every one second late add one knot of airspeed for 3.5 minutes

91
Q

SHAFT

Variations of 6Ts for Low Levels

A

Speed
Heading
Altitude
Fuel
TIming

92
Q

What fuel flow rate do we use for low levels?

A

8 PPM

93
Q

What is RVSM airspace

A

FL290-FL410 *we are not equipped to fly in it

94
Q

Low Level Obstacle Avoidance

A

500 feet above obstacles within 2 NM of path. 2000 feet lateral clearance once acquired

95
Q

Low Level Bird Avoidance

A

Enter NET 30 mins after sunrise NLT 30 mins before sunset

96
Q

IMC ERAA Procedure

A

Climb MAX power 160 KIAS squawk 7700 then maintain VFR hemispheric until ATC contact established

97
Q

When can ATC increase your speed above 200 KIAS?

A

In class C and D airspace

98
Q

VR Route Ceiling/Vis Reqs

A

3000-5

99
Q

IR Route Ceiling/Vis Reqs

A

1500-3 but must maintain cloud clearances.

100
Q

SR Route Speed Limit

A

250 KIAS

101
Q

VR Route Speed Limit

A

Can Exceed 250 KIAS

102
Q

IR Route Speed Limit

A

Can Exceed 250 KIAS

103
Q

SR Route Line Color

A

Black Lines ATC does not know of statuses and they are not depicted on sectionals

104
Q

VR Route Line Color

A

Blue Lines

105
Q

IR Route Color

A

Red Lines

106
Q

What is in the AP1A

A

Special Use Airspace info

107
Q

Where can you find preferred routes

A

Chart Supplement

108
Q

Where can you fins SIDs/ODPs?

A

Terminal Procedures Chart

109
Q

Where Are STARs found?

A

STAR Book

110
Q

What is ion the AP1?

A

Supplementary Airfield info