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Environmental PE > Air and Solid Waste > Flashcards

Air and Solid Waste Flashcards

1
Q

Principal Organic Hazardous Constituents (POHC) is regulated under?

A

RCRA (Resource Conservation and Recovery Act)

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2
Q

Regulations under RCRA impose restrictions on emissions from hazardous waste incinerators. The regulations define:

A

POHC present in the waste feed and establish performance standards for their destruction and removal in the incineration process.

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3
Q

POHC performance standard is defined by a destruction removal efficiency (DRE) of:

A

99.99% or four nines for each POHC in the waste feed
For Dioxins and Furans - 99.9999% or six nines required

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4
Q

The DRE only includes the removal efficiency of the air pollution control equipment. True or false?

A

False. The DRE includes both the removal efficiency of the air pollution control equipment and the destruction efficiency of the incinerator.

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5
Q

________is heat exchanged by a thermodynamic system in which the exchange of heat changes the temperature of the system but leaves unchanged other variables of the system, such as volume or pressure.

A

Sensible Heat

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6
Q

How is the sensible heat of a thermodynamic process calculated?

A

It is the product of the mass flow with its specific heat capacity and the change in temperature.

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7
Q

What is the energy released or absorbed by a thermodynamic system during a constant-temperature process? It is calculated by mass flow times the change in enthalpy values during the phase change.

A

Latent Heat

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8
Q

What are the two forms of latent heat?

A

Heat of fusion - the heat that must be absorbed to melt a mole of solid.
Heat of vaporization - the heat that must be absorbed to boil a mole of a liquid.

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9
Q

What are condensers used for?

A

Pretreatment (used before other emission control processes to remove VOCs when they occur as high concentration vapors to reduce operating costs)

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10
Q

Condenser recovery efficiencies over 95% are possible for vapor streams containing over ______ VOCs

A

10,000 ppmv

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11
Q

Condenser recovery efficiencies fall below ____ % when vapor concentrations are near 500 ppmv.

A

50

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12
Q

What is the most common condenser?

A

A non-contact shell and tube surface condenser, which is essentially a heat exchanger.

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13
Q

First Law of Thermodynamics =

A

Conservation of Energy

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14
Q

The change in enthalpy will be _____ for exothermic reactions.

A

Negative

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15
Q

A strong acid will disociate quickly and release heat in the presence of ____

A

Water

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16
Q

What is the general equation for a complete combustion reaction?

A

CH4 + 2O2 -> CO2 + 2H2O

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17
Q

Henry’s Law is a gas law that states:

A

The amount of dissolved gas in liquid is proportional to its partial pressure above the liquid.

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18
Q

Henry’s law constant is the ____

A

Proportionality Factor

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19
Q

Chemical equilibrium is also known as _____

A

Dynamic Equilibrium

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20
Q

When the volume of an equilibrium mix of gases is reduced -

A

A net change will occur in the direction that produces fewer moles of gas.

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21
Q

A net change will occur in the direction that produces more moles of gas when -

A

The volume of an equilibrium mix of gases is increased.

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22
Q

Increasing the temperature will shift the equilibrium in the direction of the ____ reaction.

A

Endothermic

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23
Q

Decreasing the temperature will cause a shift in the direction of the _____ reaction.

A

Exothermic

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24
Q

What is the principal effect of the temperature on the equilibrium?

A

It changes the equilibrium constant.

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25
Q

What is air stripping?

A

It is the transferring of volatile components of a liquid into an air stream. It is only effective for volatile and semi-volatile organic compounds.

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26
Q

What is air stripping used to treat?

A

Groundwater and Wastewater

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27
Q

Volatile compounds have relatively high ____ and low ____

A

vapor pressure, aqueous solubility
This is characterized by the compound’s Henry’s Law Coefficient H’ (Ka).

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28
Q

Henry’s Law Coefficient H’ (Ka) is the ratio of what?

A

The concentration in air that is in equilibrium with its concentration in water H’=(Ca/Cw)

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29
Q

Pollutants with ___ Henry’s Law coefficients can be economically stripped from water. What are some examples?

A

Relatively High

Benzene, toluene, xylene found in gasoline, and solvents like trichloroethylene

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30
Q

What is the ratio of the maximum rate of flow of either gas or liquid to the minimum rate of flow?

A

Turndown Ratio - this is the most important concept in the design of stripping columns.

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31
Q

An air stripper with a turndown ratio of 3 were designed to handle contaminated groundwater at a maximum flow of 100 gal/min could not function properly if the flow dropped below ___

A

33 gal/min

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32
Q

What is the stripping factor? Values of the stripping factor must be > ___ for stripping to occur.

A

R = H’ (Qa/Qw)
1

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33
Q

Incineration with waste separation capability is known as

A

Resource recover plants

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34
Q

What are facilities with boilers called?

A

Waste to steam plants

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35
Q

Facilities with boilers and electrical generators are known as _____

A

Waste-to-energy plants (WTE)

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36
Q

What are the standards for harmful air pollutants?

A

U.S. National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS)

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37
Q

Who established the NAAQS? What authority are these standards under?

A

United States Environmental Protection Agency under the authority of the Clear Air Act. It is applied for outdoor air throughout the country.

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38
Q

What is the U.S. Congress’s long-term goal for radon indoors?

A

The U.S. Congress has set a long-term goal that indoor radon levels be no more than outdoor levels. The indoor levels are estimated to be about 1.3 pCi/L and about 0.4 pCi/L is normally found in the outside air.

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39
Q

The OSHA radon exposure limit for adult employees is ____ averaged over a 40-hour work week.

A

100 pCi/L

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40
Q

What does PSD stand for?

A

Prevention of Significant Deterioration

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41
Q

What are the greenhouse gases?

A

Carbon Dioxide (81%), Methane (CH4) (10%), Nitrous Oxide (6%), Flourinated Gases (3%)

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42
Q

What does GWP stand for?

A

Global Warming Potential

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43
Q

How is Nitrous Oxide emitted?

A

It is emitted during agricultural and industrial activities, as well as during combustion of fossil fuels and solid waste.

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44
Q

What are some examples of flourinated gases?

A

Hydrofluorocarbons, perfluorocarbons, sulfur hexafluoride, and nitrogen trifluoride

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45
Q

Fluorinated gases are synthetic powerful greenhouse gases. How are they emitted?

A

They are emitted from a variety of industrial processes. They are emitted in smaller quantities, but they are potent. So they are sometimes referred to as high GWP gases.

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46
Q

Two key ways in which greenhouse gases differ from each other are?

A

Radiative efficiency - their ability to absorb energy
Their lifetime - how long they stay in the atmosphere

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47
Q

Why was the Global Warming Potential developed?

A

To allow comparisons of the global warming impacts of different gases.

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48
Q

Global Warming Potential (GWP) is a measure of how much energy the emissions of ___ of gas will absorb over a given period of time, relative to the emissions of ____

A

1 ton of gas relative to 1 ton of carbon dioxide (CO2)

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49
Q

The time period for GWPs is usually ___

A

100 years

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50
Q

The GWP for Carbon Dioxide is

A

1 regardless of the time period used, because it is the gas being used as the reference.

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51
Q

Why are flourinated gases sometimes called high GWP gases?

A

For a given amount of mass, they trap substantially more heat than CO2

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52
Q

Once a regulation is completed and has been printed in the Federal Register as a final rule, it is codified when it is added to the ____

A

Code of Federal Regulations (CFR)

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53
Q

Almost all environmental regulations appear in ____

A

Title 40

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54
Q

Mobile sources pollute the air through ___

A

Combustion and fuel evaporation.

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55
Q

Mobile sources contribute to four significant air pollutants.

A

Carbon monoxide, hydrocarbons, nitrogen oxides, and particulate matter

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56
Q

The EPA regulates the emissions from mobile sources by setting standards for the specific pollutants being emitted and ____.

A

also regulates the fuels e.g., sulfur standards for gasoline/diesel fuel

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57
Q

What is a Certificate of Conformity for engines or vehicles sold in the US?

A

It provides authorization for production and sales.

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58
Q

All engines or vehicles sold in the US must demonstrate compliance with ____ and receive ___

A

the CAA/EPA regulations
a Certificate of Conformity

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59
Q

What is the Corporate Average Fuel Economy (CAFE)?

A

Regulations to improve average fuel economy of cars and light trucks for sale in the US

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60
Q

The Energy Policy and Conservation Act (EPCA) requires that the ____ establish standards separately and ____

A

U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT)

enforces maximum feasible levels in each model year

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61
Q

DOT delegated the responsibilities from EPCA to ____

A

the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA)

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62
Q

The CAFE achieved by a given fleet of vehicles in a given model year is the ____

A

production-weighted harmonic mean fuel economy (expressed in mi/gal of a manufacture’s fleet of current model year passenger cars or light trucks)

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63
Q

Should CAFE be calculated using harmonic mean or arithmetic mean?

A

Harmonic mean should be used. It captures the fuel economy of driving each car in the fleet for the same number of miles.

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64
Q

What would the arithmetic mean capture if used in fuel economy calculations?

A

The arithmetic mean captures the fuel economy of driving each car using the same amount of gas.

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65
Q

Air Pollution prevention and Control Applies to urban areas that are in non-attainment for one or more of the NAAQS. What can this be found under?

A

Title 1 of the 1990 Clean Air Act Amendments

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66
Q

What are Part A, C, and D under Title 1 of the 1990 Clean Air Act Amendments?

A

Part A: air quality and emission limits
Part C: Prevention of significant deterioration (PSDs)
Part D: requirements for nonattainment areas

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67
Q

What does Title II of the 1990 Clean Air Act Amendments cover?

A

Mobile Source Program

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68
Q

General/Air Toxics (>200 HAPs, hazardous air pollutants) are covered under ____

A

Title III of the 1990 Clean Air Act Amendments

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69
Q

What does Title IV of the 1990 Clean Air Act Amendments cover?

A

Acid Rain Program and Noise Pollution

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70
Q

What does Title V of the 1990 Clean Air Act Amendments cover?

A

Operating Permit Program

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71
Q

Stratospheric Ozone Protection (phase out of CFCs) is covered under ____

A

Title VI of the 1990 Clean Air Act Amendments

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72
Q

What does Title VII of the 1990 Clean Air Act Amendments do?

A

It makes the Clean Air Act more enforceable.

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73
Q

What does NESHAP stand for? What are they?

A

National Emissions Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants - emission standards not covered by NAAQS

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74
Q

The hazardous air pollutants identified under NESHAP as hazardous air pollutants comprise about ____ chemicals and related groups of compounds have been identified as _____

A

200
potentially significant sources of health risk to humans

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75
Q

How is SO2 often formed as a pollutant?

A

Coal Combustion

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76
Q

The two most important constituents of acid deposition are ___ which contribute about ____ of the acid deposition

A

HNO3 (nitric oxide) and H2SO4 (sulfuric acid)
98%

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77
Q

How is H2SO4 formed in the air? What happens when H2SO4 forms?

A

SO2 mixes with oxygen in the air
(SO2 + O2 -> SO3,
SO3 + H2O -> H2SO4)

H2SO4 precipitates out as acid rain

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78
Q

Part 70 operating permits under Title V are issued by ____ and part 71 permits are issued by ___

A

State and local agencies

EPA

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79
Q

The Prevention of Significant Deterioration (PSD) permitting program is for _____ of air pollution such as power plants, manufacturing facilities, and other facilities that emit air pollution.

A

New and modified major sources

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80
Q

PSD applies to all pollutants that do not exceed the _____ in an area

A

NAAQS

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81
Q

The non-criteria pollutants under Title V are listed in EPA’s regulations and include _____

A

fluorides, sulfuric acid mist, hydrogen sulfide, total reduced sulfur, and certain contaminants from municipal solid waste plants.

82
Q

The CAA requires the ___ to set ___ (40 CFR part 50) for pollutants considered harmful to public health and the environment.

A

EPA
NAAQS

83
Q

There are two types of NAAQS identified by the CAA. What are they?

A

Primary Standards and Secondary Standards

84
Q

What do the NAAQS primary standards provide?

A

Public health protection, including protecting the health of “sensitive” populations such as asthmatics, children, and the elderly

85
Q

What do the NAAQS secondary standards provide?

A

Public welfare protection, including protection against decreased visibility and damage to animals, crops, vegetation and buildings

86
Q

Particulate Matter is one of the Criteria Pollutants. What diameter are we concerned with?

A

PM <10 um because that is the size that will enter the respiratory system.
PM<2.5 are often created as a secondary pollutant from a chemical reaction.

87
Q

What are the five NOx gases? How are NOx formed?

A

NO, NO2, NO3, N2O5, N2O4

They are formed from stationary and mobile combustion sources, especially at high temperatures.

88
Q

99% of which airborne criteria air pollutant went away in the US after lead was removed from passenger car fuels?

A

Lead.

89
Q

Ozone plays a key role in the formation of ___ and is a ____

A

smog
respiratory hazard

90
Q

What is a non-attainment area?

A

It is an area considered to have air quality worse than the National Ambient Air Quality Standards.

91
Q

What is the man-made source of particulate matter?

A

Incinerators

92
Q

Fugitive particulate matter emissions generally originate from ____

A

materials handling.

93
Q

The major chemistry involved in air pollution of most concern are _____

A

oxides of nitrogen, sulfur, carbon, ozone, and hydrocarbons

94
Q

Most gaseous pollutants are associated with combustion processes and the characteristics of the fuels burned. Emissions from combustion increase:

A

-as combustion efficiency decreases
-as available oxygen decreases, and
-as the presence of compounds other than carbon and hydrogen increases

95
Q

The two nitrogen oxides (NOx) that are significant air pollutants are____

A

Nitric oxide (NO) and Nitrogen oxide (NO2)

96
Q

Which type of smog is typically associated with automobiles?

A

Photochemical Smog

97
Q

Most nitrogen oxide emissions occur from ____ as relatively benign NO.

A

fuel release and fossil fuel combustion

98
Q

Photochemical oxidants are a significant constituent of ___

A

Smog.

99
Q

NO can rapidly oxidize to NO2 which reacts with hydrocarbons in the presence of sunlight to form ___

A

Photochemical oxidants

100
Q

NO2 is associated with ____ ailments.

A

respiratory

101
Q

NO2 also reacts with the hydroxyl radical (OH-) in the atmosphere to form ____ which is a contributor to ____

A

HNO3 (Nitric Acid)
acid rain

102
Q

What percent of NOx comes from cars?

A

40%

103
Q

Which NOx gas do we assume on the PE exam if it says NOx?

A

NO2

104
Q

Hydrocarbons can form photochemical oxidants. The main concern is nitric acid. The hydrocarbons involved in air pollution are primarily ____

A

Alkanes comprising the methane series: methane (CH4) ethane (C2H6, propane (C3H8), butane (C4H10)

105
Q

What does an alkane become if it loses a hydrogen atom?

A

A radical or alkyl that is able to readily react with other compounds.

106
Q

When oxidized alkanes form compounds of the ______, where an oxygen atom is double bonded to a terminal carbon atom.

A

carbonyl group (aldehydes)

107
Q

How is nitric acid removed from the atmosphere by dry deposition?

A

The nitric acid aerosols settle out onto surfaces.

108
Q

How is nitric acid removed from the atmosphere by wet deposition?

A

The aerosols are either in the form of rain droplets or are washed out by falling rain.

109
Q

What is the chemical reaction involving the hydroxyl radical?

A

NO2 + OH -> HNO3

OH is the hydroxyl radical. This is the neutral form. It is not negatively charged like hydroxide.

110
Q

What equation should be used to find the terminal settling velocity for particles settling from the atmosphere?

A

Stokes Law

111
Q

What are the largest sources of SO2 emissions?

A

Fossil fuel combustion at power plants (73%) and other industrial facilities (20%)

112
Q

When burned, the fuels release the sulfur primarily as ____. What are they known as?

A

Sulfur Dioxide (SO2), Sulfur Trioxide (SO3)

These are known as sulfur oxides (SOx)

113
Q

Sulfur oxides can significantly impact ____ visibility

A

long range

114
Q

Smog is used to describe the glaring _____ that develops from late morning to mid afternoon when a certain combination of pollution and weather conditions exists.

A

bluish-brownish, ozone-laden haze

115
Q

At what temperature does optimum smog formation occur?

A

60-75 degree F

116
Q

The following are major factors affecting ____
1. Distribution of emissions of NOx and VOCs
2. The composition of the emitted VOCs
3. Variations in the wind fields
4. Dynamics of the boundary layer (stability and level of mixing)
5. Variation of solar insolation and temperature
6. The chemical reactions involving VOCs and NOx
7. The loss of ozone and ozone precursors

A

photochemical air quality

117
Q

The ideal gas law is a generalization containing both ____

A

Boyle’s Law and Charle’s Law

118
Q

What is the amount of heat that must be added or removed during a chemical reaction in order to keep all of the substances present at the same temperature?

A

Heat of Reaction

119
Q

If the pressure in the vessel containing the reacting system is kept at a constant value, the measured heat of reaction also represents the change in the thermodynamic quantity called _____ accompanying the process

A

enthalpy or heat content

120
Q

The heat of reaction determined at constant pressure is also designated as the ____

A

enthalpy of reaction, represented by the symbol delta H

121
Q

Catalytic incinerator is another category of oxidation systems that is similar to typical thermal oxidizers, but the catalytic oxidizers use a ___ to promote the oxidation.

A

Catalyst.

122
Q

Catalytic oxidation occurs through a chemical reaction between the ____ molecules and a precious metal catalyst bed that is internal to the oxidizer system.

A

VOC hydrocarbon

123
Q

Standard Temperature and Pressure (STP) is defined as air at _____

A

0 degree C (273.15 degree K, 32 degree F) at 10^5 Pascals, 1 atm

60 degree F and 14.7 psia

124
Q

Normal Temperature and Pressure is commonly used as the condition for testing and documentation of fan capacities. It is defined as air at ______

A

20 degree C (293 degree K, 68 degree F) and 1 atm (101.325 kPa, 14.7 psia, 0 psig)

125
Q

One mole of an ideal gas at STP conditions occupies ____ liters

A

22.4

126
Q

One mole of an ideal gas at NTP conditions occupies ___ liters

A

24.45

127
Q

The mole fraction or volume fraction of the pollutant in the gas mixture multiplied my 1,000,000 = ?

A

The concentration measure of parts per million (ppm).

128
Q

What equation is needed to convert to volume based concentration in ppmv for any condition of temperature and pressure?

A

Cvol = ((RT)/(PMWp))*Cmass

129
Q

The difference in _____ between the stack gas and the ambient air determines the plume density which affects the plume rise.

A

Temperature

130
Q

The sum of the physical stack height and the plume rise is referred to as ______

A

the effective stack height. This is the final height of the plume.

131
Q

The pollutant concentrations in the plume can be assumed to be ____

A

normally distributed.

132
Q

The ______ equation determines ground level pollutant concentrations based on time-average atmospheric variables e.g.:

A

gaussian distribution
the concentration & thermal gradients, wind speed

133
Q

How many Pasquill-Gifford stability classes are there?

A

There are six classes.

134
Q

Which Pasquill-Gifford class represents greatest instability and which class represents the greatest stability?

A

Class A
Class F

135
Q

An adiabatic process is on in which____

A

no heat is supplied or withdrawn.

136
Q

Dry air cools adiabatically with height at a constant rate equal to the _____

A

dry adiabatic lapse rate.

137
Q

During ____ conditions, a parcel of air that moves upward
cools at a slower rate than surrounding air and is accelerated upward by a buoyant
forces. When moved downward, the parcel warms at a slower rate and is accelerated
downward.

A

unstable

138
Q

Under ____ conditions, upward and downward motion result in
the parcel temperature changing at the same rate as the surrounding air, with no
resultant buoyant forces

A

neutral

139
Q

During ____ conditions, upward movement produces a parcel
cooler than the surroundings, hence the parcel will settle back to its original elevation.
Downward motion produces a warmer parcel, which will rise to its original elevation.

A

stable

140
Q

Atmospheric stability occurs when γ < γd, maximum stability occurs when γ becomes negative, i.e., when temperature increases with elevation. This condition is known as ____ and produces most adverse mixing conditions, which can trap emissions near
ground.

A

inversion

141
Q

Superodiobatic conditions result in a _____ plume

A

looping

142
Q

Adiabatic conditions result in a ____ plume.

A

coning

143
Q

Inversion results in a ___ plume.

A

fanning

144
Q

Inversion over superadiabatic results in a ____ plume.

A

fumigation

145
Q

Source Classification Codes (SCC’s) represent unique ______
that emit an air pollutant, i.e., a source category is a specific industry
sector or group of similar emitting sources

A

source category specific processes or activities

146
Q

EPA’s ___ is the compilation of EPA’s emission factor information and
contains emission factors for more than 200 air pollution source
categories

A

AP-42

147
Q

The emission factors have been developed and compiled from _____

A

source test
data, material balance studies, and engineering estimates

148
Q

An _____ is a representative value that relates the quantity of a pollutant released to the atmosphere with a process associated with the release of that pollutant

A

emissions factor

149
Q

Combustion is an exothermic reaction between a ____ and an ____

A

fuel
oxidant

150
Q

____ is the ideal combustion
process where fuel is burned completely

A

Stoichiometric or theoretical combustion

151
Q

A _____ combustion is a process burning all the carbon (C) to
(CO₂), all the hydrogen (H) to (H₂O) and all the sulfur (S) to (SO₂)

A

complete

152
Q

With ____ products in the exhaust gas, such as C, H₂, CO, the combustion process is uncompleted and not stoichiometric

A

unburned

153
Q

The ____ is the perfect ideal fuel ratio where the chemical mixing
proportion is correct, i.e., when burned, all the fuel and air is consumed without any
excess left over

A

stoichiometric ratio

154
Q

_____ combustion used in boilers and high temperature process furnaces usually
incorporates a modest amount of excess air (10 20%) more than what is needed to
burn the fuel completely

A

On-ratio

155
Q

If an ______ to the burner, unburned fuel, soot, smoke,
and carbon monoxide exhausts from the boiler resulting in heat transfer surface
fouling, pollution, lower combustion efficiency, flame instability and a potential for
explosion

A

insufficient amount of air is supplied

156
Q

To avoid inefficient and unsafe conditions boilers normally operate at_____, and also provides protection from insufficient oxygen
conditions caused by variations in fuel composition and operating issues in the
fuel air control system

A

an excess air level

157
Q

If air content is > the stoichiometric ratio, the mixture is said to be ____, if air content < than the stoichiometric ratio, the mixture is ____.

A

fuel-lean
fuel-rich

158
Q

The EPA has established a level of 100 ppm CO rolling average corrected
to 7 percent oxygen on a dry basis to achieve greater than ____
CO removal

A

99.99 percent

159
Q

Reasonably Available Control Technology (RACT) is required on existing sources in areas that are not meeting _____

A

national ambient air quality standards (i.e., attainment areas)

160
Q

_____ is required on major new or modified sources in clean areas (i.e., attainment areas)

A

Best Available Control Technology (BACT)

161
Q

____ is required on major new or modified sources in non-attainment areas.

A

Lowest Achievable Emission Rate (LAER)

162
Q

Material handling process, combustion processes, secondary reactions in the atmosphere between pollutant gases, mining and/or construction activities, motor vehicles, refuse incineration area all examples of ____ sources of ___.

A

man-made sources of particulate matter (PM)

163
Q

What are natural sources of particulate matter?

A

Volcanoes, forest fires, windstorms and pollen

164
Q

One of the most important characteristics of a suspension of particles is
the ______, with such a wide range of sizes, the
collection devices are different as well

A

size distribution of the particles

165
Q

Of greatest concern to public health are the particles small enough to be
inhaled into the deepest parts of the lung. What diameter are these particles?

A

10 micros or less (1/7th the thickness of human hair)

166
Q

Particles less than 10 microns in diameter are known as ____ and includes fine particulate matter known as ___

A

PM 10, PM 2.5

167
Q

_____is a major component of air pollution that threatens both our health
and our environment

A

PM 10

168
Q

Emissions from ____ are a major source of PM

A

incinerators

169
Q

For stokes law, the particle density is usually given as ______ which is the particle density divided by the density of water.

A

specific gravity

170
Q

What is the typical particle density? Because of this, is it necessary to include the fluid density in the calculation of the settling velocity using stokes law?

A

1200 kg/m3, the fluid density can be dropped from the calculation because the density of air is 1.2kg/m3 at 20 degrees celcius.

171
Q

Viscosity has units of Pa*s which is equal to:

A

N/m^2s = kg/(ms)

172
Q

The term _____ is used to describe the net amount of cloth available for filtering when one or more baghouse compartments is taken offline for maintenance or bag cleaning.

A

Net air-to-cloth ratio

173
Q

The area of a bag is pi(d)(l). What is the total cloth area?

A

npid*l=total cloth area
n = total number of bags

174
Q

What is the superficial filtering velocity also known as?

A

the air to cloth ratio

175
Q

In a cyclone, a particulate laden gas typically enters tangentially near the top. The flow is forced into a downward spiral due to the shape of the cyclone and tangential entry. ______ cause particles to move outward, collide with the outer wall, and slide downward to the bottom of the device.

A

Centrifugal force and inertia

176
Q

Near ______ of the cyclone the gas reverses its downward spiral and moves upward in a smaller, inner spiral.

A
177
Q

The cleaned gas exits from the _____, and the particles exit from the bottom of the cyclone through a pipe sealed by a spring loaded flapper valve or rotary valve

A

top through a “vortex finder” tube

178
Q

There are three broad categories of cyclones available:

A

high efficiency, conventional, and high throughput

179
Q

In a cyclone, ____ is defined as the diameter of a particle for which the efficiency has the value of 0.5, i.e. 50%.

A

cut diameter

180
Q

An ESP applies electrical force to separate ____ from the gas stream

A

particles (dry dusts or liquid droplets)

181
Q

In ESP a high voltage drop is established between electrodes, and particles passing through the resulting electrical field acquire a charge. The charged particles are attracted to and collected on an oppositely charged plate, and the cleaned gas flows through the device. The material is knocked off or washed off the plates and is collected ____.

A

at the bottom of the ESP

182
Q

NO, NO2, NO3, N2O, N2O3, N2O4 and N2O5 are the ______ of nitrogen that re known to occur.

A

seven oxides

183
Q

95% of all NOx from stationary combustion sources is emitted as NO. Nitric oxide
is formed by either or both of two mechanisms:

A

thermal NOx or fuel NOx.

184
Q

______is the NOx formed during combustion by reaction between nitrogen
and oxygen in the air. The rate of formation of thermal NOx is extremely
temperature sensitive, and becomes rapid at “flame” temperature (3000 3600 F).

A

Thermal NOx

185
Q

_____results from the combustion of fuels that contain organic nitrogen in the fuel (primarily coal or heavy fuel oil). Fuel NOx formation is dependent on local combustion conditions (oxygen concentrations and mixing patterns) and on the
nitrogen amount of fuel.

A

Fuel NOx

186
Q

______are two sulfur oxides that are formed whenever any material that contains sulfur is burned

A

SO2 and SO3

187
Q

The two basic approaches to controlling SOx emissions is to either______

A

remove sulfur from fuel before it is burned or remove SO₂ from the exhaust gases

188
Q

Flue gas desulfurization (FGD) is a SO₂ removal technology from the
exhaust gases which can be classified into two basic methods:

A

a) throwaway or regenerative, and b) wet or dry

189
Q

A process is considered ____ type if the sulfur is removed from the flue gas and then discarded.

A

throwaway

190
Q

A process is considered ____ if the sulfur is recovered in a usable form.

A

regenerative

191
Q

Limestone scrubbing systems are capable of ____ removal of sulfur
dioxide, while lime scrubbing can routinely achieve ___ removal of SO₂

A

90%, 95%

192
Q

The CaSO3 may then be reacted with O2 to produce ____ which is used in the drywall industry.

A

gypsum

193
Q

Indoor air is considered different from ambient or outdoor air for two
important reasons:____: Indoor air generally is considered private property
and therefore is not subject to the same federal regulations as ambient air;
and ______ although the same air is exchanged between indoors and
outdoors, the pollutants, their sources, and their dispersion behavior can be
quite different indoors than in the outdoor atmosphere

A

Legal,
Technical

194
Q

Common indoor air pollutants include the criteria pollutants like:

A

PM 2.5, ozone, NO2, SO2, and CO, as well as a wide variety of VOCs

195
Q

The National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) has
established _______ for a number of indoor
contaminants which specify recommended concentrations for workplace
exposure (eight hours per day, five days per week)

A

permissible exposure limits (PELs)

196
Q

The source of Radon as an indoor air pollutant is ____

A

release from underlying soil, release from water use

197
Q

____ has been used in many building materials such as floor tiles,
textured ceilings, heating pipe insulation, and structural fire protection
insulation.
When any of these ____ are disturbed or
deteriorate, ____ fibers may become airborne and eventually find
their way into the lungs

A

asbestos, asbestos containing materials (ACMs), asbestos

198
Q

The _______, was specifically
passed by the United States Congress to address asbestos in schools

A

Asbestos Hazard Emergency Response Act ( AHERA ) of 1986

199
Q

What do the following strategies control?

-Control the sources of pollutants within the indoor space
-Dilute pollutants and remove them from the buildings through
ventilation, or
-Clean the air by capturing or destroying pollutants in the recirculated air and/or make up air

A

These are the three main strategies for controlling indoor air quality

200
Q

The EPA has an AQI scale from 0 to 500. The AQI is determined by the ____ with the ____.

A

pollutant with the highest index. Pick the highest AQI from all of the pollutants in the mix.

Environmental PE (10 decks)

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