Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

mpharm year 3 sem 2 > week 11 > Flashcards

week 11 Flashcards

1
Q

define pharmacogenetics

A

variations in a single gene or small group of related genes that affect the pharmacology of a drug - the study of human genetic variation as revealed by various reactions to a drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

define pharmacogenomics

A

variations in several genes or the genome that influence drug response the use of genetic information for the design of new pharmaceuticals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

name 4 aims of GWAS

A

find those polymorphisms
see the genes nearby
and thus help understand the condition to- better identify new drug targets and stratify patient populations to receive appropriate treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

define GWAS

A

genome wide association studies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

name 3 prescriber needs for the importance of pharmacogenomics

A

increase awareness in order to ensure correct use of the product
safety of the patient
for their own safety - in the sense of avoiding litigation and claims of misconduct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

how long does it take for keratinocytes to become cornified?

A

28 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

give 6 functions of the skin

A
  • containment of bodily fluids
  • protective barrier (microbial, chemical, radiation etc)
  • reception of external stimuli
  • body temperature regulation
  • identification and or attraction
  • synthesis and metabolism
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is the largest barrier to drug diffusion through the skin?

A

stratum corneum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

which part of the stratum is 3-5 layers of flattened cells, organelles deteriorating; cytoplasm full of lamellated and keratohyalin granules?

A

stratum granulosum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

which part of the stratum is several layers of keratinocytes unified by desmosomes (intracellular junctions that provide strong adhesion between cells). cells contain thick bundles of intermediate filaments made of pre-keratin ?

A

stratum spinosum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

which part of the stratum is the deepest epidermal layer with one row of actively mitotic stem cells, some newly formed cells become part of the more superficial layers, occasional melanocyte and epidermal langerhan cells?

A

stratum basale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

which part of the skin is 1-4mm thick and composed of a matrix of connective tissue, containing blood vessels, lymph vessels and nerves?

A

dermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what does the cutaneous blood supply do?

A

regulates temperature, provides nutrients and oxygen to the skin whilst also removing toxins and waste products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the Cs in stratum conreum dependent on? (2)

A
  • drug concentration dissolved in delivery vehicle
  • drug partition coefficient K between skin and delivery vehicle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what determines how much drug can be dissolved in a vehicle?

A

the nature of the vehicle and properties of the drug molecule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

name the 2 ways in which dermal penetration enhancers can mediate the effects of topical drug delivery

A
  • direct enhancement of the skin permeability- some may cause permanent disruption to the stratum corneums barrier function
  • increasing thermodynamic (solubility) and kinetic energy of the drug and resultant concentration gradient
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

where are corticosteroids metabolised?

A

the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

how are corticosteroids excreted?

A

mainly by kidneys but also in bile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

which phase of an emulsion are hydrophobic drugs such as corticosteroids dissolved in?

A

the oil phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

how is a cream preparation stabilised?

A

by the addition of emulsifying agents - this reduced interfacial tension which increases viscosity and prevents dispersed oil phase droplets from coalescing (coming together)

21
Q

which part of the manufacturing of a cream will determine the droplet size?

A

the degree of homogenisation which takes place during manufacturing

22
Q

name one very potent corticosteroid and who it can be used on

A

diflucortolone validate (o.3%) - adults only

clobetasol propionate (0.05%)- adults only

23
Q

name three potent corticosteroids (group 3) and who they can be used on

A
  • beclometasone dipropionate (0.025%)
  • fluticasone propionate (0.05%)
  • hydrocortisone butyrate (0.1%)
  • mometasone furoate (0.1%)

all adults only

24
Q

name 3 moderately potent corticosteroids (group 2) and who they can be used on

A
  • alclometasone dipropionate (0.05%)
  • betamethasone (0.025%)
  • clobetasone butyrate (0.05%)

all can be used on adults and children

25
Q

name one mildly potent corticosteroid and who it can be used on

A

hydrocortisone (0.5/1%)- can be used on adults, children and infants

26
Q

which vehicle can increase corticosteroid potency?

A

ointment preparations

27
Q

what is a finger tip unit?

A

one finger tip unit is enough to treat an area of skin twice the size of the flat if an adults hand with the fingers together - if a patient requires 2 FTU’s daily this is equal to 1g of product- so a 30g tube would last 30days

28
Q

advice on application of steroids (topically) (3)

A
  • clean area with soap and warm water an pat dry
  • apply an appropriate amount (according to FTUs) with clean fingers
  • wash hands thoroughly with soap and water to minimise contamination to other body parts which do not require the steroid
29
Q

name the condition- more common in older males, excessive dandruff, thickening of the skin, skin dry and peeling

A

seborrheic dermatitis

30
Q

name 4 possible treatments for seborrheic dermatitis

A
  • topical corticosteroid- short term use only
  • medicated shampoo- ketoconazole or coal tar extract
  • lassar’s paste (zinc oxide and salicylic acid)
  • eucerin- just for reducing inflammation
31
Q

name the condition - an immune disorder, chronic papulo squamous skin disease

A

psoriasis

32
Q

which cytokines are involved in psoriasis?

A

TNF- alpha, IL-1b, IL-6

33
Q

name 7 possible treatments for psoriasis

A
  • emollient
  • coal tar (reduces inflammation)
  • dithranol (inhibits proliferation)
  • corticosteroids
  • vitamin D analogues (calcipotirol)

for severe cases
- methotrexate
- anti - TNF alpha antibodies (inflixamab)

34
Q

name the condition - usually in the face, redness, pimples, swelling, superficial blood vessels

A

rosacea

35
Q

name 2 possible treatments for rosacea

A
  • oral antibiotics such as oxytetracycline
  • topical ivermectin
36
Q

name the condition - superficial infection on the face or fingers, accompanied by yellow crust

A

bacterial impetigo

37
Q

name 2 treatments for impetigo- one topical, one oral

A
  • fusidic acid cream
  • flucloxacillin- or if penicillin allergic- erythromycin
38
Q

name one treatment for scabies

A

permethrin lotion

39
Q

name a treatment for scabies which is suitable for babies

A

2.5% sulphur ointment

40
Q

what kind of immune response is generated during a parasitic worm infection ?

A

induce both a TH2 and an anti-inflammatory immune response

41
Q

how does a parasitic worm infection impact on immune responses to other molecules such as other infectious diseases or vaccines?

A

helminths induce TH2 and anti-inflammatory responses- decreases the responses to vaccines that rely on Th1 responses for efficacy

42
Q

what are the parasitic worm- derived molecules responsible for their protective effects against allergy or autoimmunity?

A

mainly secreted products and mainly proteins
examples are- ES-62, cystatins, AIP-2 and HpAri

43
Q

name 4 examples of non-infectious diseases that parasitic worms are being increasingly considered to protect against

A

metabolic syndrome ie type 2 diabetes
cardiovascular diseases
neurological diseases
ageing co-morbidities

44
Q

how do parasitic worms interact with the microbiome- does this have therapeutic implications?

A
  • can impact the gut microbiome= conflicting evidence- do they increase or decrease diversity
  • effects on microbiome linked to immunomodulation
  • transfer of altered microbiome alone is sufficient to protect against asthma in mouse model
45
Q

how are asthma phenotypes determined?

A

spirometry
FEV1

46
Q

why are some SNPs listed as 2 genes ie ‘X/Y’?

A

some sets of associated SNPs don’t fall nicely on just one gene but rather lie in-between or over both genes

47
Q

reduced FVC- obstructive or restrictive?

A

restrictive

48
Q

narrowed airways- obstructive or restrictive?

A

obstructive

mpharm year 3 sem 2 (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions