EPME E-2 - E-4

Question 1

In which of the following cases is Tuition Assistance authorized?

Answer 1

`TA is authorized for Active Duty military and if funded in the FY20
Coast Guard appropriation, Reserve members affiliated with the Selected Reserve
(SELRES). In accordance with REF (B), members of SELRES must be drilling reservists with satisfactory progress in the current anniversary year and have met the participation standards for the previous anniversary year. TA is now available for courses leading to the first certificate, Associate, Bachelor, and Master’s degree.

Question 2

What term is defined as any self-reported thoughts of engaging in suicide-related behaviors?

Answer 2

Suicide-Related Ideations

Question 3

Which term is defined as self-inflicted death with evidence, either explicit or implicit, or intent to die?

Answer 3

Suicide

Question 4

What is the result of Self-Harm Level 3?

Answer 4

Fatality

Question 5

What term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior for which there is evidence, either implicit or explicit, that the person did not intend to kill himself/herself?

Answer 5

Self-Harm

Question 6

What term is defined as any interpersonal action, verbal or nonverbal, without a direct self-injurious component, passive or active, for which there is evidence, either explicit or implicit, that the person is communicating that a suicide-related behavior might occur in the near future?

Answer 6

Suicide Threat

Question 7

What term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior with a non-fatal outcome for which there is evidence, either explicit or implicit, of intent to die?

Answer 7

Suicide Attempt

Question 8

What term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior where intent is unknown?

Answer 8

Undetermined Suicide-Related Behavior

Question 9

Dismissing _____________ as “manipulation” is one of the surest ways to increase suicide risk.

Answer 9

Suicidal Ideations

Question 10

What would self-harm with no injury be reported as?

Answer 10

Self-Harm Level 1

Question 11

What level of self-harm results in injury?

Answer 11

Self-Harm Level 2

Question 12

What level of self-harm results in no injury?

Answer 12

Self-Harm Level 1

Question 13

For reporting purposes, what level of suicide attempt results in injury?

Answer 13

Suicide Attempt Level 2

Question 14

In one survey more than half of 26,000 students across 70 colleges and universities reported having at least one _____________ at some point in their lives.

Answer 14

Episode of Suicidal Thinking

Question 15

What are any interpersonal acts of imparting, conveying, or transmitting suicide-related thoughts, wishes, desires, or intent; not to be construed as the actual self-inflicted behavior or injury known as?

Answer 15

Suicide-Related Communications

Question 16

What type of suicide-related communications is a proposed method of carrying out a design that can potentially result in suicide-related behavior?

Answer 16

Suicide Plan

Question 17

What type of suicide-related communications is a systematic formulation of a program of action that will potentially lead to suicide-related behaviors?

Answer 17

Suicide Plan

Question 18

For reporting purposes, what level of self-harm results in death?

Answer 18

Self-Harm Level 3

Question 19

Which of the following is part of the mnemonic for recognizing warning signs and circumstances associated with suicidal behavior?

Answer 19

I, S, P, A, T, H, W, A, R, M, See Table on pg. 3 of the EPME SWE Complete file

Question 20

_____________ is not an easy thing to do, but it is essential for suicide prevention.

Answer 20

Ask

Question 21

What may be helpful to lead into the question “Are you thinking about killing yourself?”

Answer 21

A statement of your observations

Question 22

What mnemonic is used as an aid for what to do when you suspect someone is thinking of suicide?

Answer 22

ACE: Ask - Care - Escort

Question 23

During which step of suicide prevention may the at-risk member attempt to make a joke or attempt to deflect the direct question?

Answer 23

Ask

Question 24

During the _____________ step of suicide prevention you should actively listen.

Answer 24

Care

Question 25

During which step of suicide prevention you should remove or take possession of any means that could be used for self-injury?

Answer 25

Care

Question 26

During which step of suicide prevention is it important to not promise confidentiality?

Answer 26

Care

Question 27

In which step of suicide prevention is active listening likely to produce relief?

Answer 27

Care

Question 28

During which step of suicide prevention should you encourage the person to seek help?

Answer 28

Care

Question 29

You may express optimism that the person will be helped and will feel better if it seems appropriate and genuine during which step of suicide prevention?

Answer 29

Care

Question 30

During which step in suicide prevention will you adopt an attitude that you are going to help the person and this will save his/her life?

Answer 30

Escort

Question 31

During which step of suicide prevention should you escort the person to the nearest emergency room, HCP, or mental healthcare professional?

Answer 31

Escort

Question 32

If you ask a person “Are you thinking about killing yourself?” and they make a joke of the question, what should you do?

Answer 32

“Hang in there and ask the question again, letting the person know you are serious”

Question 33

If a person tacitly indicates he/she has had thoughts of suicide, what information should you get on how bad the situation is?

Answer 33

(a) How? - Does he/she have a plan? Is the plan specific? Does he/she possess the means (pills, gun, etc.)? Are the means lethal? If there is a plan, does the person express or imply an intention to actually go through with it?

(b) Situation? - Is he/she alone (if communication is by phone or e-mail)? Have they been drinking?

(c) History? - Prior attempts? Hospitalizations? Any family history of suicidal behaviors?

Question 34

Who can you contact to acquire contact information for specific sources of help for suicide prevention?

Answer 34

Contact your Regional Work-Life Office for specific contact information

Question 35

Which personnel are required to develop Personal Fitness Plans, Form CG-6049?

Answer 35

All AD and SELRES

Question 36

All active duty members must engage in fitness activity as outlined in their Personal Fitness Plan a minimum of _____________ per week.

Answer 36

180 Minutes

Question 37

It is strongly recommended that the Personal Fitness Plan include _____________ minutes per week of cardiorespiratory activity.

Answer 37

150 Minutes

Question 38

It is strongly recommended that the Personal Fitness Plan include _____________ minutes per week of strength training.

Answer 38

30 Minutes

Question 39

Physical fitness guidelines for general health as set forth by the CDC include what amount of moderate-intensity aerobic activity per week?

Answer 39

150 Minutes

Question 40

Physical fitness guidelines for general health as set forth by the CDC include muscle-strengthening activities for a minimum of how many days per week?

Answer 40

2 or more days a week

Question 41

Who do you submit your completed Personal Fitness Plan to?

Answer 41

The completed Personal Fitness Plan (PFP) must be submitted to their supervisors in the months of April and October.

Question 42

When must your completed Personal Fitness Plan be submitted?

Answer 42

The completed Personal Fitness Plan (PFP) must be submitted to their supervisors in the months of April and October.

Question 43

Who is required to keep your most current Personal Fitness Plan must be kept on file or electronically saved?

Answer 43

The most current form must be kept on file or electronically saved by the member and supervisor.

Question 44

What is the minimum amount of time for exercise sessions, in order to be beneficial?

Answer 44

10 Minutes

Question 45

In general, physical activity should be spread out over at least how many days per week.

Answer 45

3 days per week

Question 46

What levels of intensity are used to measure a training effect for physical activity?

Answer 46

Medium to vigorous level of intensity

Question 47

According to the CDC, adults should perform 150 minutes per week of aerobic activity at what level of intensity?

Answer 47

Moderate-Intensity

Question 48

Who are required to use installed occupant restraints while operating or riding in a motor vehicle on any Coast Guard installation?

Answer 48

All Personnel

Question 49

Who determines whether a particular use of a government motor vehicle is for official purposes?

Answer 49

The unit commander, commanding officer, or officer-in-charge within applicable law and regulations

Question 50

When are CG owned motor vehicles authorized to transport spouses and dependents?

Answer 50

To transport an employee, spouse and dependents together from the workplace to an official function to which the spouse and dependents were invited and the employee is participating in an official capacity

Question 51

Which of the following would be an authorized use of a CG owned motor vehicle?

Answer 51

Official Purposes, Ceremonies, Non-CG Employees in Official Capacity, Spouse and Dependents with Member, Military Recruits, Official Travel

Question 52

Which of the following would be an authorized use of a CG owned motor vehicle?

Answer 52

Official Purposes, Ceremonies, Non-CG Employees in Official Capacity, Spouse and Dependents with Member, Military Recruits, Official Travel

Question 53

Transportation of a member’s dependent would be authorized in a CG owned motor vehicle in which case?

Answer 53

To transport an employee, spouse and dependents together from the workplace to an official function to which the spouse and dependents were invited and the employee is participating in an official capacity

Question 54

What is the early withdraw penalty tax for the Thrift Saving Plan?

Answer 54

10%

Question 55

What term is defined as the process (or steps) involved in managing one’s personal finances, including income, expenses, and investments, for an individual or family?

Answer 55

Personal Financial Management

Question 56

The definition of which term includes prudent day-to-day management of personal finances?

Answer 56

Personal Financial Readiness

Question 57

What term is defined as the act of evaluating an individual’s or family’s income and expenditures and recommending short- and long-term actions to achieve financial goals and ensure individual, family and mission readiness?

Answer 57

Financial Planning and Counseling

Question 58

The PFMP consists of how many elements?

Answer 58

6

Question 59

Which of the following is an element of the PFMP?

Answer 59

Education and Training, (2) Counseling, (3) Information and Referral, (4) Command Financial Specialist Program, (5) Outreach, (6) Collaboration and Coordination

Question 60

CFS’s fall under what element of the PFMP?

Answer 60

Counseling

Question 61

Onboard a ship salutes shall be dispensed with after the first daily meeting with what exception?

Answer 61

Except for those rendered the commanding officer and officers senior to the commanding officer, to visiting officers, to officers making inspections, and to officers when addressing or being addressed by them

Question 62

You must render salutes to which of the following?

Answer 62

All persons in the Coast Guard shall salute all officers senior to themselves on each occasion of meeting or passing near or when addressing or being addressed by such officers.

Question 63

When are salutes rendered by persons in motor vehicles?

Answer 63

Persons that are passengers will render and return salutes

Question 64

You will not render a salute if the person to be saluted does not approach within what distance?

Answer 64

6-Pace Distance

Question 65

NTAS consists of how many types of advisories?

Answer 65

2 Types: Bulletins and Alerts

Question 66

Which FPCON applies when an increased and more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists?

Answer 66

FPCON Bravo

Question 67

Which FPCON require the movement of cars and objects at least 25 meters from buildings?

Answer 67

FPCON Bravo

Question 68

Which FPCON applies when a general threat of possible terrorist activity exists but warrants only routine security posture?

Answer 68

FPCON Normal

Question 69

Which FPCON requires that the implemented security measures must be capable of being maintained indefinitely?

Answer 69

FPCON Alpha

Question 70

Which FPCON requires weapons to be issued to guards?

Answer 70

FPCON Charlie

Question 71

Which Type I PFD provides greater mobility when the use of law enforcement or other types of gear are required?

Answer 71

Stearns Model I600 Type I PFD

Question 72

Boat characteristics include which types of frames?

Answer 72

Transverse and Longitudinal

Question 73

Members with a PFB waiver will trim facial hair as to not to exceed what length?

Answer 73

Facial hair will be trimmed so as not to exceed 1/4 inch in length

Question 74

Which grooming standard applies to moustaches?

Answer 74

If worn, a moustache must be neatly groomed. Will not extend below the top of the upper lip or beyond the corners of the mouth. For the purpose of uniformity, Ceremonial Honor Guard members, Coast Guard Academy Cadets, Officer Candidates, and Coast Guard Training Center Cape May recruits will be clean-shaven.

Question 75

Who can grant a permanent shaving waiver for personnel who are diagnosis with Pseudofolliculitis Barbae (PFB)?

Answer 75

Commanding Officers or Officers-in-Charge

Question 76

Whose proposal to Congress resulted in the establishment of the Revenue Cutter Service 1790?

Answer 76

Alexander Hamilton

Question 77

On August 7, 1789, Congress gave responsibility for constructing and maintaining all of the Nation’s aid to navigation to what entity?

Answer 77

The Treasury Department

Question 78

The Revenue Marine were charged with what single purpose?

Answer 78

Assistance in the collection of customs duties and tonnage taxes

Question 79

In 1838 Congress enacted legislation in response to steamboat boiler explosions that would evolve over the next several decades into what agency?

Answer 79

Steamboat Inspection Service within the Treasury Department

Question 80

The Revenue Cutter Service began with _____________ cutters at a cost of $1000 each.

Answer 80

10

Question 81

The USCG celebrates its birthday on _____________ of each year.

Answer 81

04 August

Question 82

In what year were Revenue Marine cutters ordered to begin limited cruising during the winter months to assist mariners in distress?

Answer 82

1831

Question 83

The United States Coast Guard was formed when the Revenue Cutter Service and Life-Saving Service were merged on what date?

Answer 83

28 January 1915

Question 84

When was the United States Coast Guard transferred to Department of Transportation?

Answer 84

April 1967

Question 85

When was the United States Coast Guard transferred to the Department of Homeland Security?

Answer 85

The Homeland Security Act of 2002 transferred the Coast Guard to the Department of Homeland Security as the maritime element of the Nation’s new security organization

Question 86

Alexander Hamilton was appointed to be the first _____________.

Answer 86

Secretary of the Treasury

Question 87

Who was the first Commandant of the United States Coast Guard?

Answer 87

Captain-Commandant Ellsworth Price Bertholf

Question 88

Which Revenue Cutter helped lead the Overland Expedition to rescue of rescue missions of marooned whalers near Point Barrow, Alaska?

Answer 88

Revenue Cutter Bear

Question 89

Who was the Coast Guard’s first aviator?

Answer 89

Elmer Stone

Question 90

On June 19, 1911, Ellsworth Price Bertholf was named Captain Commandant of the _____________

Answer 90

U.S. Revenue Cutter Service

Question 91

Who was awarded the Medal of Honor for evacuating a battalion of Marines trapped by Japanese forces on September 27, 1942?

Answer 91

Signalman First Class Douglas A. Munro

Question 92

Where did SM1 Douglas Munro aid a battalion of Marines during landing and rescue?

Answer 92

Point Cruz Guadalcanal

Question 93

SM1 Douglas Munro was in charge of 24 Higgins boats during an amphibious invasion at Point Cruz, _____________

Answer 93

Guadalcanal

Question 94

What vessel is credited with firing the first naval shot of the Civil War?

Answer 94

Cutter Harriet Lane

Question 95

The USCGC TAMPA was sunk by _____________ during World War I

Answer 95

A German torpedo

Question 96

The USCGC TAMPA was sunk with how many people onboard?

Answer 96

131 crewmembers onboard

Question 97

What legislation forced the bulk of the burden for enforcing Prohibition in U.S. waters to the Coast Guard?

Answer 97

The National Prohibition (Volstead) Act of 1919

Question 98

An explosion that killed more than 1,600 people in Nova Scotia led the Congress to establish _____________ for the United States Coast Guard.

Answer 98

Coast Guard Captain of the Port Offices

Question 99

Captain of the Port duties were assigned to the United States Coast Guard during which military conflict?

Answer 99

World War I

Question 100

During World War I, how many USCG cutters went overseas to perform convoy escort duty between Gibraltar and Great Britain?

Answer 100

6 Cutters

Question 101

When did the Coast Guard begin carrying out neutrality patrols in the North Atlantic?

Answer 101

September 1939

Question 102

Following the explosion of the French ammunition carrier SS Mont-Blanc in World War I, what was one of the Coast Guard’s major related tasks at home?

Answer 102

Port Security

Question 103

In what year was the Coast Guard tasked with open-ocean weather patrol duties in the North Atlantic?

Answer 103

1940

Question 104

During Vietnam, the United States Coast Guard conducted _____________, which patrolled the South Vietnamese coast to stop the flow of war materials and personnel from going to the Viet Cong.

Answer 104

“Operation Market Time”: Involved the interdiction of trawlers used by North Vietnam for infiltration and re-supply activities

Question 105

During Vietnam, how many 82-foot patrol boats from the Coast Guard were sent to Vietnam to support maritime interdiction operations?

Answer 105

26

Question 106

By the end of “Operation Market Time” the Coast Guard had boarded nearly how many sampans and junks?

Answer 106

A quarter of a million

Question 107

Where did Coast Guard Port Security Units deploy in 1990-1991.?

Answer 107

The Persian Gulf

Question 108

Who pioneered the use of aviation for law enforcement and search-and-rescue operations for the Coast Guard?

Answer 108

Elmer Stone, the Coast Guard’s first aviator

Question 109

Women and African Americans were integrated into the United States Coast Guard by the end of _____________.

Answer 109

World War II

Question 110

When was the Homeland Security Act passed?

Answer 110

2002

Question 111

The United States Coast Guard mobilized more than 2,700 reservists in the largest homeland security operation since World War II, following _____.

Answer 111

The terrorist attacks of September 11, 2001

Question 112

The United States Coast Guard were among the first to respond to the attack on the World Trade Center on _____________.

Answer 112

September 11, 2001

Question 113

In 2005, the United States Coast Guard responded to thousands of oil and HAZMAT spills, totaling over 9 million gallons, following _____________.

Answer 113

Hurricane Katrina

Question 114

Nearly half of the United States Coast Guard’s Selected Reserves were used to carry out homeland security and national defense missions at home and abroad beginning in 2003, as part of what Operations?

Answer 114

Operation Iraqi Freedom / Operation Enduring Freedom

Question 115

In which year did the United States Coast Guard conducted the largest domestic SAR mission in United States history following Hurricane Katrina?

Answer 115

2005

Question 116

Who served as Boarding Officer on the USS FIREBOLT (PC 10) in Iraq when he was mortally wounded?

Answer 116

DC3 Nathan B. Bruckenthal

Question 117

DC3 Nathan B. Bruckenthal was posthumously awarded which award for his actions on 24 April 2004?

Answer 117

Bronze Star Medal (with combat “V”)

Question 118

Who was the first African-American to command a U.S. Life-Saving Station?

Answer 118

Captain Richard Etheridge

Question 119

Captain Richard Etheridge was appointed as Keeper to which Life-Saving Station?

Answer 119

Pea Island Life-Saving Station

Question 120

The Life-Saving Station where Captain Richard Etheridge was appointed as keeper had a reputation as _____.

Answer 120

“One of the tautest on the Carolina Coast”

Question 121

The Pea Island Life-Saving Station is located near _____________.

Answer 121

Cape Fear, North Carolina

Question 122

For their actions in saving the entire crew of E.S. Newman, the all African American crew of the Pea Island Life-Saving Station, were awarded _____________.

Answer 122

The Gold Lifesaving Medal posthumously

Question 123

Which Coast Guard officer took part of the planning effort for the liberation of Cherbourg, France, a key supply depot, as part of Operation Overlord (D-Day) preparations?

Answer 123

LCDR Quentin R. Walsh

Question 124

Who was awarded the Navy Cross during World War II while serving as a Commanding Officer of a specially trained U.S. Naval Reconnaissance Party?

Answer 124

LCDR Quentin R. Walsh

Question 125

What was awarded to LCDR Walsh for engaging in active street fighting with the enemy during World War II?

Answer 125

The Navy Cross

Question 126

Which Coast Guard officer liberated 53 paratroopers who had been prisoners since D-Day?

Answer 126

LCDR Quentin R. Walsh

Question 127

Who was the Coast Guard’s first female helicopter pilot?

Answer 127

Lieutenant Colleen A. Cain

Question 128

What year did LT Collen A. Cain become the Coast Guard’s third female aviator?

Answer 128

1979

Question 129

DC3 Bruckenthal detected a small, unidentified _________ proceeding toward the Al Basra Oil Terminal in Iraqi territorial waters and moved his team into position to screen the oil terminal.

Answer 129

Dhow

Question 130

Lieutenant Colleen A. Cain was awarded the _______ for saving a three-year-old boy involved in a boating accident.

Answer 130

Coast Guard Achievement Medal

Question 131

Lieutenant Colleen A. Cain, Lieutenant Commander Buzz Johnson, and Aviation Survivalman David Thompson made the ultimate sacrifice in service to their nation and fellow countrymen when their helicopter crashed, in route to a sinking vessel, in the State of _____________.

Answer 131

Hawaii

Question 132

The Union Jack is flown on the _____________ of the ship.

Answer 132

Bow

Question 133

The Coast Guard Ensign consists of _____ perpendicular stripes, alternating red and white.

Answer 133

16

Question 134

How many times has the National Ensign been changed since 1776?

Answer 134

26

Question 135

The _____________ is displayed as a mark of authority for boardings, examinations, and seizure of vessels for the purpose of enforcing U.S. laws.

Answer 135

The Coast Guard Ensign

Question 136

The _____________ is flown on the bow of a vessel, only while at anchor or moored in port.

Answer 136

The Union Jack

Question 137

The _____________ is flown on the jackstaff, which is located on the bow of a vessel.

Answer 137

The Union Jack

Question 138

The _____________ is the canton of the United States Flag.

Answer 138

The Union Jack

Question 139

The _____________ provided a symbol of authority, as neither officer nor crew had uniforms.

Answer 139

The Coast Guard Ensign

Question 140

The _____________ was created to fly in place of the national flag while in American waters.

Answer 140

The Coast Guard Ensign

Question 141

The current design of the _____________ has 16 red and white stripes.

Answer 141

The Coast Guard Ensign

Question 142

The design of the Coast Guard Ensign was ordered by Secretary of the Treasury, Oliver Wolcott, on _____________.

Answer 142

1 August 1799

Question 143

What is carried in all ceremonies representing heroic actions in all naval encounters from 1798 to the present?

Answer 143

Battle Streamers

Question 144

Battle streamers are attached to the ________________, replacing cords and tassels

Answer 144

Coast Guard Standard

Question 145

During parades and ceremonies, the Coast Guard Standard is adorned with _____________.

Answer 145

43 Battle Streamers

Question 146

Individual units may only display those _____________ that they have earned.

Answer 146

Battle Streamers

Question 147

Only _____________ may display a complete set of battle streamers.

Answer 147

Major Headquarters Commands

Question 148

The design of the _____________ is obscure, but it may have evolved from an early jack.

Answer 148

Coast Guard Standard

Question 149

The presence of the _____________ indicates that a cutter is under the command of a commissioned officer.

Answer 149

Commissioning Pennant

Question 150

The United States Coast Guard adopted battle streamers in 1968, following the practice established by the _____________.

Answer 150

U.S. Marine Corps

Question 151

The United States Coast Guard is authorized a total of _____________ battle streamers.

Answer 151

43

Question 152

This flag is the upper left corner of the Coast Guard Ensign.

Answer 152

Union Jack

Question 153

This flag is used during parades and ceremonies.

Answer 153

Coast Guard Standard

Question 154

The _____________ consists of a wide red bar forward of a narrow blue bar both canted at 64 degrees on the bow with CG emblem superimposed.

Answer 154

CG Stripe

Question 155

The _____________ is used on invitations, programs, certificates, diplomas, and greetings.

Answer 155

The Coast Guard Seal

Question 156

The _____________ is used on official documents and records of the Coast Guard.

Answer 156

The Coast Guard Seal

Question 157

The _____________ was developed in the 1960s by the industrial design firm Raymond Loewy/Williams Snaith, Inc.

Answer 157

CG Stripe

Question 158

The Coast Guard _____________ was ordered to be used on the Coast Guard Ensign as a distinctive logo in 1957.

Answer 158

CG Seal and Emblem

Question 159

The first Coast Guard Seal and Emblem were approved by Treasury Secretary Andrew W. Mellon in _____________.

Answer 159

1927

Question 160

The historical significance of the Coast Guard _____________ dates back to the Revenue Cutter Service.

Answer 160

CG Shield

Question 161

Semper Paratus is the Latin word meaning: _____________.

Answer 161

“Always Ready” or “Ever Ready”

Question 162

When was the Coast Guard Motto adopted?

Answer 162

Sometime between October 1896 and May 1897

Question 163

The earliest recorded use of the phrase “Semper Paratus” appeared in a newspaper article in the city of _____________, praising the Revenue Cutter Ingham.

Answer 163

New Orleans

Question 164

What language did Semper Paratus originate from?

Answer 164

Latin

Question 165

The music for Semper Paratus was written by _____________

Answer 165

Captain Francis Saltus Van Boskerck

Question 166

What is a Safety Data Sheet (SDS)?

Answer 166

Set of instructions or operating guidelines designed to protect end users from the dangers posed by hazardous chemicals

Question 167

The standard GHS format for a safety data sheet includes _____ sections, in a specified order.

Answer 167

16

Question 168

What must be readily accessible to all workers while in their work area, when workers are required to use HAZMAT or when workers are at risk of exposure to HAZMAT?

Answer 168

Safety Data Sheet’s

Question 169

Specific hazard information may not be present on a chemical container. As a result, you must consult the _____________ to prevent improper use or handling.

Answer 169

Safety Data Sheet’s

Question 170

GHS provides a standard for the content, layout, and presentation of _____.

Answer 170

Hazard Communications

Question 171

If the SDS is not available, who must the unit notify to obtain the SDS.

Answer 171

The Manufacturer

Question 172

What is the Active and Reserve Gold Badges assignment standard tour length?

Answer 172

2 Years

Question 173

Who must provide the Commander/Commanding Officer endorsement for all CSELs except the MCPOCG and MCPO-CGR?

Answer 173

0-6 or Higher

Question 174

If in a motor vehicle during the National Anthem and conditions permit, the senior person should _____________.

Answer 174

If you are in a vehicle, stop and sit at attention, do not salute. If conditions permit, the senior person gets out and salutes.

Question 175

If in a motor vehicle during the National Anthem, the driver shall _____________.

Answer 175

Vehicles within sight or hearing of the ceremony shall be stopped. Persons riding in such vehicles shall remain seated at attention

Question 176

When in uniform at a parade, if the flag passes you, you shall ____________.

Answer 176

Salute flag when it comes within 6 paces, and hold salute until it has passes 6 paces beyond you.

Question 177

When in civilian attire at a parade, when the flag passes you shall _____.

Answer 177

Place your hand over your heart when the flag comes within 6 paces, and hold until it passes 6 paces beyond you.

Question 178

Which Stress Management awareness and skills training promotes an understanding of stress, awareness of support resources, and provides practical stress navigation tools to help build resilience of Sailors, families, and commands?

Answer 178

Operational Stress Control

Question 179

How can you contact the Employee Assistance Program?

Answer 179

CG SUPRT - Employee Assistance Program (EAP)
1-855-CGSUPRT (247-8778) or www.CGSUPRT.com

Question 180

Who is eligible for the Office of Work-Life Stress Management Program?

Answer 180

Active Duty members and their dependents, Reservists, and Civilian Employees of the Coast Guard

Question 181

Stress is defined within the Coast Guard Stress Management Program as:

Answer 181

The non-specific response of the body to any demands placed upon it or what you feel after you encounter a stressor (anxiety, frustration, depression, etc.)

Question 182

Which of the following does the National Institute of Mental Health recommend to manage stress?

Answer 182

-Be observant
-Talk to your health care provider or a health professional
-Get regular exercise
-Try a relaxing activity
-Set goals and priorities
-Stay connected
-Consider a clinical trial

Question 183

What program is intended to assist you in becoming familiar with your new community and the resources available when you are reassigned?

Answer 183

Relocation Assistance Program

Question 184

Who can provide you with community information, demographics information, relocation packages, and state information when you are reassigned?

Answer 184

Transition/Relocation Managers (TRMs)

Question 185

Transition/Relocation Managers may provide _____ with local resource information.

Answer 185

Welcome Packages

Question 186

How should you contact your Transition/Relocation Manager?

Answer 186

Regional Work-Life Staff

Question 187

Your _______ can help you utilize the Office of Work-Life Adoption Reimbursement Program.

Answer 187

The Family Resource Specialist (FRS) on your Regional Work-Life Staff at 1-800-872-4957

Question 188

Who is your point of contact for information relating to the Coast Guard Scholarship Program?

Answer 188

Family Resource Specialist (FRS) on your Regional Work-Life Staff at 1-202-475-5100

Question 189

What is the title for staff members at Health, Safety, and Work-Life Regional Practices specifically trained to assist individuals and commands when maltreatment incidents occur?

Answer 189

Family Advocacy Specialist (FAS)

Question 190

What form is used to enroll my dependent family member with medical special needs into the SNP?

Answer 190

Family Member Medical Summary, DD Form 2792

Question 191

One purpose of the Family Advocacy Program is to _____.

Answer 191

The Family Advocacy Program is a Congressionally-mandated (Chapter 10 United States Code Section 1058) program that addresses prevention, identification, reporting, investigation, and treatment of intimate partner and child maltreatment and assigns responsibilities for a coordinated community response within the Coast Guard in collaboration with services outside the Coast Guard. Services are provided to minimize the occurrence of maltreatment and to support Coast Guard commands by retaining productive members.

Question 192

The purpose of the _____________ is prevention, identification, reporting, investigation, and treatment of intimate partner and child maltreatment.

Answer 192

Family Advocacy Program

Question 193

CGSUPRT is part of HSWL’s _____________ CG-111 Site.

Answer 193

Employee Assistance Program

Question 194

Members can call _____________ 24 hours a day, 365 days a year to speak with an experienced and highly trained counselor.

Answer 194

CG SUPRT

Question 195

The end of marking periods for pay grade E-1 is the last day of which months?

Answer 195

January and July

Question 196

The end of marking periods for pay grade E-2 is the last day of which months?

Answer 196

January and July

Question 197

The end of marking periods for pay grade E-3 is the last day of which months?

Answer 197

February and August

Question 198

The end of marking periods for pay grade E-4 is the last day of which months?

Answer 198

March and September

Question 199

The end of marking periods for pay grade E-5 is the last day of which months?

Answer 199

April and October

Question 200

The end of marking periods for pay grade E-6 is the last day of which month?

Answer 200

May

Question 201

The end of marking periods for pay grade E-7 is the last day of which month?

Answer 201

September

Question 202

The end of marking periods for pay grade E-8 is the last day of which month?

Answer 202

February (AD) or November (Reserves)

Question 203

The end of marking periods for pay grade E-9 is the last day of which month?

Answer 203

June

Question 204

How many major categories of performance are there in the EES?

Answer 204

4

Question 205

The Marking Official should route the completed evaluation report to the approving official no later than ____ days after the evaluation report period ending date?

Answer 205

5 Days

Question 206

____________ is responsible for ensuring your evaluation is based on how you performed in each performance dimension consistently through the period.

Answer 206

The Rating Chain

Question 207

The evaluee must perform which of the following functions within the EES?

Answer 207

Familiarization
Performance
Evaluation Input
Acknowledgement
Verification

Question 208

When do you need to need to provide evaluation input for your EER?

Answer 208

Evaluation Input. Provide a list of significant accomplishments, if required by the rating chain, to the rating chain not later than 14 days prior to the end of the marking period.

Question 209

What is done with the original EER counseling sheet?

Answer 209

The unit provides the evaluee the original counseling sheet

Question 210

The ____________ has been designed to capture a valid, reliable assessment of enlisted members’ performance, so the Coast Guard can advance and assign them with a high degree of confidence.

Answer 210

The Enlisted Evaluation System (EES)

Question 211

The ____________ has been designed to inform each member of the performance stands against which they are measured.

Answer 211

The Enlisted Evaluation System (EES)

Question 212

The ____________ has been designed to provide a means by which each enlisted member can receive feedback on how well the member is measuring up to the standards.

Answer 212

The Enlisted Evaluation System (EES)

Question 213

The ____________ has been designed to provide information about discharges, re-enlistments, good conduct, advancement eligibility, and reductions in pay grade.

Answer 213

The Enlisted Evaluation System (EES)

Question 214

The ____________ has been designed to set standards by which to evaluate the performance and behavior of each enlisted member.

Answer 214

The Enlisted Evaluation System (EES)

Question 215

Your signature on the member’s signature block of the EER counseling sheet indicates acknowledgement of: ____________.

Answer 215

The counseling and review of their evaluation report
The impact of their evaluation report on their Good Conduct eligibility
The appeal time frame
Their advancement potential and recommendation

Question 216

What competency within a performance assessment must be adhered to every day of the marking period?

Answer 216

Conduct

Question 217

What are the individual elements located under each factor type on which the Coast Guard evaluates its enlisted members called?

Answer 217

Competencies

Question 218

Which factor type in the EER measures the member’s ability to bring credit to the Coast Guard through personal demeanor and professional actions?

Answer 218

Military

Question 219

Which factor type in the EER measures a member’s ability to direct, guide, develop, influence, and support others performing work?

Answer 219

Leadership

Question 220

Performance Standards are the written criteria that outlines the expected performance to receive a mark of _____.

Answer 220

2,4, or 6 in each competency

Question 221

What are the areas impacted by awarding an “Unsatisfactory Conduct Mark”, as listed in CIM 1000.2(series)?

Answer 221

Advancement
Good Conduct Award Eligibility

Question 222

Appeals to the approving official’s decision on the advancement recommendation _____.

Answer 222

Are not authorized

Question 223

What are the possible choices for advancement recommendations?

Answer 223

Ready, Not ready, Not Recommended

Question 224

What must occur when a member does not receive an advancement recommendation?

Answer 224

If a member is not ready or not recommended for advancement, the approving official must counsel the member on why this mark was assigned and on the steps necessary to earn a ready for advancement

Question 225

The appeals process is designed to review marks the evaluee believes were based on which of the following?

Answer 225

Incorrect information
Prejudice
Discrimination
Disproportionately low marks for the particular circumstances

Question 226

What must be contained in an appeal letter for an EER?

Answer 226

The appeal letter must contain the specific competencies in dispute and supporting information indicating why the marks should be reviewed. Supporting information must include specific examples of demonstrated performance that indicate how the member met or exceeded the written standards. The member attaches a copy of the signed evaluation report counseling sheet as the first enclosure and other enclosures pertinent to the assigned marks.

Question 227

What responsibility does the member have in the EER appeal process?

Answer 227

Request an Audience

Written Appeal

The Appeal Letter

Submission Deadline

Appealing after the deadline

Question 228

As a result of an appeal, what actions may an approving official take?

Answer 228

As a result of the appeal, a commanding officer may raise or leave marks unchanged, but may not lower any marks

Question 229

What actions may the appeal authority take?

Answer 229

The appeal authority may raise or leave unchanged the member’s marks, but may not lower any marks an approving official assigned

Question 230

What is the deadline for active duty members to submit an appeal for their marks?

Answer 230

The member must submit the appeal within 15 calendar days (45 calendar days for reservists) after the date they signed the acknowledgment section of the counseling sheet for the disputed evaluation report

Question 231

What is the deadline for reservists to submit an appeal for their marks?

Answer 231

The member must submit the appeal within 15 calendar days (45 calendar days for reservists) after the date they signed the acknowledgment section of the counseling sheet for the disputed evaluation report

Question 232

What are forms CG-3788A-G used for?

Answer 232

These forms are optional and may be used by units with limited or no access to Direct Access to include cutters away from homeport operating for extended periods without shore side connectivity

Question 233

Which is true of hazing and bullying?

Answer 233

Hazing and bullying erodes mission readiness and will not be tolerated. Hazing and bullying are unacceptable and are prohibited in all circumstances and environments, including off-duty or in “unofficial” unit functions and settings. Hazing and bullying can be conducted through the use of electronic devices or communications, and by other means, as well as in person.

Question 234

Subjecting an individual military member to harassment or ridicule for the purposes of “inclusion” is defined as _____.

Answer 234

Hazing

Question 235

Which is true of hazing?

Answer 235

Subjecting an individual military member to harassment or ridicule for the purposes of “inclusion” is prohibited and will not be tolerated. No service member may engage in hazing or consent to being hazed. Its prevention is an all-hands responsibility.

Question 236

Which directive requires a commanding officer to “prohibit unit introductory initiations or hazing of personnel”?

Answer 236

Article 4.1.15 of reference (j), United States Coast Guard Regulations 1992, COMDTINST M5000.3 (series)

Question 237

Hazing can include which of the following?

Answer 237

(1)Playing abusive or mean-spirited tricks intended to ridicule, humiliate, or ostracize,

(2)Throwing personnel over the side from a ship or pier,

(3)Tacking on crows or other devices by forcibly applying them to a member’s clothes or body,

(4)Forcing or encouraging the consumption of substances not normally prepared or suitable for consumption,

(5)Group wrestling matches targeting a particular member,

(6)Encouraging a member to consume excessive amounts of alcohol or requiring the consumption of alcohol in any amount,

(7)Subjecting to excessive or abusive use of water,

(8)Forcibly cutting or shaving hair,

(9)Branding, tattooing, or painting another,

(10)Coercing or encouraging another member to fully or partially disrobe,

(11)Taping, tying, or otherwise restraining a member’s arms, legs, or mouth,

(12)Handcuffing or otherwise securing a member to a fixed object or another member(s),

(13)Using law enforcement restraints or techniques on another member in other than an official capacity or a bona fide training session,

(14)Placing or pouring foreign substances or liquids on another member,

(15)Touching in an offensive manner,

(16)Striking, or slapping another member,

(17)Threatening or offering violence or bodily harm to another, or

(18)Oral or written berating of another for the purpose of belittling or humiliating

Question 238

The Discipline and Conduct manual stipulates that coercing or encouraging another member to fully or partially disrobe is an example of _____________.

Answer 238

Hazing

Question 239

If a person knowingly and voluntarily submits to hazing, _____.

Answer 239

Personnel knowingly and voluntarily submitting to hazing may be held accountable as well

Question 240

An interpersonal relationship in a professional work environment would be prohibited in what case?

Answer 240

1) Jeopardize the members’ impartiality,

(2) Undermine the respect for authority inherent in a member’s rank or position,

(3) Result in members improperly using the relationship for personal gain or favor, or

(4) Violate a punitive Article of reference (a), Uniform Code of Military Justice, 10 U.S.C. § 801

– 946 (as amended), or

(5) Violate any lawful order, regulation or policy regarding inappropriate and prohibited relationships, communications, conduct or contact established by competent military authority.

Question 241

A romantic relationship involving a former recruiter and a prospective member are prohibited until what point?

Answer 241

Romantic relationships between former recruiters who have transferred to a new unit and those prospective members who were engaged in the recruiting process while the former recruiter was assigned to recruiting duties. Individuals are considered prospective members until 365 days have elapsed since their last contact with a recruiter.

Question 242

Which of the following would be a prohibited relationship?

Answer 242

(a)Engaging in sexually intimate behavior aboard any Coast Guard vessel, or in any Coast Guard-controlled work place,

(b)Romantic relationships outside of marriage between commissioned officers and enlisted personnel. For the purposes of this paragraph, Coast Guard Academy (CGA) cadets and officer candidates (both OCS and ROCI) are considered officers.

(c)Personal and romantic relationships between instructors at entry level accession programs and other training commands, and students.

(d)Personal and romantic relationships between recruiters, Academy admission officers, Academy admission partners, or personnel assigned to a Military Entrance Processing Station (MEPS), and family members of students or prospective members. A prospective member is anyone who has a face-to-face meeting with one of the above representatives regarding becoming a member of the Armed Forces, regardless of whether the person eventually becomes a member of the Armed Forces. Individuals are considered prospective members until 365 days have elapsed since their last contact with representative or upon physically reporting to his or her first duty assignment.

(e)Romantic relationships between instructors and certain former entry level accession students, as follows:

[1]Enlisted instructors at enlisted entry level accession programs may not have a romantic relationship with any individual who has graduated from, or who last attended, an entry level accession program within the preceding 365 days. Former enlisted entry level accession program instructors who transfer to a new unit have a continuing duty to abide by this prohibition in regards to those individuals who were enrolled in enlisted accession training while the former instructor was assigned to the respective accession program.

[2] Officer instructors at officer entry level accession programs may not have a romantic relationship with any individual who has graduated from, or who last attended, an entry level accession program within the preceding 365 days. Former officer entry level accession program instructors who transfer to a new unit have a continuing duty to abide by this prohibition in regards to those individuals who were enrolled in officer accession training while the former instructor was assigned to the respective accession program.

Question 243

Engaging in sexually intimate behavior in which of the following situations would be prohibited

Answer 243

Engaging in sexually intimate behavior aboard any Coast Guard vessel, or in any Coast Guard-controlled work place is prohibited

Question 244

Enlisted instructors at enlisted entry level accession programs engaging in a romantic relationship with an individual who has graduated from, or who last attended, an entry level accession program within the preceding _____.

Answer 244

365 Days

Question 245

Officer instructors at officer entry level accession programs engaging in a romantic relationship with an individual who has graduated from, or who last attended, an entry level accession program within the preceding 365 days _____.

Answer 245

Is prohibited

Question 246

Which of the following would be an example of an appropriate relationship?

Answer 246

Does not:
(1) Jeopardize the members’ impartiality,
(2) Undermine the respect for authority inherent in a member’s rank or position,
(3) Result in members improperly using the relationship for personal gain or favor, or
(4) Violate a punitive Article of reference (a), Uniform Code of Military Justice, 10 U.S.C. § 801 – 946 (as amended), or
(5) Violate any lawful order, regulation or policy regarding inappropriate and prohibited relationships, communications, conduct or contact established by competent military authority.

Question 247

Which would be an acceptable romantic relationship?

Answer 247

(a)Romantic relationships outside of marriage between commissioned officers and enlisted personnel. For the purposes of this paragraph, Coast Guard Academy (CGA) cadets and officer candidates (both OCS and ROCI) are considered officers.
(b)Romantic relationships between instructors and certain former entry level accession students, as follows:
[1]Enlisted instructors at enlisted entry level accession programs may not have a romantic relationship with any individual who has graduated from, or who last attended, an entry level accession program within the preceding 365 days. Former enlisted entry level accession program instructors who transfer to a new unit have a continuing duty to abide by this prohibition in regards to those individuals who were enrolled in enlisted accession training while the former instructor was assigned to the respective accession program.
[2] Officer instructors at officer entry level accession programs may not have a romantic relationship with any individual who has graduated from, or who last attended, an entry level accession program within the preceding 365 days. Former officer entry level accession program instructors who transfer to a new unit have a continuing duty to abide by this prohibition in regards to those individuals who were enrolled in officer accession training while the former instructor was assigned to the respective accession program.

Question 248

Which of the following is an example of unacceptable conduct?

Answer 248

Examples of unacceptable conduct, contact and communication include, but are not limited to:
(1) Supervisors and subordinates gambling together.
(2) Giving or receiving gifts, except gifts of nominal value on special occasions.
(3) Changing duty rosters or work schedules to the benefit of one or more members in a relationship when other members of the command are not afforded the same consideration.
(4) When between instructors and entry level accession program students, or between recruiters, Academy admission officers, Academy admission partners, or MEPS personnel, and prospective members:
(a) Soliciting or providing personal information to or from a student or a prospective member, including telephone number, social media profile, email address, or physical address, for other than official business.
(b) Using personal vehicles to transport students or prospective members, for other than official business.
(c) Providing alcohol to a student or a prospective member.
(d) Lending or borrowing money to/from a student or prospective member.
(e) Employing a student or a prospective member for personal services.

Question 249

Violating policy on limited personal use of government office equipment and services is punishable under which article of the UCMJ?

Answer 249

Article 92

Question 250

Which of the following is an example of prohibited use of government office equipment?

Answer 250

(1) Use of government office equipment or services to intentionally and knowingly view, download, store, display, transmit, or copy any materials that are sexually explicit, or are predominantly sexually oriented. Sexually explicit or predominantly sexually oriented includes, but is not limited to, any material that depicts, in actual or simulated form, or explicitly describes, sexual content e.g., sexual contact, nudity, child pornography, sexting, etc. “Intentionally” and “knowingly” may be inferred based on repeated downloading, storing, displaying, transmitting, or copying of the prohibited materials referenced in this section.
(2) Intentionally creating, copying or transmitting any materials or communications that may be considered hate incidents or discriminatory to fellow employees or to the public. Illegal discrimination is any intentional action or omission that results in the adverse treatment of a person because of that person’s race, color, religion, national origin, disability, handicap, age or gender, including sexual harassment or intentional actions or omissions in reprisal. Hate incident is defined as any intentional act (conduct or speech) of intolerance committed against a person, a group of individuals, or property which is motivated, in whole or in part, by the offender’s bias against a race, color, religion, sex, national origin, disability, age, or sexual orientation and which is intended to or is more likely than not to have the effect of intimidating others or inciting others to similar conduct.
(3) Loading personal or unauthorized software onto a government computer or other government office equipment.
(4) Making unauthorized configuration changes to a government computer system or other government office equipment.
(5) Using government office equipment or services as a staging ground or platform to gain unauthorized access to other systems.
(6) Deliberate introduction of viruses, worms, or other malicious software (malware) into the CG Network or any other government network.
(7) Intentionally and knowingly creating, copying, or transmitting SPAM, PHISHING, chain letters, or any unofficial mass mailings, regardless of the subject matter.
(8) Subscribing to, downloading (e.g., movies, music, books, etc.) or streaming media (e.g., radio, television, MP3, stock tickers, YouTube, etc.) or other automatic Internet service(s) from a CGSW (desktop or laptop), unless specifically authorized for CG business.
(9) Intentionally and knowingly acquiring, reproducing, transmitting, distributing, or using any controlled information including computer software and/or data protected by copyright, trademark, privacy laws or other proprietary data or material with other intellectual property rights beyond fair use, without consent or authorization of the copyright holder, or export-controlled software and/or data.
(10) Connecting personally-owned IT equipment (e.g., laptop, iPad, Tablet, Smartphone, etc.) to the CG Network at a CG office or facility without prior approval by Commandant (CG-65) or Commandant (CG-651). This includes visitors (U.S. Citizens or Foreign Nationals), contractors, vendors, other government agencies, or non-CG employees.

Question 251

Which of the following is an example of inappropriate use of government office equipment?

Answer 251

(1) Accessing personal e-mail sites (e.g., Gmail, Yahoo, AOL, Cox, Verizon, etc.), educational web-mail (*.edu), and government contracting company’s web-mail.
(2) Using a CG e-mail address (John.M.Doe@uscg.mil) for subscribing to anything other than official, professional, or job-related websites.
(3) Use of or accessing web-based application, social media or social networking sites (e.g., Facebook, E-Harmony, Twitter, Skype, Gaming, Peer-to-Peer (P2P), File Sharing, etc.) from a CGSW (desktop or laptop). This also applies to connection to the CG Network during use of Remote Access Services (e.g., CACRAS).
(4) Engaging in any fundraising activity not sanctioned by the CG, endorsing any company (service or product), or engaging in any political activity.
(5) Using government office equipment or services for commercial purposes to support a private or personal business, including assisting relatives, friends, or other persons in such activities. Examples of this prohibition include, but are not limited to, employees using a government computer and Internet connection to run a travel business, investment or consultant service.
(6) Using government office equipment or services for private, non-profit, non-commercial business or activities. Examples of this prohibition include, but are not limited to, organizing charity event participation and soliciting volunteers for non-Coast Guard sanctioned activities.
(7) Use of government office phones, cellular, or Smartphone devices that could incur unnecessary government expenses (e.g., long distance charges, roaming charges, International charges, data charges, additional minutes, etc.).
(8) Accessing personal shopping sites (e.g., Amazon, EBay, 1-800 Flowers, Craig’s List, Orbit.com, etc.) from any CGSW (desktop or laptop).

Question 252

What is the definition of substance abuse?

Answer 252

The use of a substance by a member, which causes other (performance of duty, health, behavior, family, community) problems or places the member’s safety at risk.

Question 253

Which of the following is an intention of the Substance Abuse Prevention Program?

Answer 253

Raise Awareness of Substance Abuse Issues.
Encourage, Teach, and Support Low-Risk Guidelines for Alcohol Use
Provide Periodic Prevention Training
Support Commands
Outline Zero Tolerance for Drug/Substance Misuse and Abuse
Support Mission Readiness
Align with Other Policy

Question 254

Which of the following is an example where zero drinks is the preferred option?

Answer 254

There are occasions where “zero” drinks is the low-risk option; such as, when one is driving, using machinery, cleaning a weapon, pregnant, or on certain medications

Question 255

Key behaviors for low-risk alcohol use include what model?

Answer 255

The 0,1,2,3 model

Question 256

Being able to “hold your liquor” or having a high tolerance for alcohol is _____.

Answer 256

An increased risk for developing alcohol use disorder

Question 257

How many grams of pure alcohol is in a “standard” drink?

Answer 257

14 grams

Question 258

How many fluid ounces of table wine are in a standard drink?

Answer 258

5 ounces of table wine

Question 259

How many fluid ounces of beer are in a standard drink?

Answer 259

12 ounce beer

Question 260

Which of the following is a reason women face higher risks of drinking alcohol?

Answer 260

Studies show that women start to have alcohol-related problems sooner and at lower drinking levels than men do and for multiple reasons. On average, women weigh less than men. Also, alcohol resides predominantly in body water, and pound for pound, women have less water in their bodies than men.

Question 261

Where can you find additional clarifications on low risk drinking guidelines?

Answer 261

National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism

Question 262

What is a standard drink for 80 proof hard liquor?

Answer 262

1.5 ounces

Question 263

What is considered binge drinking for men?

Answer 263

5 drinks for men - in about 2 hours

Question 264

What is considered binge drinking for women?

Answer 264

4 drinks for women—in about 2 hours

Question 265

Binge drinking is a pattern of drinking that brings BAC to what percent or higher?

Answer 265

0.08 percent or higher

Question 266

What is considered substance abuse?

Answer 266

The use of a substance by a member, which causes other (performance of duty, health, behavior, family, community) problems or places the member’s safety at risk.

Question 267

Which of the following is an intention of the Substance Abuse Prevention Program?

Answer 267

Raise Awareness of Substance Abuse Issues.
Encourage, Teach, and Support Low-Risk Guidelines for Alcohol Use
Provide Periodic Prevention Training
Support Commands
Outline Zero Tolerance for Drug/Substance Misuse and Abuse
Support Mission Readiness
Align with Other Policy

Question 268

What is a responsibility of a Command Drug and Alcohol Representative?

Answer 268

a. Contact the SAPS within 24 hours of Commanding Officer notification of a potential substance-related issue;
b. Collaborate with the SAPS to provide administrative support to the command regarding prevention strategies and treatment options;
c. Collaborate with the SAPS to prepare the appropriate Administrative Remarks, Form CG-3307;
d. Schedule and document required unit substance abuse prevention training, as needed, and in accordance with directions provided by SAPS;
e. Prepare and prominently display prevention awareness materials;
f. Collaborate with the SAPS to initiate substance abuse screenings, referrals, treatment, aftercare, and support plans. NOTE: Never diagnose or infer a diagnosis; failure to comply will result in removal from position and may lead to further administrative action;
g. Ensure that all documentation is complete before arranging treatment or training via the SAPS;
h. Keep the command informed of the status of members undergoing treatment, including expected date of completion and/or return, prognosis, and personal needs (e.g., pay, orders, etc.);
i. Collaborate with the SAPS to develop support and aftercare plans;
j. Monitor mandatory pre-treatment and aftercare plans with the Commanding Officer;
k. Provide updates to the SAPS for all members who are:
(1) Assigned an aftercare plan; and
(2) Transferred or separated from service while in aftercare.
l. Provide copies of all documentation to the receiving command when members on an aftercare plan are transferring;
m. Complete annual HIPAA training related to substance abuse patient records;
n. Provide Substance Abuse Prevention Training minimally one time per year, especially during “Alcohol Awareness Month;” and
o. Enact and annually review with the unit “Seven Steps to an Effective Command Prevention Program.”

Question 269

What is Prime for Life training used for?

Answer 269

An evidence-based alcohol and drug program for members who show signs of misusing alcohol

Question 270

What is the dollar value limit placed on gifts given to an official superior on an occasional basis?

Answer 270

There is no dollar limit placed on the aggregate value

Question 271

The Code of Conduct is an ethical guide for members of the Armed Forces that has _____________ articles.

Answer 271

6

Question 272

The Code of Conduct is an ethical guide that provides members of the Armed Forces with guidance _____________.

Answer 272

All members of the Armed Forces of the United States are expected to measure up to the standards embodied in this Code of Conduct while in combat or in captivity. To ensure achievement of these standards, members of the armed forces liable to capture shall be provided with specific training and instruction designed to better equip them to counter and withstand all enemy efforts against them, and shall be fully instructed as to the behavior and obligations expected of them during combat or captivity

Question 273

Which example would constitute unauthorized use of a prescription drug?

Answer 273

No current prescription (within six months) or verified medical use explanation for a drug(s) that would account for the positive urinalysis result. Unauthorized use results in a drug incident finding.

Question 274

Which of the following is considered prohibited substance abuse?

Answer 274

Unauthorized use of substances strictly prohibited by CG policy

Question 275

Which of the following constitutes a drug incident?

Answer 275

a. Intentional use of drugs for non-medical purposes;
b. Wrongful possession of drugs;
c. Trafficking of drugs–distributing, importing, exporting, or introducing to a military facility;
d. The intentional use of other substances, such as inhalants, glue, cleaning agents, or over-the-counter (OTC), or prescription medications to obtain a “high,” contrary to their intended use; or
e. A civil or military conviction for wrongful use, possession, or trafficking of drugs, unless rebutted by other evidence (note the member need not be found guilty at court-martial, in civilian court, or be awarded NJP for the conduct to be considered a drug incident); however,
f. If the conduct occurs without the member’s knowledge, awareness, or reasonable suspicion or is medically authorized, it does not constitute a drug incident. See Chapter 5 of this Manual.

Question 276

Which of the following would be a prohibited political activity for a member of the Armed Forces?

Answer 276

4.1.2. A member of the Armed Forces on active duty shall not:

4.1.2.1. Participate in partisan political fundraising activities (except as permitted in subparagraph 4.1.1.7.), rallies, conventions (including making speeches in the course thereof), management of campaigns, or debates, either on one’s own behalf or on that of another, without respect to uniform or inference or appearance of official sponsorship, approval, or endorsement. Participation includes more than mere attendance as a spectator. (See subparagraph 4.1.1.9.)

4.1.2.2. Use official authority or influence to interfere with an election, affect the course or outcome of an election, solicit votes for a particular candidate or issue, or require or solicit political contributions from others.

4.1.2.3. Allow or cause to be published partisan political articles, letters, or endorsements signed or written by the member that solicits votes for or against a partisan political party, candidate, or cause. This is distinguished from a letter to the editor as permitted under the conditions noted in subparagraph 4.1.1.6.

4.1.2.4. Serve in any official capacity with or be listed as a sponsor of a partisan political club.

4.1.2.5. Speak before a partisan political gathering, including any gathering that promotes a partisan political party, candidate, or cause.

4.1.2.6. Participate in any radio, television, or other program or group discussion as an advocate for or against a partisan political party, candidate, or cause.

4.1.2.7. Conduct a political opinion survey under the auspices of a partisan political club or group or distribute partisan political literature.

4.1.2.8. Perform clerical or other duties for a partisan political committee or candidate during a campaign, on an election day, or after an election day during the process of closing out a campaign.

4.1.2.9. Solicit or otherwise engage in fundraising activities in Federal offices or facilities, including military reservations, for any political cause or candidate.

4.1.2.10. March or ride in a partisan political parade.

4.1.2.11. Display a large political sign, banner, or poster (as distinguished from a bumper sticker) on a private vehicle.

4.1.2.12. Display a partisan political sign, poster, banner, or similar device visible to the public at one’s residence on a military installation, even if that residence is part of a privatized housing development.

4.1.2.13. Participate in any organized effort to provide voters with transportation to the polls if the effort is organized by or associated with a partisan political party, cause, or candidate.

4.1.2.14. Sell tickets for or otherwise actively promote partisan political dinners and similar fundraising events.

4.1.2.15. Attend partisan political events as an official representative of the Armed Forces, except as a member of a joint Armed Forces color guard at the opening ceremonies of the national conventions of the Republican, Democratic, or other political parties recognized by the Federal Elections Committee or as otherwise authorized by the Secretary concerned.

4.1.2.16. Make a campaign contribution to, or receive or solicit (on one’s own behalf) a campaign contribution from, any other member of the Armed Forces on active duty. Any contributions not prohibited by this subparagraph remain subject to the gift provisions of sections 2635.301-2635.304 of title 5, Code of Federal Regulations (Reference (f)). See subparagraph 4.1.2.1. for general prohibitions on partisan fundraising activity.

Question 277

Which of the following would be an authorized political activity for a member of the Armed Forces?

Answer 277

4.1.1. A member of the Armed Forces on active duty may:
4.1.1.1. Register, vote, and express a personal opinion on political candidates and issues, but not as a representative of the Armed Forces.
4.1.1.2. Promote and encourage others to exercise their voting franchise, if such promotion does not constitute use of their official authority or influence to interfere with the outcome of any election.
4.1.1.3. Join a partisan or nonpartisan political club and attend its meetings when not in uniform, subject to the restrictions of subparagraph 4.1.2.4. (See DoD Instruction 1334.1 (Reference (c).)
4.1.1.4. Serve as an election official, if such service is not as a representative of a partisan political party, does not interfere with the performance of military duties, is performed when not in uniform, and the Secretary concerned has given prior approval. The Secretary concerned may NOT delegate the authority to grant or deny such permission.
4.1.1.5. Sign a petition for a specific legislative action or a petition to place a candidate’s name on an official election ballot, if the signing does not obligate the member to engage in partisan political activity and is done as a private citizen and not as a representative of the Armed Forces.
4.1.1.6. Write a letter to the editor of a newspaper expressing the member’s personal views on public issues or political candidates, if such action is not part of an organized letter-writing campaign or a solicitation of votes for or against a political party or partisan political cause or candidate. If the letter identifies the member as on active duty (or if the member is otherwise reasonably identifiable as a member of the Armed Forces), the letter should clearly state that the views expressed are those of the individual only and not those of the Department of Defense (or Department of Homeland Security for members of the Coast Guard).
4.1.1.7. Make monetary contributions to a political organization, party, or committee favoring a particular candidate or slate of candidates, subject to the limitations under section 441a of title 2, United States Code (U.S.C.) (Reference (d)); section 607 of title 18, U.S.C. (Reference (e)); and other applicable law.
4.1.1.8. Display a political bumper sticker on the member’s private vehicle.
4.1.1.9. Attend partisan and nonpartisan political fundraising activities, meetings, rallies, debates, conventions, or activities as a spectator when not in uniform and when no inference or appearance of official sponsorship, approval, or endorsement can reasonably be drawn.
4.1.1.10. Participate fully in the Federal Voting Assistance Program.

Question 278

Which of the following is one of the four firearm safety rules?

Answer 278

1. Treat all firearms as if they are loaded.
2. Always maintain proper muzzle control.
3. Keep finger off the trigger until on target and ready to shoot.
4. Know your target and what is beyond it.

Question 279

Class “A” Course graduates who had their advancement to E-4 withheld upon graduation due to receiving an “UNSAT” conduct while attending a Class “A” Course, are required to complete how many months of good conduct prior to being advanced? 

Answer 279

Six months of good conduct prior to being advanced to E-4 or E-5

Question 280

Which of the following ratings have no direct path of advancement from E-3 to E-4?

Answer 280

Investigator (IV) Rating

Diver (DV) Rating