SV Autoflight

Question 1

During an autolanding, thrust is automatically reduced to idle: [8.40.10]

Answer 1

A. Between 50 and 25 feet RA.

Question 2

For automatic landings with crosswinds requiring a crab angle of between 5 and 10
degrees, runway alignment occurs: [8.40.10]

Answer 2

D. Initially at 500 feet AGL with a second alignment at 200 feet AGL.

Question 3

Pulling the autopilot disengage bar on the MCP down: [8.40.20]

Answer 3

A. Disables bank angle envelope protection.
B. Generates EICAS message “AUTOPILOT DISC”.
C. Illuminates the Master Warning light and sounds the aural warning.
D. All the above.

Question 4

When the autothrottles are manually or automatically disconnected: [8.40.10]

Answer 4

B. A Caution Beeper aural sounds.
C. The EICAS caution message AUTOTHROTTLE DISC is displayed
D. Both B and C are correct

Question 5

The Approach (APP) switch: [8.40.20]

Answer 5

A. When pushed, displays LOC or FAC and G/S or G/P in white (armed) prior to
capture.

Question 6

Using altitude intervention during climb or descent: [8.40.20]

Answer 6

A. Deletes the next waypoint altitude constraint with each push of the button
if that constraint lies between the airplane altitude and the MCP altitude.

Question 7

The Bank Limit Selector has no effect when the roll mode is LNAV. [8.40.20]

Answer 7

A. True

Question 8

LNAV engages: [8.40.20]

Answer 8

A. If armed, engages on takeoff if the airplane is above 50 feet and is within 2.5
miles of an active leg.
B. On a missed approach, engages automatically at 50 feet with flight director
only, or 200 feet with the autopilot engaged.
C. Displays LNAV (in green) on the PFD and HUD roll FMA when engaged.
D. All the above.

Question 9

T or F
Without LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciated, the autopilot may be disengaged using
force applied to the control wheel or the rudder pedals: [8.40.10]

Answer 9

B. False.

Question 10

T or F
A display of LAND 3 on the AFDS status annunciation indicates that the autopilot
system level of redundancy is such that a single fault cannot prevent the autopilot
system from making an automatic landing. [8.40.10]

Answer 10

A. True.

Question 11

The autothrottles disconnect automatically: [8.40.10]

Answer 11

A. If a fault in the engaged autothrottle mode is detected.
C. If the thrust levers are overridden during a manual landing, after the
autothrottle has begun to retard the thrust levers to idle.
D. A and C are correct.

Question 12

In all cases, a green indication on the FMA indicates: [8.40.10]

Answer 12

C. The displayed mode is engaged.

Question 13

With LOC and G/S armed, which of the following conditions must exist? [8.40.20]

Answer 13

A. Airplane intercept track angle must be within 80 degrees of localizer course for
G/S capture to occur.
B. The approach mode can be disarmed by selecting APP switch.
C. Airplane intercept track angle must be within 120 degrees of localizer course.
D. All the above.

Question 14

During takeoff, pushing the TO/GA switches: [8.40.20]

Answer 14

A. Below 50 knots IAS, engages the A/T system in the THR REF mode.
C. Above 80 knots IAS, disarms LNAV and/or VNAV if armed.
D. A and C are correct.

Question 15

An amber “AUTOPILOT” EICAS message accompanied by the Caution beeper
indicates? [8.40.30]

Answer 15

A. The autopilot is in a degraded mode.
B. The autopilot is in flight envelope protection mode.
D. A and B are correct.

Question 16

T or F
If the autothrottle system is not engaged by 50 knots on takeoff, it cannot be
engaged until above 400 feet. [8.40.20]

Answer 16

A. True

Question 17

When an autopilot switch is selected ON, how many autopilots actually control the
airplane? [8.40.20]

Answer 17

A. All operating autopilots.

Question 18

After LOC and G/S capture, and below 1500 feet, the LOC and G/S modes can only
be disengaged by: [8.40.20]

Answer 18

A. Disconnecting the autopilot and turning both Flight Directors off.
C. Engaging TO/GA.
D. A and C are correct.

Question 19

Pushing the MCP FLCH switch displays the FMA ___ as the pitch mode. [8.40.10]

Answer 19

D. ALT

Question 20

GLS approaches are flown in the ____ and _____ modes. [8.40.10]

Answer 20

C. LOC, G/S

Question 21

In flight, TO/GA is armed whenever the flaps are out of up, or at glideslope capture
and when armed displays TOGA in small white font. [8.40.10]

Answer 21

B. False.

Question 22

Pushing either TO/GA switch twice during a go-around causes the autothrottles to:
[8.40.20]

Answer 22

B. Engage in thrust (THR) mode for a 2000 fpm climb.

Question 23

Which statement(s) is true regarding windshear recovery guidance? [8.40.10]

Answer 23

A. Go-around is engaged by selecting a TOGA switch.
B. The AFDS windshear recovery guidance is provided by means of the normal
go-around pitch and roll modes.
C. The AFDS commands a pitch-up of 15 deg or slightly below the pitch limit,
whichever is lower.
D. All of the above.

Question 24

T or F
The minimum altitude for autopilot engagement after takeoff is 200 feet AGL.
[1.30]

Answer 24

A. True.

Question 25

T or F
Approaches flown with IAN procedures always use FMC-computed glidepath
for vertical path guidance. [8.40.10]

Answer 25

A. True.

Question 26

What envelope protection(s) does the autopilot provide while operating in the
normal flight control mode? [8.40.10]

Answer 26

A. Stall.
B. Overspeed.
C. Bank Angle.
D. All of the above.

Question 27

Flight director guidance during T/O provides: [8.40.10]

Answer 27

A. V2 + 15 knots or airspeed at rotation plus 15 knots, whichever is
greater.
C. A new target speed up to V2 + 25 knots max if target speed is exceeded
for 5 seconds.
D. A and C are correct.

Question 28

For GLS approaches, the approach path deviation data is from the ______. [8.40.10]

Answer 28

C. Ground Based Augmentation System (GBAS)

Question 29

T or F
With the autothrottle FMA indication of THR, the thrust is set to a level that will
achieve the desired vertical speed required by the pitch mode. [8.40.10]

Answer 29

A. True.

Question 30

During the takeoff roll prior to lift off, if the autothrottles are not engaged by ,
they cannot be engaged until above 400 feet AGL. [8.40.10]

Answer 30

C. 50 KIAS

Question 31

T or F
Illumination of the light in the switch on the MCP indicates that the mode is armed or
engaged. [8.40.10]

Answer 31

A. True.

Question 32

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Climb / Continuous
(CLB / CON) Thrust Switch on the MCP? [8.40.20]

Answer 32

A. Selecting CLB / CON with two engines operating selects FMC climb thrust.
B. Selecting CLB / CON with one engine operating selects max continuous
thrust.
C. Switch is inoperative on the ground and below 400 feet during takeoff.
D. All the above

Question 33

An EICAS “NO LAND 3” message indicates the autoland system: [8.40.30]

Answer 33

B. Does not have redundancy for triple-channel autoland.

Question 34

If flying an approach using the IAN feature: [8.40.10]

Answer 34

D. The autopilot must be disengaged as IAN does not support automatic
landings.

Question 35

T or F
Autoland capability is approved for ILS, GLS, and IAN approaches. [8.40.10]

Answer 35

B. False.

Question 36

For takeoffs using HUD guidance, lateral guidance is available using: [8.40.10]

Answer 36

A. Either an ILS signal or GLS signal.

Question 37

T or F
If the autopilot remains engaged below 200 feet RA on a non-ILS approach,
NO AUTOLAND is displayed. [8.40.10]

Answer 37

B. False.

Question 38

Use of the IAN feature, requires pilots to select the approach from the FMC database
and use the mode to enable the approach. [8.40.10]

Answer 38

B. APP

Question 39

T or F
During a HUD Low Visibility takeoff, the roll bar on the PFD can be used for lateral
guidance. [8.40.10]

Answer 39

B. False.

Question 40

During landing, the TOGA switches are inhibited after touchdown. If the landing is discontinued, the TOGA switches are enabled again above ___ RA. [8.40.10]

Answer 40

D. 5