Lab 15 Yogurt Microbial Analysis Part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Enumeration can occur via traditional spread plating on selective media or …

A

quantitative PCR (qPCR)

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2
Q

What is qPCR?

A
  • A widely used technique for detection and quantification of DNA or RNA sequences in a sample based on the polymerase chain reaction principle, but includes additional steps that allow measurement of the amount of target nucleic acid present in the sample.
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3
Q

What is the basic principle of qPCR?

A
  • To amplify a specific region of DNA or RNA using primers, a DNA polymerase enzyme, and nucleotides.
  • The amount of amplified product is then measured in real-time using a fluorescent signal generated by binding of a fluorescent dye to a double-stranded DNA.
  • During the amplification process, the fluorescent signal increases in proportion to the amount of DNA product generated.
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4
Q

What carries out the detection of the signal in qPCR?

A
  • A qPCR machine which monitors the fluorescence (RFU = relative fluorescence units) at each cycle of the amplification process.
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5
Q

What is the cycle threshold?

A
  • Cycle threshold (Ct) is defined as the cycle number at which the fluorescence signal reaches a predetermined threshold level.
  • The lower the Ct value, the more DNA originally present in a sample.
  • The amount of DNA or RNA in the initial sample can be determined by comparing the Ct value obtained from the sample with a standard curve generated from known quantities of a control DNA sample.
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6
Q

qPCR enumeration offers several advantages over traditional plating methods. Describe these advantages.

A
  • Results can be obtained within a matter of hours instead of over several days required for plating methods.
  • qPCR primers are highly specific to target species, while selective media used in plating methods are only moderately selective.
  • Harsh additives in selective media can suppress microbial growth leading to an underestimation of the number of microbes present, whereas qPCR provides more accurate and precise results.
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7
Q

After optimization, what is the main limitation of qPCR?

A
  • Inability to differentiate between viable and non-viable microbes.
  • Additional measures, such as culture-based techniques or viability staining, should be employed to confirm the presence of viable organisms.
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8
Q

How do commercially available DNA extraction kits work?
Why are these kits common?

A
  • By lysing bacterial cells present in a food sample and then purifying the DNA by removing all other inorganic and organic material.
  • Convenient and cost-effective compard to preparing the solutions manually.
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9
Q

What does a PCR master mix include? [5]

A
  • Forward and reverse primers specifically designed to attach to a genomic region in the target organism.
  • Nucleotides required for elongation of the primers.
  • DNA polymerase to attach the nucleotides
  • Magnesium chloride, which is a cofactor for DNA polymerase.
  • Fluorescent dye that binds to double-stranded DNA and enables its quantification
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10
Q

What are the steps in DNA extraction?

A
  • Collect cells
  • Lyse cells to release DNA
  • Remove inhibitors
  • Bind DNA to membrane
  • Wash DNA
  • Elute and collect purified DNA
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11
Q

How is DNA quality & concentration evaluated?

A
  • Good practice to check DNA quality and concentration by evaluating absorbance of the sample at 260 and 280 nm.
  • DNA absorbs wavelengths of 260 nm
  • Protein, phenol, and other contaminates absorb wavelengths close to 280 nm
  • Ideally ~1.8 ratio of 260:280
  • nanodrop commonly used.
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12
Q

Describe amplification by PCR.

A
  • Nucleic acid based assay
  • Amplifies a sequence of DNA or RNA (usually 100 to 1000 bp in length)
  • Sequence of interest is amplified by a factor of 2^N, where N is the number of PCR cycles
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13
Q

What is the first step of PCR?

A
  • Double stranded DNA is heated to form single stranded DNA
  • 95 C
  • Called ‘denaturing’ the DNA
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14
Q

What is the second step of PCR?

A
  • Single stranded DNA is cooled to between 50 and 65 C.
  • Primers hybridize (bind/anneal) to ssDNA
  • Temperature depends on how much C+G is in the primers.
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15
Q

Why does temperature in the second step of PCR depend on how much C+G is in the primers?

A
  • C-G form 3 hydogen bonds
  • A-T form 2 hydrogen bonds
  • More C+G = higher annealing temperature
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16
Q

What is the third step of PCR?

A
  • Polymerase binds to DNA-primer complex and begins adding bases
  • Performs best at 72 C
  • Can survive the 95 C denaturation temperature
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17
Q

Describe a qPCR experiment for Bifidobacterium, Streptococcus, and Lactobacillus.

A

Note the different temperatures required.

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18
Q

What is the output from a qPCR machne?

A
  • Plot of relative fluorescence units (RFU) verus number of PCR cycles
  • Master mix has a dye (SYBR Green) that binds to dsDNA; more dsDNA = more fluorescence
  • Ct value = the cycle at which the fluorescence signal extends above the threshold level (background noise)
  • If you also run serial dilutions of a known concentration of microbial DNA, you can quantify the amount of a microbe in a product.
  • Need a standard curve for each microbe of interest (Ct versus log (concentration))
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19
Q

What is required to quantify the amount of microorganism in a product?

A
  • If you run serial dilutions of a known concentration of microbe
  • Need standard curve for each microbe of interest (Ct versus log(concentration))
  • 10-fold dilutions should have Ct values 3.3 cycles apart.
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20
Q

Why are melting curves relevant in PCR analysis?

A
  • After PCR cycles are done, the machine conducts a melting analysis where amplified dsDNA is melted apart
  • Tm is the temperature at which 50% of the amplified dsDNA has been melted.
  • Thus, if primers accidentally amplified something other than the target sequence, more than one melting curve will be visible!
  • Use the Tm to confirm the positive controls to confirm you amplified the correct DNA sequence.
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21
Q

What is Tm?

A
  • The temperature at which 50% of the amplified dsDNA has been melted.
  • It depends on the length and G+C content of a DNA sequence.
  • Use to confirm that the correct DNA sequence was amplified.
  • If primers amplified something other than the target sequence, more than one melting curve will be visible!
22
Q

What does Tm depend on? [2]

A
  • Length of target DNA sequence
  • G+C content in DNA sequence
23
Q

The lower the Ct value, the more DNA originally present in a sample.
True or False?

A

True.

24
Q

The lower the Ct value, the less DNA originally present in a sample.
True or False?

A

False.
The lower the Ct value, the more DNA originally present in a sample.

25
Q

The higher the Ct value, the more DNA originally present in a sample.
True or False?

A

False.
The lower the Ct value, the more DNA originally present in a sample.

26
Q

The higher the Ct value, the less DNA originally present in a sample.
True or False?

A

True.

27
Q

Which of the following Ct values corresponds to the highest amount of DNA present in a sample for a particular microorganism?
40
12
25

A

12

28
Q

How is amplified DNA detected in this particular qPCR assay?

A

Fluorescent dye that binds to double stranded DNA

29
Q

What does the t in Ct stand for?

A

Threshold

30
Q

What is the expected gram-stain result for S. thermophilus?

A

Purple (gram positive), cocci

31
Q

What is the expected gram-stain result for L. bulgaricus?

A

Purple, rods

32
Q

What is the expected gram-stain result for B. animalis?

A

Purple, rods

33
Q

What temperature is associated with the the denaturing step in PCR?

A

95C

34
Q

What temperature is associated with primer annealing in PCR?

A

45-60C

35
Q

What temperature is associated with elongation of the primers in PCR?

A

72C

36
Q

What is the purpose of qPCR melting curves?

A

To deterine if any unintended sequences were additionally amplified.

37
Q

What are the steps in DNA extraction [7].

A
  1. Isolate cells
  2. Re-suspend cells
  3. Lyse cells
  4. Remove impurities
  5. Bind DNA to spin column filter
  6. Remove remaining impurities and wash solution
  7. Elute DNA from spin column filter
38
Q

How are suspected colonies from selective agar plates prepared for qPCR analysis?

A
  • Add colony to 100 uL of PBS in 500 uL centrifuge tube and vortex
  • PBS = phosphate buffered saline
39
Q

What does solution MBL do?

A

Strong lysing agent that breaks cell walls

40
Q

What does IRS solution do?

A

Inhibitor removal solution, removes organic and inorganic material including proteins

41
Q

Strong lysing agent that breaks cell walls

A

MBL solution

42
Q

Inhibitor removal solution, removes organic and inorganic material including proteins

A

IRS solution

43
Q

What does MR solution do?

A

Highly concentrated salt solution that is used to bind DNA to the column spin filter

44
Q

Highly concentrated salt solution that is used to bind DNA to the column spin filter

A

MR solution

45
Q

What does PW solution do?

A

Alcohol-based DNA washing solution

46
Q

Alcohol-based DNA washing solution

A

PW solution

47
Q

What is ethanol used for in microbial DNA isolation?

A

Remove PW solution for higher DNA purity

48
Q

How is PW solution removed for higher DNA purity?

A

With ethanol

49
Q

What is EB solution?

A

DNA elution buffer

50
Q

DNA elution buffer

A

Solution EB

51
Q

List 3 important notes about the Microbial DNA isolation kit.

A
  • Solution MBL (lysing agent) must be warmed at 55°C for 5–10 min to dissolve precipitates prior to use and should be used while still warm
  • If Solution MR (salt solution) precipitates, warm at 55°C for 5–10 min (It can be used while still warm)
  • Shake to mix Solution PW (DNA washing solution) before use
52
Q

Why are there beads in the spin column filters?

A

The beads in the tube, along with the lysing agent, help to break open bacterial cells and release their DNA.