Handbook Section 2a Flashcards

1
Q

Heavy menstrual bleeding, common diagnosis

A

Dysfunctional uterine bleeding—ovulatory
Fibroids
Complications of hormone therapy
Adenomyosis

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2
Q

Heavy menstrual bleeding, must rule out conditions

A

pregnancy disorders
cancer
endometrial hyperplasia
infection

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3
Q

Most possible histologic examination of curettings in a 48 year old woman with heavy irregular periods for 4 months

A

Cystic glandular hyperplasia - seen in women with anovulatory cycles (inc estrogen, no progesterone)

CGH is more common than atypical hyperplasia or polyp. Normal secretory endothelium is usually only found in regular menses.

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4
Q

Diagnosis for focal parotid lump with facial nerve involvement?

A

Malignant primary parotid tumor - focal parotid lump + involvement of other structures

Ruled out:
Benign parotid tumors - will displace structures but no penetration of other structures like the facial nerve (eg pleomorphic adenoma, adenolymphoma)

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5
Q

Adrenal crisis, symptoms

A
  • altered consciousness
  • circulatory collapse
  • hypoglycaemia
  • hyponatraemia
  • hyperkalaemia
  • seizures
  • history of steroid use/withdrawal, or
  • any clinical features of Addison disease
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6
Q

Adrenal crisis, management

A

Acute management is based on emergency resuscitation: restoring and maintaining circulation,
IV hydrocortisone
detection and treatment of hypoglycaemia
identification and treatment of precipitating causes
specialist referral
Usually admitted to ICU

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7
Q

Addison Disease, symptoms

A

Lethargy/excessive fatigue/weakness
Anorexia and nausea
Diarrhoea/abdominal pain
Weight loss
Dizziness/funny turns, syncope: postural hypotension (common)
Hyperpigmentation
palate, skin creases of hands

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8
Q

Cushing syndrome, symptom

A

a rounded face
weight around torso, shoulders and neck, but thin arms and legs
hump between the shoulders
high blood sugar or diabetes
high blood pressure
feeling tired or emotional
skin problems (low healing of wounds, bruising and stretch marks)
brittle bones (osteoporosis)

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9
Q

Graves disease, symptoms

A

classical Graves disease:
exophthalmos, hyperkinesis and a large goitre but if the eye and neck signs are absent it can be misdiagnosed as an anxiety state.
Elderly patients may present with only cardiovascular signs, such as atrial fibrillation and tachycardia, or with unexplained weight loss.

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10
Q

Commonest cause of bilateral nonthyrotoxic goitre in Australia

A

Hashimoto thyroiditis, or lymphocytic thyroiditis, which is an
autoimmune thyroiditis

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11
Q

Hashimoto thyroiditis (autoimmune thyroiditis), symptom

A

bilateral goitre, classically described as firm and rubbery
patients may be hypothyroid or euthyroid with a possible early period of thyrotoxicosis

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12
Q

Hashimoto thyroiditis (autoimmune thyroiditis), investigation

A

T4—subnormal
TSH—elevated (>10 is clear gland failure)
Serum cholesterol level elevated
Anaemia: usually normocytic; may be macrocytic
ECG: sinus bradycardia, low voltage, flat T waves

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13
Q

Asthma treatment choices in young children

A

1st: MDI + spacer (cheaper)
2nd: nebulizer (easier)
3rd: MDI or breath actuated inhaler (needs cooperation)
4th: Oral solution or suspension (ICS, SABA, Steroid) (might be unavailable, more side effects)

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14
Q

Asthma treatment, usual 1st line for adults and adolescent

A

low dose ICS + SABA reliever
or
budesonide-formoterol as needed
or
SABA as needed (rare)

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15
Q

Asthma treatment, usual 1st line for children

A

SABA as needed

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16
Q

Routine physical examination at 6 weeks, parts

A

Top to toes or vice-versa physical exam
ask for any concerns (eg feeding, illnesses, abnormalities)

The hip examination: Exclude hip dysplasia
Enquiring about the risk factors for developmental hip dysplasia,
Ortolani test - positive if hip jerk or clunk
Barlow test - positive if hip popped out

The abdomen: Exclude organomegaly (esp spleen and liver)

The neurological examination at 6 Weeks
social responsiveness, equal movement of limbs ,
baby in ventral suspension – spine inspection, head tone

The eyes: red reflex

Check for cleft palate

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17
Q

Hip dysplacia, definition

A

baby’s hip joint does not develop properly. The acetabulum is too shallow. This causes the hip to become dislocated or unstable

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18
Q

Hip dysplacia, symptoms

A

a hip joint that clicks when rotated (ortolani test)
different length legs
late sitting or walking
legs are difficult to spread apart
not putting weight on one leg
uneven skin near the buttocks
uneven walking or limping
weight on one side when sitting

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19
Q

Postpartum haemorrhage, definition

A
  • After vaginal birth: 500 mL or more
  • After caesarean section (CS): 1000 mL or more
  • Manifests as increasing tachycardia and hypotension (usually after 1000ml blood loss)
  • 10% decline in postpartum haematocrit levels
  • Blood transfusion required after a massive blood loss greater than 1000 mL or a postpartum haemoglobin (Hb) of less than 80 g/L
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20
Q

Postpartum haemorrhage, causes

A

Tone (70%)
Trauma (20%)
* Lacerations of the cervix, vagina and perineum
* Extension lacerations at CS
* Uterine rupture or inversion
* Non-genital tract trauma (e.g. subcapsular liver rupture)
Tissue (10%)
Thrombin (< 1%)

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21
Q

Postpartum haemorrhage, prevention

A
  • Recommend routine blood group and antibody testing
  • Identify high antenatal risk (mark chart, refer)
  • screen and treat anaemia
  • screen and treat for blood disorders
  • determine placenta position before birth and refer as needed
  • Ensure routine blood results are less than three days old on admission
    (IOL and CS)
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22
Q

Postpartum haemorrhage, intrapartum risk prevention (high risk patients)

A
  • Prepare crossmatched blood
  • Prophylactic oxytocin
    (prefer oxytocin over syntometrine for NSD, prefer carbetocin over syntometrine for CS)
  • carbetocin 100 micrograms IV over one minute after birth of the baby
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23
Q

Colorectal cancer, incidence

A

Colorectal cancer (CRC) is the second most common cancer, after breast cancer, in Australia. After lung cancer, it is the second most common cause of cancer death

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24
Q

Colorectal cancer, category 1 screening advice

A

Category 1 - 1 FDR or SDR, more than 55 yrs of age at diagnosis

Immunochemical faecal occult blood test (iFOBT)
- every two years from age 45 years

For patients aged 50–70 years, low-dose aspirin (100 mg) daily should be considered

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25
Q

Colorectal cancer, category 2 screening advice

A

Category 2 - 1 FDR diagnosed at less than 55 yrs, 2 FDR diagnosed at any age, 1 FDR + 2 SDR diagnosed at any age

iFOBT - every two years from age 40 to 50 years
Colonoscopy - every five years from age 50 to 74 years
CT colonography can be offered if colonoscopy is contraindicated

Low-dose (100 mg) aspirin daily should be considered

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26
Q

Colorectal cancer, category 3 screening advice

A

Category 3 - 3 FDR or SDR diagnosed at any age

iFOBT - every two years from age 35 to 45 years
Colonoscopy - every 5 years from age 45 to 74 years
CT colonography can be offered if colonoscopy is contraindicated

Low-dose (100 mg) aspirin daily should be considered
Possible referral to a genetic centre for hereditary cancer

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27
Q

Colorectal Cancer, risk categories

A

Category 1 - 1 FDR or SDR, more than 55 yrs of age at diagnosis
Category 2 - 1 FDR diagnosed at less than 55 yrs, 2 FDR diagnosed at any age, 1 FDR + 2 SDR diagnosed at any age
Category 3 - 3 FDR or SDR diagnosed at any age

FDR - first degree relative, SDR - second degree relative

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28
Q

Urothelial tumors, definition

A

Upper tract urothelial cancer (sometimes called transitional cell carcinoma) is a cancer that occurs in either the inner lining of the tube that connects the kidney to the bladder (the ureter) or within the inner lining of the kidney.

The lining of the bladder, kidney and ureter are the same, so there are some similarities between upper tract urothelial cancer and bladder cancer.

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29
Q

Urothelial tumors, symptoms

A

blood in the urine (haematuria)
pain on one side of the back
weight loss
urinary tract infections.

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30
Q

Urothelial tumors, risk factors

A
  • smoking tobacco
  • long-term inflammation of the ureter or kidney
  • exposure to certain chemicals over time, such as those used to make plastics, textiles, rubber, paint and dyes
  • exposure to arsenic
  • prior chemotherapy or radiation therapy
  • long-term use of large quantities of painkillers
  • family history of bladder cancer
  • having Lynch syndrome (an inherited syndrome) or Balkan nephropathy (due to Balkan region diet).
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31
Q

Globus pharyngeus, definition

A

A relatively common problem in which there is a sense of obstruction or difficulty in swallowing, but food and liquids move normally to the stomach. The globus sensation is most commonly caused by acid refluxing from the stomach causing swelling on the lining of the throat (inflammation)

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32
Q

Shoulder dystocia, management

A

call for help
mcrobert’s manoeuvre (knees to nipples position)
suprapubic pressure
episiotomy
manoevre by obstetrician
prepare for possible rescucitation

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33
Q

Erb’s palsy, definition

A

Infant’s arm hangs limply from the shoulder with flexion of the wrist and fingers due to weakness of muscles innervated by cervical roots C5 and C6. Risk factors are macrosomia (large baby) and shoulder dystocia.

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34
Q

Klumpke paralysis vs Erb paralysis, difference

A

Erb’s palsy results from neuronal damage to the upper C5 and C6 nerves. The clinical presentation includes partial or full paralysis of the arm and often accompanied by loss of sensation. Klumpke’s palsy causes paralysis of the forearm and hand muscles as a result of mechanical damage to the lower C8 and T1 nerves.

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35
Q

Types of hearing loss, and common causes

A

Conductive Hearing Loss
- problems with the outer and/or middle ear
- most common causes are fluid in the middle ear (ear infection), a perforated eardrum, wax (cerumen) build up or damage to the tiny bones in the middle ear (ossicles)

Sensorineural Hearing Loss
- most common cause of hearing loss and is due to damage to the inner ear (hair cells of the cochlea or damage to the auditory nerve)
- most common causes are age and noise exposure

Mixed hearing loss
- has both a conductive and sensorineural hearing loss

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36
Q

Common symptoms of salivary gland stones include:

A
  • Pain and swelling of the gland, especially at mealtimes followed by swelling of the gland
  • Dry mouth
  • Difficulty swallowing or opening mouth
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37
Q

Salivary gland stone,investigation and treatment

A
  • preferably xray, but may also do sialography
  • advise drinking plenty of water or sucking on sugar-free lemon drops as methods for increasing flow of saliva
  • application of heat along with gentle massage to the area can help remove stones
  • If less invasive treatment do not work then surgical treatment is advised
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38
Q

Prostate cancer signs and symptoms

A

Early prostate cancer usually does not cause symptoms.

Advanced prostate cancer symptoms can include:
frequent urination
pain while urinating
blood in the urine or semen
a weak stream
pain in the back or pelvis
weak legs or feet.

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39
Q

Causes and risk factors of prostate cancer

A
  • age, increasing rapidly after 50 years of age
  • family history of prostate, breast or ovarian cancer, father or brother diagnosed with prostate cancer before the age of 60
  • association with high testosterone levels.
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40
Q

Prostate cancer, initial investigation

A

PSA
DRE
MRI
Biopsy

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41
Q

Cannabis withdrawal common symptoms

A

Cannabis intake produces euphoria and relaxation, perceptual alteration, time distortion and the intensification of normal sensory experiences such as eating.

withdrawal lasts 1-2 weeks:
- craving
- anxiety, restlessness, irritability
- anorexia (and weight loss)
- disturbed sleep and vivid dreams
- gastrointestinal tract symptoms
- night sweats
- tremor

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42
Q

Ecstasy withdrawal symptoms

A

ecstasy increases the activity of neurotransmitters—specifically those that influence feelings of happiness and love—in the brain. This increase in activity also quickly depletes the brain’s supply of the chemicals needed to feel this way.

During withdrawal, users typically experience the opposite of what they felt while high, like depression and anxiety. They’ll also intensely crave the drug.

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43
Q

Cocaine withdrawal symptoms

A

Cocaine is a stimulant that speeds up the workings of the brain.

Intense cravings, depression, anxiety and angry outbursts. Physical withdrawal symptoms include nausea, tremors, sleeping problems and muscle pain

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44
Q

Heroin withdrawal symptoms

A

Heroin is a depressant drug in the opioid class – it slows down certain functions of a person’s brain and nervous system.

withdrawal symptoms:
cravings
diarrhoea and vomiting
stomach cramps
sweating
bone, joint and muscle pain and twitching
mood swings and crying

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45
Q

Scrotal swelling or pain could be caused by many things, including:

A

Injury
Infection (Epididymitis is one of the most common)
Cyst (Usually harmless)
Testicular cancer
Testicular torsion (medical emergency)
Problems with the nerves, arteries or veins (eg varicocele)

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46
Q

Common causes of breast mass

A

Fibroadenoma - smooth, firm breast lump made up of fibrous
and glandular tissue. The term “breast mouse” is also used to refer
to a fibroadenoma. Rarely change into breast cancer.

Cyst - fluid-filled sac, common in women aged 35-50 and in
women who are taking hormone replacement therapy.
Simple cysts are not cancer. In rare cases, cysts may have a cancer growing within them or close to them.

Breast cancer - Most often a disease of ageing – more than
74% of cases occur in women 50 years and older

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47
Q

Schizophrenia definition and presentation

A

Schizophrenia is a mental illness that causes someone to have an altered experience of reality. Someone with schizophrenia will have symptoms for more than 6 months. They may have unusual ideas or beliefs about themselves or the world around them.

3 most common symptoms
hallucinations: false sensory experience
delusions: false beliefs
confused thinking: thoughts are jumbled and the person can’t make sense of what other people are saying

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48
Q

Refractory errors and required lense

A

Hyperopia (far sighted): convex lense
Myopia (near sighted): concave lense

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49
Q

Renal artery stenosis, definition and usually causes

A

A decrease in blood flow through one or both of the main renal arteries or their branches

Usually due to thromboemboli, atherosclerosis, or fibromuscular dysplasia

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50
Q

Symptoms of acute renal occlusion

A

steady and aching flank pain
abdominal pain
fever
nausea, and vomiting
Gross hematuria, oliguria, or anuria may occur
After 24 hours, symptoms and signs of acute kidney injury may develop

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51
Q

Symptoms of chronic progressive renal occlusion

A

Hypertension (may begin at an atypical age and may be refractory) abdominal bruit or signs of atherosclerosis
Symptoms and signs of chronic kidney disease

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52
Q

Fibromuscular Dysplasia (FMD), definition

A

A vascular disease, usually affecting women, that can make the artery walls too weak or too stiff. This can lead to the arteries being either narrowed, known as stenosis, or become enlarged, otherwise known as aortic aneurysm.

Most commonly affects arteries that supply the kidneys, and the carotid and vertebral arteries that supply the brain

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53
Q

Fibromuscular Dysplasia (FMD), symptom

A

For those whose kidneys are affected, symptoms can include:
High blood pressure
Abnormal kidney function, rarely even kidney failure
Shrinkage of the kidney known as atrophy

FMD in the carotid arteries may cause the following:
Pulsatile tinnitus – a ‘wooshing’ sound in the ears
Headaches – especially migraines
Neck pain
Ringing in your ears
Dizziness
Stroke

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54
Q

Reflux Nephropathy (Vesicoureteral Reflux), definition

A

Abnormalities of the junction between the ureter and bladder that allow the urine to flow backward which makes urinary tract infections (UTIs) more likely to develop and cause kidney inflammation and scarring.

About 30 to 45% of children and about 1% of newborns who have a UTI that causes a fever have VUR. This sometimes tends to run in families. Children usually outgrow VUR by about age 5 years.

55
Q

Tension pneumothorax, symptoms

A

Respiratory distress.
Agitation with tachypnoea.
Hypoxia.
Tachycardia.
Hypotension.
Decreased or absent breath sounds on the affected side.
Hyper-expansion.
Decreased movement of the affected hemithorax.
Subcutaneous emphysema.

56
Q

Tension pneumothorax, management

A

If tension pneumothorax is suspected, or cannot be excluded in the hypotensive multi-trauma patient who is not responding to volume resuscitation, then chest decompression must be performed without delay.

57
Q

Haemothorax, definition

A

Haemothorax has been consistently defined as an accumulation of blood and fluid in the pleural space that prevents adequate ventilation and compresses the lung; (18) especially when there is >1500mls or 1/3 of the patients’ blood volume in the chest cavity.

58
Q

Haemothorax, investigation

A

CXR and eFAST in the first instance.
Ultrasound has consistently demonstrated to be more sensitive

59
Q

Haemothorax, management

A

Initial: restoration of circulating blood volume (blood products)

Resuscitation finished:
Insertion of an intercostal catheter
Where >1,500ml is drained, thoracotomy is likely required.

60
Q

Cardiac tamponade, definition

A

Occurs when blood, fluid or air enters the pericardium, restricting cardiac activity and interfering with filling. It primarily results from penetrating trauma however is also possible in cases of severe blunt chest trauma that results in right heart injury.

61
Q

Cardiac tamponade, symptoms

A

The symptoms and signs evolve and may develop within minutes, or less commonly over the better part of an hour.
Classic presentation of Becks Triad (hypotension, raised JVP, muffled heart sounds)

62
Q

Cardiac tamponade, management

A

Definitive management of pericardial tamponade involves decompression (Pericardiocentesis) of the pericardial sac and repair of the myocardial defect
Permissive hypotension and minimal volume resuscitation should be employed until decompression is achieved.

63
Q

Open pneumothorax, definition

A

Air will follow the path of least resistance, therefore if an opening in the chest wall is approximately 2/3rd of the diameter of the trachea or greater, air will pass through the chest wall defect with each respiratory effort, rather than down the trachea. Hypoxia and hypercarbia will ensue as ventilation is impaired.

64
Q

Open pneumothorax, management

A

Initial 3-sided occlusive dressing

Then insertion of a chest tube at a site away from the wound

Convert to a 4-sided, occlusive dressing

65
Q

Flail chest injury, definition

A

Fractures of 2 or more ribs in continuity, in 2 or more places. This injury results in a segment of the chest wall that is no longer in continuity with the rest of the thoracic cage, causing disruption of its integrity.

66
Q

Flail chest injury, management

A

Considered an immediate life-threat.

Adequate oxygenation and analgesia, fluid administration

ABG’s should be performed regularly. Non-invasive ventilation (NIV) may assist patients requiring inspiratory support. All patients who develop respiratory failure should receive intubation and mechanical ventilation early.

67
Q

Short stature, definition

A

Short stature: height below the 1st centile for age when plotted growth chart over a minimum of 6 months

Refer if:
- downward trajectory of height-for-age percentiles on growth chart
- more than 2 centile lines below mid-parental height / outside family pattern
- with any other symptoms, especially visual or headache

68
Q

Foreign object in the nose, management

A
  • Urgent ENT referral for
    button batteries and paired magnets
  • Refer to ENT for removal if first attempt (via any method) is unsuccessful.
69
Q

Nerve supply of the upper limb

A

Shoulder
flexion, abduction/lateral rotation - C5
extension/adduction/medial rotation - C6,7,8

Elbow
Flexion (biceps) - C5,6
Extension (triceps) - C6,7,8

Forearm
Pronation - C7, 8
Supination - C6

Wrist - C7,8

Hand - T1

Fingers (long tendons) - C7,8

70
Q

Lower limb nerve supply

A

Hip
Adduction/internal rotation - L1,2,3
Flexion - L2,3
Extension - L4,5
Abduction/external rotation - L5,S1

Knee
Extension - L3,4
Flexion - L5, S1

Ankle
Extension - L4,5
Flexion - S1,2

71
Q

3 main types of skin cancer

A

basal cell carcinoma (BCC); squamous cell carcinoma (SCC); and melanoma.

BCC - most common, rarely spreads, typically seen on sun exposed areas

SCC - second most common, typically seen on sun-exposed areas

Melanoma - rarer than BCC and SCC, but is more deadly, If not detected early, it can spread to other organs

72
Q

Tamoxifen, definition

A

Tamoxifen (Nolvadex® or Soltamox®) is a drug that treats hormone receptor-positive (hormone-positive) breast cancer. (Hormone-positive breast cancer is a type of cancer that needs estrogen and/or progesterone to grow.) Healthcare providers also use tamoxifen to help prevent breast cancer in people over 35 who have a high risk of the disease.

73
Q

Tamoxifen, side effects

A
  • Menopause-like symptoms
  • Weight gain (more common)
  • fluid retention (edema).
  • Nausea.
  • Vaginal discharge.
  • Skin rash.
  • Erectile dysfunction.
  • Fatigue.
  • Headaches.
74
Q

Tamoxifen, complications

A

Rarely, tamoxifen may cause serious issues such as:

  • Blood clots, deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and strokes.
  • Cataracts or other eye problems.
  • Endometrial (uterine) cancer.
75
Q

Red flags for referral to ophthalmic care

A

High-velocity injury
Contact lens use
Reduced vision
Photophobia
Significant pain
Loss of red reflex
Lid swelling
Corneal defect/haze
Abnormal pupil reaction
Failure to resolve

76
Q

Acute red eye, treatment

A
  • Treat with eye toilet
  • topical chloramphenicol 0.5% eye drops 4–6 times per day for 5–7 days

If hypersensitivity to chloramphenicol drops, stop treatment and consult ophthalmology

77
Q

Impingement syndrome, presentation

A

Pain, especially with overhead movements of the arm. sometimes lying on the affected shoulder at night may cause pain due to cephalad slippage of the humeral head with lateral compression.

Hawkin’s test - pain noted

78
Q

Anterior shoulder instability, presentation

A

shoulder ache and clicking/clunking
Pain when lying on affected shoulder
Hand/arm tingling/numbness/weakness

Anterior release test

79
Q

Rotator cuff tears, presentation

A

similar to anterior shoulder instability, given that a tear of the dynamic stabilisers of the shoulder may result in loss of congruency of the humeral head within the glenoid

  • pain and/or weakness when elevating arm
  • there may be night pain when lying on the affected shoulder
  • numbness/tingling in affected arm or hand. - may have normal or near-normal shoulder function

Empty can test - supraspinatus
Drop arm test

80
Q

Acromioclavicular joint sprain and osteoarthritis, presentation

A
  • Poorly localised/diffuse shoulder pain
  • sleeping on the affected side often disturbs sleep
  • across body movements with the arm of the affected shoulder may cause pain.

Active compression test (O’brien)

81
Q

Anal fissure, management

A
  • pain-relievers
  • laxatives
  • anaesthetic creams
  • nitroglycerin creams/botox injections
  • surgery
82
Q

Australian National Cervical Screening Program schedule:

A

• Five yearly cervical screening using a primary HPV test with partial HPV genotyping and reflex liquid based cytology (LBC) triage, 25-69 yrs of age, with exit testing at 74 yrs

• Self-collection of an HPV sample, for an under-screened or never-screened woman

• A National Cancer Screening Registry was introduced in 2017 and all colposcopy data will be sent to the registry

83
Q

Depression, diagnosis

A

Major depressive episodes are defined by a history of a >2 weeks of depressed mood or anhedonia with at least 3 of the following:

  • significant weight/appetite change
  • psychomotor agitation or retardation
  • feelings of worthlessness or guilt
  • diminished ability to concentrate
  • recurrent thoughts of death/suicide
  • insomnia or hypersomnia
84
Q

Traveller’s diarrhea (bacterial)

A

Bacteria - Typically, severe, bloody
1. Escherichia coli (E. coli) - most common bacteria, Inc (1-9 days), Dur (2-7 days)
2. Campylobacter jejuni - Inc (1-10days), Dur (5-14 days)
3. Salmonella species - Inc (0.25-2 days), Dur (1-7 days)
4. Shigella species - Inc (1-6 days), Dur (2-3 days), dysentery

85
Q

Traveller’s diarrhea (parasites)

A

Parasites- typically mild watery
1. Giardia intestinalis - Inc (5-25 days), Dur (10 days)
2. Entamoeba histolytica - Inc (4-5days), amoebiasis
3. Cryptosporidium parvum - Inc (2-14 days), Dur (3 weeks), immune suppressed

86
Q

Traveller’s diarrhea (viral)

A

Viruses - most common cause, typically mild and watery
1. norovirus - Inc (0.5-2days), Dur (1-4days)
2. rotavirus - Inc (1-3days), Dur (5-7 days)

87
Q

Diverticular disease, symptom

A

Diverticular disease generally causes no symptoms – only 1 in 4 people with it will have symptoms

  • Alternating bowel habit (constipation and diarrhoea)
  • Intermittent lower abdominal pain, usually on the left side, brought on by eating and that’s relieved by bowel movement
  • Bloating
88
Q

Diverticular disease, complications

A
  • Haematochezia
  • Abscess
  • Perforated bowel
  • Peritonitis
  • Fistula
  • Bowel obstruction
89
Q

Diverticular disease, investigation

A
  • Colonoscopy
  • Barium enema
  • Blood test
  • CT scan of the abdomen
90
Q

Meningioma, symptoms

A
  • Seizures
  • Headaches
  • Variable brain impairment ( Depending on location)
  • May remain asymptomatic for years
91
Q

Meningioma, risk factors

A
  • Advanced age
  • History of radiation therapy
  • Chromosomal abnormalities
  • Female hormones
92
Q

Gliomas, definition

A

Gliomas, one of the most common subset of primary tumors of the brain and central nervous system, form from the glial cells that surround neurons.

93
Q

Mullerian agenesis

A

Failure to develop of both Mullerian ducts results in absence of both the uterus and oviducts. The patient has amenorrhoea which cannot be corrected. Ovaries are often present so that in theory, the woman may be able to parent a child using in vitro fertilisation and a surrogate mother. NB. that under UK law, a surrogate mother cannot receive any financial reward.

94
Q

Breast cancer, screening by risk

A

Asymptomatic, low-risk women
- mammograms every two years for women aged 50–74 years

High risk
- with a parent, sibling, or child with breast cancer

  • consider annual mammograms from 40 years of age if the woman has a first-degree relative <50 years of age diagnosed with breast cancer
95
Q

Helicobacter pylori guidelines

A

TRIPLE THERAPY
Esomeprazole 20 mg twice daily,
OR omeprazole 20 mg twice daily

Amoxicillin 1 g twice daily

Clarithromycin 500 mg twice daily

POST TREATMENT MONITORING
Urea breath test

96
Q

Investigation of a new breast symptom

A

Triple test
1. History and PE
2. Imaging (mammography/ultrasound)
3. non-excisional biopsy (core / fine needle biopsy)

If the symptom is judged as benign, patient is still judged as average risk

97
Q

Alzheimer’s disease, definition

A

The most common form of dementia. Alzheimer’s disease is a physical brain condition resulting in impaired memory, thinking and behaviour.

98
Q

Alzheimer’s disease, presentation

A
  • persistent and frequent short-term memory loss, frequently recent events
  • vagueness in everyday conversations changes in ability to plan, problem solve, organise and think logically
  • taking longer to do routine tasks
  • language and comprehension difficulties
  • increasing disorientation in time, place and person
  • problems in becoming motivated and initiating tasks
  • changes in behaviour, personality and mood.
99
Q

Alzheimer’s disease, diagnosing

A
  • medical history
  • physical examination
  • blood and urine tests
  • psychiatric assessment
  • neuropsychological tests (memory and thinking)
  • brain scans

After eliminating other causes, a diagnosis of Alzheimer’s disease can be made

100
Q

Common causes of heavy periods

A
  1. Uterine abnormalities (endometrium, fibroids)
  2. medications (hormones, blood thinners)
  3. medical condition
101
Q

Motor neurone disease (Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis), definition

A

A fatal, progressive, degenerative, neurological condition.

The causes of the majority of cases of MND remain unknown. However, about 10% of cases are inherited (familial) and the genetic fault of about 60% of these cases is now known in Australian families. Average survival time after diagnosis is 2.5 years.

102
Q

Motor neurone disease (Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis), presentation by neuron group

A

Upper motor neurone
- muscle spasticity
- hyperreflexia
- Extensor plantar response (Babinski’s sign)
- preserved reflex in wasted muscles
- ankle clonus
- pseudobulbar affect (emotional lability)

Lower motor neurone
- muscle wasting
- muscle weakness
- fasciculations
- decreased reflexes

103
Q

Antenatal appointment, schedule

A

Every 4-6 weeks, usually becomes more frequent after 24 weeks (Total 6-10 visits per pregnancy)

104
Q

Postmenopausal bleeding, causes

A

Endometrial or cervical polyps
Endometrial hyperplasia
Endometrial carcinoma
Exogenous oestrogens
Atrophic endometritis and vaginitis
Other (vaginal trauma, urethral caruncle, uterine sarcoma,
cervical cancer, anticoagulants)

105
Q

Endometrial cancer, risk factors

A

Nulliparity
Late menopause (>age 52 years)
Obesity
15–25 kg overweight
>25 kg overweight
Diabetes mellitus
Unopposed estrogen therapy
Tamoxifen
Atypical endometrial hyperplasia

106
Q

Investigation for postmenopausal bleeding

A

History and PE
Ultrasound
Biopsy (Usually done by ObGyne)

107
Q

Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), investigation

A

History and PE
- Characterised by flare ups and periods of improvement (remissions)
- Affected organ or system

Blood tests
- Anti Nuclear Antibody (ANA) test, which measures antibodies to self tissues
- Additional blood tests are necessary to confirm the diagnosis as ANA can have a false positive result

108
Q

Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), main drup groups for treatment

A
  • NSAID
  • Anti malaria drugs
  • Corticosteroid
  • Immune suppressing drug
  • Cytotoxic drugs
109
Q

Common parasites and their host in australias

A
  1. Lice - human
  2. Scabies - human
  3. Whipworm - human
  4. Threadworm - human (most common)
  5. Tapeworm - saginata: beef, solium:pork
  6. Hookworm - human, dogs, cat
  7. Giardia Lamblia - human, pets, livestock
  8. Blastocystis hominis - humans, rats, pigs, chickens
  9. Dientamoeba fragilis - humans, pigs, rats
  10. Cysticercosis - pigs, humans
  11. Toxoplasmosis - farm animals, cats, humans
  12. Toxocara - human, dog, cat
110
Q

Caesarean section, categories

A

CATEGORY 1 - Urgent threat to the life or the health of a woman or fetus.
CATEGORY 2 - Maternal or fetal compromise but not immediately life threatening
CATEGORY 3 - Needing earlier than planned delivery but without currently evident maternal or fetal compromise.
CATEGORY 4 - At a time acceptable to both the woman and the caesarean section team, understanding that this can be affected by a number of factors4.

111
Q

Caesarean section, conditions under category 1

A
  • cord prolapse
  • failed instrument birth with fetal compromise (bradycardia, high lactate or low pH i.e. < 7.2)
  • maternal cardiac arrest
  • abnormal fetal scalp blood sample/pH (high lactate or pH<7.2)
  • confirmed fetal blood (Apt’s test) indicating ruptured fetal blood vessel, including Vasa Praevia
  • sustained fetal bradycardia (<70/min for ≥ 3minutes)
  • Placental abruption
  • Placenta praevia with major haemorrhage
  • identified irreversible abnormality on the cardiotocographs that requires imminent delivery
112
Q

Caesarean section, conditions under category 2

A
  • identified, but irreversible abnormality on the cardiotocographs but safe to deliver within 60 minutes
  • malpresentation of the fetus
113
Q

Caesarean section, conditions under category 3

A
  • failure to progress
  • malpresentation in early labour
  • planned caesarean section presenting in labour
  • maternal condition requiring stabilisation, e.g. preeclampsia
114
Q

Degenerative presbycusis, definition

A

In most people, presbycusis is a natural consequence of the body’s aging.

Presbycusis can also be exacerbated by consistent exposure to loud noises over a lifetime, which damages the sensory hair cells (stereocilia).

Old age health conditions such as diabetes or cardiovascular disease can also be a factor in hearing loss – although this generally suggests a separate and much rarer condition.

115
Q

Vaccine schedule, childhood

A

Birth - hb vax ii paediatric/engerix b paediatric

2,4 months (BIRP) - Infanrix hexa, rotarix, prevenar 13, bexsero (indigenous people)

6 months (BIP)- Infanrix hexa, prevenar 13, bexsero (indigenous people)

Annually (6m-5y) - influenza

12m (NMPB) - nimerix, MMR ii/priorix, prevenar 13, bexsero

18m (PAVI) - Priorix tetra/proquad, ActHib, Vaqta paediatric, Infanrix/tripacel

4y (VIP) - Vaqta pediatric, Infanrix IPV Pneumovax 23

Hepa B - HB vax II paediatrics, Engerix B paediatrics DPT, Hep B, Polio, Hib - Infanrix hexa
Rotavirus - Rotarix
Pneumococcal - Prevenar 13
Meningococcal B - Bexsero
Meningococcal ACWY - Nimenrix
MMR - MMR II, Priorix
HiB - Act HIB
MMR, varicella - Priorix tetra, proquad
DPT - Infanrix, Tripacel
Hep A - Vaqta Paediatric

116
Q

Vaccine schedule, adolescent

A

All ages
- Influenza ( specified medical conditions), (indigenous adolescent)
- Prevenar 13/Pneumovax 23 (specified medical conditions)

12-13y
- Gardasil 9, Boostrix

14-16y
- Nimenrix

pneumococcal - prevenar 13, pneumovax 23
HPV - gardasil 9
DPT - boostrix
meningococcal ACWY - nimenrix

117
Q

Vaccine schedule, Adult

A

All ages - Influenza (indigenous, specified conditions), Prevenar 13/Pneumovax 23 (specified conditions)

50 yrs over - Prevenar 13/Pneumovax 23 (indigenous)

65 yrs over - Influenza

70 yrs over - Prevenar 13

70 - 79 yrs - Zostavax

Pregnant - Boostrix/Adacel, Influenza

Pneumococcal - Prevenar 13, Pneumovax 23
Shingles - Zostavax
Pertussis - Boostrix, Adacel

118
Q

Cystic Fibrosis, definition

A

Cystic fibrosis (CF) an autosomal recessive disorder that primarily affects the lungs and digestive system because of a malfunction in the exocrine system that’s responsible for producing saliva, sweat, tears and mucus. There is currently no cure.

119
Q

Cystic Fibrosis, investigation

A

heel prick test - newborn
sweat test - definitive
carrier screening - detects parent’s gene

120
Q

Morphine, common side effects

A

Constipation - most common

Other side-effects -
CNS depression, nausea, vomiting, urinary retention, respiratory depression

121
Q

Migraine, definition

A

Severe headaches that typically last for between 4 and 72 hours. Migraine sufferers may experience nausea and vomiting as well as sensitivity to light or sound. They also frequently report throbbing pain that worsens with normal activity.

122
Q

Headache red flags

A
  • sudden very severe headache
  • lose of consciousness
  • have suffered a head injury
  • have sensory or motor problems
  • nausea or vomiting (if not clearly related to a flu or hangover)
  • high fever (above 38° C)
  • sensitive to light and have a new rash
123
Q

Ectopic pregnancy, risk factors

A
  • history of tubal sterilisation
  • endometriosis
  • history PID or salpingitis
  • use of assisted reproductive technologies
  • past ectopic pregnancy
  • other damage to the fallopian tube (surgery/medical conditions)
124
Q

Ectopic pregnancy, investigations

A

Usually only diagnosed as emergency cases:

  • pelvic examination
  • blood tests
  • ultrasound
  • laparoscopy
125
Q

Excessive sweating (hyperhidrosis), definition

A

Excessive or uncontrollable sweating for no apparent reason, even when they aren’t hot and not exercising.

126
Q

Excessive sweating (hyperhidrosis), treatment

A

Medicines: strong antiperspirants (containing aluminium), nerve-blocking medicines, antidepressants or botulinum toxin type a

Therapy: psychotherapy, behaviour therapy and relaxation techniques

Iontophoresis: a mild electrical current is delivered through water to areas of affected skin.

Surgery: remove the sweat glands or sever the nerves.

127
Q

Stillbirths and neonatal deaths in Australia, maternal risk factors

A
  • Aged under 20, 20-24 or 40 and over
  • Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander women
  • Lives in Very remote areas
  • Lives the most disadvantaged areas of Australia
  • Smoked throughout pregnancy
  • Several previous pregnancies (4 or more).
128
Q

Stillbirths and neonatal deaths in Australia, child’s risk factors

A
  • Born at less than 23 weeks’ gestation
  • Born with a birthweight less than 2,500 grams
  • Small for gestational age
  • Multiple babies in one pregnancy
129
Q

Stillbirths and neonatal deaths in Australia, common causes

A

perinatal deaths:
- congenital anomaly (33%)
- spontaneous preterm labour or rupture of membranes (<37 weeks’ gestation) (13%)
- maternal conditions (11%).

stillbirths:
- congenital anomaly (32%)
- maternal conditions (14%)
- unexplained antepartum death (13%).

neonatal deaths:
- congenital anomaly (36%)
- spontaneous preterm labour or rupture of membranes (<37 weeks’ gestation) (31%)
- perinatal infection (6.3%).

130
Q

10 Major defense mechanisms

A

Unconscious strategies whereby people protect themselves from anxious thoughts or feelings. Defense mechanisms aren’t inherently bad but they become problematic when applied too frequently or for too long.

  1. Projection: Attributing one’s unacceptable feelings or desires to someone else.
  2. Denial: Refusing to recognize or acknowledge real facts or experiences that would lead to anxiety.
  3. Repression: Blocking difficult thoughts from entering into consciousness.
  4. Regression: Reverting to the behavior or emotions of an earlier developmental stage.
  5. Rationalization: Justifying a mistake or problematic feeling with seemingly logical reasons or explanations.
  6. Displacement: Redirecting an emotional reaction from the rightful recipient to another person altogether.
  7. Reaction Formation: Behaving or expressing the opposite of one’s true feelings.
  8. Sublimation: Channeling sexual or unacceptable urges into a productive outlet.
  9. Intellectualization: Focusing on the intellectual rather than emotional consequences of a situation.
  10. Compartmentalization: Separating components of one’s life into different categories to prevent conflicting emotions.
131
Q

Ancillary examination for neck mass

A

Full blood examination Elevated white cell count may indicate infection or lymphoma
Anti-neutrophil antibody (ANA) Elevated ANA may indicate autoimmune diseases
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) Elevated ESR may indicate autoimmune diseases
Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) TSH abnormalities may indicate thyroid pathology (eg multinodular goiter, Grave’s disease)
Parathyroid hormone (PTH) Elevated PTH may indicate parathyroid adenoma
Thyroid ultrasonography May reveal thyroid nodules, parathyroid adenomas
Computed tomography of the chest with contrast May reveal lung malignancy, tuberculosis or sarcoidosis

131
Q

Ancillary examination for neck mass

A
  1. Full blood examination - infection or lymphoma
  2. Anti-neutrophil antibody (ANA) - autoimmune
  3. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) - autoimmune
  4. Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) - thyroid
  5. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) - parathyroid adenoma
  6. Thyroid ultrasonography - thyroid nodules, parathyroid adenomas
  7. Computed tomography of the chest with contrast - lung malignancy, tuberculosis or sarcoidosis
  8. Specific infection tests
132
Q

HLA class I and II, most common use

A

Identify compatibility in bone and kidney donations