Block 5 Flashcards

1
Q

the endoplasmic reticulum is continuous with what structure

A

nuclear membrane

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2
Q

where is the site of protein and lipid synthesis

A

endoplasmic reticulum

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3
Q

what do ribosomes synthesize

A

proteins

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4
Q

what is the difference between what free and membrane bound ribosomes produce

A

free produce proteins mostly used by the cell
membrane bound produce proteins for secretion (ex: hormones, digestive enzymes)

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5
Q

where is the site of initiation of posttranslational modification of newly synthesized proteins

A

rough ER

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6
Q

where does lipid and steroid synthesis occur

A

smooth ER

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7
Q

where does cholesterol and lipoprotein synthesis occur

A

smooth ER

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8
Q

where does detoxification of drugs and toxins occur

A

smooth ER

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9
Q

what is the sarcoplasmic reticulum

A

smooth ER of muscle cells

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10
Q

what is the function of the sarcoplasmic reticulum

A

store calcium for muscle contraction

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11
Q

where is the location of glucose 6-phosphatase

A

smooth ER

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12
Q

what 3 enzymes of steroid synthesis are present in the mitochondria

A

cholesterol desmolase
17 alpha
11 beta

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13
Q

what enzyme of steroid synthesis is present in the smooth ER

A

21 beta

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14
Q

what is the rough ER of neurons called

A

nissl body

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15
Q

what is the function of nissl bodies

A

synthesize neurotransmitters

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16
Q

what is the main organelle involved in posttranslational modification

A

golgi

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17
Q

vesicles come in from the __ and leave from the __ golgi

(cis or trans)

A

enter through cis
leave through trans

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18
Q

what are 3 examples of posttranslational modification

A

glycosylation
hydroxylation (ex: collagen)
carboxylation (ex: vit K)

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19
Q

what are the 3 main functions of golgi modification

A

protect proteins from degradation
direct proteins to their target locations
allow protein recognition by receptors

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20
Q

do golgi modifications add N or O oligosaccharides

A

O
(“O” in the gOlgi)

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21
Q

where does mannose 6-phosphate get added to lysosomal proteins

A

golgi

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22
Q

N linked oligosaccharides are often attached to what amino acid

A

asparagine

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23
Q

where are N linked oligosaccharides synthesized

A

eNdoplasmic reticulum

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24
Q

where are O lined oligosaccharides synthesized

A

gOlgi

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25
Q

O linked oligosaccharides are often attached to what amino acid

A

serine or threonine

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26
Q

what is an example of O linked oligosaccharide

A

mucins

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27
Q

respiratory infection can cause mucin buildup. what can we say about the posttranslational modification which has occurred to produce the mucin

A

O linked glycosylation in the golgi

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28
Q

is mannose 6 phosphate added to N or O linked oligosaccharides

A

N

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29
Q

mannose 6 phosphate triggers packaging in trans golgi –> __

A

lysosomes

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30
Q

defective mannose 6 phosphate addition in the lysosomes can lead to what disease

A

I cell

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31
Q

what type of inheritance pattern is I cell disease

A

autosomeal recessive

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32
Q

what enzyme is deficient in I cell disease

A

N-acetylglucosaminyl-1-phosphotransferase

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33
Q

in I cell disease, since enzymes are not destined properly to the lysosomes, where do they end up

A

outside the cell

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34
Q

what is missing from the golgi as a result of I cell disease

A

hydrolases

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35
Q

for enzymes destined to the lysosomes, mannose is added in what organelle
phosphotransferase adds phosphate to the 6th position in what organelle

A

mannose= ER
6P= golgi

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36
Q

what is the defective enzyme of pompe’s disease

A

lysosomal alpha 1,4 glucosidase (acid maltase)

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37
Q

what are the symptoms of pompe’s disease

A

infant cardiomegaly and hypotonia

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38
Q

what type of inheritance is hurler syndrome

A

autosomal recessive

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39
Q

what type of inheritance is hunter syndrome

A

X linked

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40
Q

what type of inheritance are sanfilippo and sly syndrome

A

autosomal recessive

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41
Q

what enzyme is deficient in hunter syndrome

A

iduronate sulfatase

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42
Q

how can you differentiate hunter syndrome from hurler syndrome

A

hunter- no corneal clouding
hurler- corneal clouding

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43
Q

what enzyme is deficient in hurler syndrome

A

alpha L iduronidase

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44
Q

what is the enzyme missing in tay sachs

A

hexaminidase A

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45
Q

what buildsup in tay sachs

A

GM2

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46
Q

what are the 2 main symptoms of tay sachs

A

cherry red spot in macula
startle reflex

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47
Q

what enzyme is missing in gaucher disease

A

glucocerebrosidase

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48
Q

what builds up as a result of gaucher disease

A

glucocerebroside

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49
Q

what are the 2 main symptoms of gaucher disease

A

crumpled paper inclusions
erosion of bones/fractures

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50
Q

what enzyme is missing in niemann pick diease

A

sphingomyelinase

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51
Q

what builds up as a result of niemann pick disease

A

sphingomyelin

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52
Q

what are the 2 main symptoms of niemann pick disease

A

hepatosplenomegaly
foamy macrophages

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53
Q

what builds up in fabry disease

A

ceramide trihexoside

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54
Q

what enzyme is missing in fabrys disease

A

alpha galactosidase A

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55
Q

what inheritance pattern is fabrys disease

A

X linked recessive

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56
Q

what is the main symptom of fabrys disease

A

peripheral neuropathy

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57
Q

what enzyme is deficient in von gierkes

A

glucose 6 phosphatase

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58
Q

what enzyme is deficient in cori disease

A

alpha 1,6 glucosidase (glycogen debranching enzyme)

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59
Q

what enzyme is deficient in mcardles disease

A

glycogen phosphorylase

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60
Q

von gierkes is evident at what age

A

6-9m with spaced out feeding

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61
Q

what is the main symptom of cori disease

A

accumulation of branched glycogen (limit dextrans)

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62
Q

what are the main symptoms of mcardles

A

decreased plasma lactate
muscle aches and cramping
myoglobinuria after exercise
increased creatinine and aldolase

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63
Q

what are 2 examples of receptor mediated endocytosis

A

LDL
transferrin

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64
Q

where does transcription occur
where does translation occur

A

transcription- nucleus
translation- cytosol

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65
Q

a signal sequence directs proteins from __ to __

A

ribosomes
ER

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66
Q

where in the protein is the signal sequence found

A

N terminal

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67
Q

signal recognition particles move proteins from __ to __

A

cytosol to ER

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68
Q

what type of molecules are signal sequences

A

ribonucleoproteins

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69
Q

CFTR biosynthesis starts with it’s co-translational insertion into the membrane of what organelle

A

ER

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70
Q

efficacy of CFTR trafficking is controlled by what organelle

A

ER

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71
Q

where is the site of misfolded CFTR degradation

A

ER

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72
Q

how are misfolded CFTR proteins degraded

A

ubiquitination

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73
Q

where is the site of CFTR glycosylation

A

golgi

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74
Q

the CFTR is what type of channel

A

chloride ligand gated

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75
Q

what process regulates the CFTR channel

A

phosphorylation

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76
Q

when there is impaired chloride secretion in those with cystic fibrosis, this leads to what symptom

A

think mucous

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77
Q

how can you test for cystic fibrosis

A

sweat test

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78
Q

what chromosome is the CFTR gene found on

A

7

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79
Q

coated vesicles are important for what type of pathways

A

secretory

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80
Q

what type of vesicles are used for receptor mediated endocytosis

A

clathrin coated

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81
Q

what are 3 examples of receptors found in clathrin coated pits

A

LDL
growth factor
transferrin

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82
Q

COP I is used for __
COP II is used for __

A

I= retrograde (golgi to ER)
II= anterograde (ER to golgi)

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83
Q

what 4 processes occur in the mitochondria

A

beta oxidation
TCA cycle
ETC
ketogenesis

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84
Q

what 4 processes occur in the cytosol

A

fatty acid synthesis
glycolysis
pentose phosphate pathway
glycogenesis

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85
Q

what 3 processes take place in both the cytosol and mitochondria

A

heme synthesis
urea synthesis
gluconeogenesis

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86
Q

the urea cycle occurs in what part of the mitochondria

A

mitochondrial matrix

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87
Q

what 3 processes occur in the nucleus

A

DNA replication
transcription
ribosome assembly

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88
Q

where is the site of rRNA transcription and processing of ribosome assembly

A

nucleolus

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89
Q

what is the function of proteosomes

A

destroy misshaped and misfolded proteins

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90
Q

proteasomes have a role in what neurological diseases

A

parkinsons

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91
Q

what organelle contains oxidative enzymes such as catalase

A

peroxisomes

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92
Q

what are the 2 main functions of catalase

A

oxidize H2O2
metabolize ethanol

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93
Q

what fatty acids undergo alpha oxidation

A

long chain
very long chain
branched chain

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94
Q

what causes refsum disease

A

defect in peroxisomal alpha oxidation

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95
Q

what causes zellweger syndrome

A

defective peroxisome synthesis

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96
Q

what causes X linked adrenoleukodystrophy

A

mutation in the ATP binding cassette leading to defective transport of very long chain fatty acids into peroxisomes

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97
Q

what does type I collagen make up

A

bone

98
Q

what does type II collagen make up

A

vitreous body

99
Q

what does type III collagen make up

A

blood vessels

100
Q

what does type IV collagen make up

A

basement membrane

101
Q

what is the most abundant protein in the body

A

collagen

102
Q

what amino acids make up collagen

A

proline, lysine, arginine

103
Q

why is proline important in collagen

A

induces bond breaking

104
Q

why is glycine important in collagen

A

it’s the smallest AA

105
Q

what condition is associated with a decrease in type I collagen

A

osteogenesis imperfecta

106
Q

what type of inheritance is osteogenesis imperfecta

A

autosomal dominant

107
Q

what are the mutations seen in osteogenesis imperfecta

A

COL1A1
COL1A2

108
Q

the genes defective in osteogenesis imperfecta, COL1A1 and COL1A2, encode for what

A

alpha chain for type I collagen

109
Q

what form of osteogenesis imperfecta is the most severe

A

II

110
Q

what are the 4 main symptoms of osteogenesis imperfecta

A

recurrent fractures
blue sclera
hearing loss
dentinogenesis imperfecta

111
Q

osteogenesis imperfecta showing multiple organ involvement is an example of what

A

pleiotropy

112
Q

what causes good pasture’s syndrome

A

anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies (type IV collagen)

113
Q

what condition results from a genetic defect in type IV collagen

A

alport syndrome

114
Q

what 2 genetic conditions are X linked dominant

A

fragile X
alport syndrome

115
Q

does collagen synthesis undergo posttranscriptional or posttranslational modification

A

post translational

116
Q

where are the alpha chains of collagen synthesized

A

rough ER

117
Q

pre-procollagen is present in what organelle
procollagen is present in what organelle

A

pre-procollagen- nucleus/ribosomes
procollagen- ER

118
Q

prolines or lysines of collagen may undergo what type of posttranslational modification

A

hydroxylation

119
Q

what cofactor is required for proline/lysine hydroxylation

A

vit C

120
Q

deficiency in vitamin C may lead to __

A

scurvy

121
Q

what component of collagen may be glycosylated

A

hydroxylysines

122
Q

what is component of collagen is deficient as a result of vit C deficiency leading to scurvy

A

pro-alpha chain

123
Q

what is the function of vitamin C with iron

A

reduce Fe3+ to an absorbable Fe2+ form

124
Q

collagen propeptides have what structure

A

extra AA at N and C ends
disulfide bonds

125
Q

what is the structure of procollagen

A

2 pro-alpha chains

126
Q

how is procollagen secreted

A

exocytosis

127
Q

propeptide removal and crosslinking of collagen occurs where

A

extracellular space

128
Q

collagen fibrils are strengthened by what

A

lysine crosslinking

129
Q

lysyl oxidase used in collagen crosslinking uses what as a cofactor

A

copper

130
Q

in collagen synthesis
lysyl hydroxylase requires __ as a cofactor
lysyl oxidase requires __ as a cofactor

A

hydroxylase- vit C
oxidase- copper

131
Q

what inheritance pattern is menkes disease

A

x linked recessive

132
Q

what causes menkes disease

A

mutation of ATP7A

133
Q

what is the result of ATP7A deficiency seen in mekes disease

A

impared copper absorption–>copper deficiency–> decreased lysyl oxidase–>no crosslinking

134
Q

what are the symptoms of menkes disease

A

steely, kinky, minkey hair
osteoporosis/fracture

135
Q

what are the copper lab results seen with menkes disease

A

low ceruloplasmin
low serum copper

136
Q

what causes wilsons disease

A

mutation in ATP7B

137
Q

what is the effect of ATP7B deficiency as seen in wilsons disease

A

impaired incorporation of copper into ceruloplasmin–> buildup of intracellular copper

138
Q

what is the main symptom of wilsons disease

A

kayser fleischer rings (copper rings around eyes)

139
Q

what is the urine lab finding for wilsons disease

A

high urine copper
low ceruloplasmin
high free copper

140
Q

the hydroxylation of dopamine to norepinephrine by dopamine hydroxylase requires what as a cofactor

A

copper
vitamin C

141
Q

what amino acid produces melanin

A

tyrosine

142
Q

what amino acid produces serotonin

A

tryptophan

143
Q

what amino acid produces melatonin

A

tryptophan

144
Q

in classic ehler danlos syndrome, what collagen type is defective

A

V

145
Q

in vascular ehler danlos syndrome, what collagen type is defective

A

III

146
Q

a mutation in what enzyme can cause ehler danlos syndrome

A

lysyl hydroxylase

147
Q

what are the main symptoms of ehler danlos syndrome

A

joint hypermobility
hyperextensible joints

148
Q

where is the body is the main site of elastin

A

lungs

149
Q

elastin is composed mainly of what type of amino acids
(polar or non polar)

A

nonpolar

150
Q

what 3 amino acids make up elastin

A

glycine
lysine
proline

151
Q

does collagen or elastin contain more hydroxyproline

A

less

152
Q

elastin is made of what type of crosslinks

A

lysine (desmosine)

153
Q

what is the function of alpha 1 anti-trypsin

A

inhibit neutrophil elastase to prevent alveolar wall degradation

154
Q

what is the effect of alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency

A

alveolar elastin degradation–>emphysema

155
Q

almond breath is caused by __

A

cyanide poisoning

156
Q

microdeletions are detected with __

A

FISH

157
Q

what are 5 examples of microdeletion syndrome

A

williams
prader willi
digeorge
wilms
angelman

158
Q

williams syndrome affects what chromosome

A

7

159
Q

the deletion on chromosome 7 that leads to williams syndrome is a gene for what

A

elastin

160
Q

what is the main symptom of williams syndrome

A

elfin faces

161
Q

what are 2 examples of large segment mutation diseases

A

cru di chat
alpha thalasemmia

162
Q

what 2 types of mutations can lead to beta thalasemmia

A

splice site
point mutation at promoter region

163
Q

fibrillin is a major component of what

A

microfilaments

164
Q

defective fibrillin leads to what autosomal dominant disorder

A

marfan

165
Q

a mutation in what gene causes marfan syndrome
what does it code for

A

FBN1
fibrillin-1

166
Q

what chromosome number is affected by marfan syndrome

A

15

167
Q

what are the 4 main symptoms of marfan syndrome

A

tall
disproportionate long arms/legs
pectus excavatum
arachnodactyly

168
Q

how does the lens subluxation differ between marfans and homocysteinuria

A

marfan= up and out
homocysteinuria= down

169
Q

what receptor does cholera toxin bind to

A

GM1

170
Q

where is the GM1 receptor that cholera toxin binds to located

A

intestinal epithelial cells

171
Q

does cholera toxin perform anterograde or retrograde transport

A

retrograde

172
Q

the dislocation of the A and B subunit of cholera toxin occurs where

A

ER

173
Q

how does the A1 chain of cholera toxin induce disease

A

ADP ribosylation and activating adenylyl cyclase

174
Q

another name for retrograde transport is ___

A

lipid based sorting pathway

175
Q

cholera acts on G_
pertussis acts on G_

A

cholera= Gs
pertussis= Gi

176
Q

do cholera and pertussis act reversibly or irreversibly

A

irreversibly

177
Q

what ion channels are increased as a result of cholera toxin

A

sodium
chloride

178
Q

what process is elongation factor a component of

A

transcription

179
Q

pseudomonas and diptheria toxin interfere with ADP ribosylation by altering what

A

elongation factor 2

180
Q

shiga and shiga like toxin stop what process

A

protein synthesis

181
Q

what GLUT is an example of facilitated diffusion

A

GLUT5 for fructose

182
Q

where is GLUT2 located

A

small intestine
liver
pancreas

183
Q

where is GLUT4 located

A

skeletal muscle
adipose tissue

184
Q

what receptor so skeletal muscle and adipose have that allows it to be under the effect of insulin

A

tyrosine kinase

185
Q

where is GLUT5 located

A

small intestines

186
Q

what is an example of secondary active transport

A

galactose and glucose SGLT

187
Q

is the mitochondria inner or outer membrane permeable

A

outer

188
Q

what is the function of the inner mitochondrial membrane

A

establish a protein gradient

189
Q

what organelle contains its own circular genome

A

mitochondria

190
Q

what is the main symptom of MERRF mitochondrial inherited disease

A

central vision blindness

191
Q

what amino acid is essential for tumor cells

A

asparagine

192
Q

erythropoietin is produced in the __
thrombopoietin is produced in the __

A

erythro- kidney
thrombo- liver

193
Q

thrombopoietin and erythropoietin use what receptor

A

JAKSTAT

194
Q

platelets lack __ but have __

A

lack nucleus
have mitochondria

195
Q

platelets get most of their energy from metabolizing what energy source

A

glucose

196
Q

how do platelets generate ATP

A

beta oxidation of fatty acids

197
Q

the huntington gene is located on what chromsome

A

4

198
Q

huntingtons occurs due to a mutation in __

A

fibroblast growth factor

199
Q

the fibroblast growth factor mutation as seen in huntingtons is associated with what

A

achondroplasia

200
Q

what causes scleroderma

A

fibroblast activation with excess collagen deposition

201
Q

actin and microvilli make up what type of cytoskeleton structure

A

microfilaments

202
Q

cilia and flagella make up what type of cytoskeleton structure

A

microtubules

203
Q

microvilli are made up of what

A

actin

204
Q

the z disc of muscle fibers contain what 2 proteins

A

vimentin
desmin

205
Q

what is seen in rheumatoid arthritis

A

arginine residues in vimentin are converted to citrulline

206
Q

antibodies to __ are specific for systemic lupus

A

dsDNA

207
Q

microtubules are made up of what protein

A

tubulin

208
Q

do microtubules contain ATP, ADP, GTP, or GDP

A

GTP

209
Q

what 2 proteins are used for transport to the opposite end of the microtubule

A

dynein
kinesin

210
Q

clostridium tetani toxin, herpes simplex virus, poliovirus, and rabies virus use __ for __ transport to neuronal cell bodies

A

dynein
retrograde

211
Q

cilia are built from __ and __

A

microtubules
dynein

212
Q

what is another name for primary ciliary dyskinesia

A

kartagener syndrome

213
Q

what causes primary ciliary dyskinesia (kartagener syndrome)

A

dynein arm of microtubule defect –>immotile cilia

214
Q

what causes hereditary spherocytosis

A

mutation in the RBC spectrin cytoskeletal protein

215
Q

what is the effect of spectrin deficiency as seen in hereditary spherocytosis

A

RBC become spherical instead of concave
this causes anemia and splenomegaly

216
Q

what 3 conditions cause hemolytic anemia

A

GDPD deficiency
sickle cell anemia
pyruvate kinase deficiency

217
Q

burkitts lymphoma is caused by a reciprocal translocation of __

A

8, 14

218
Q

mantle cell lymphoma is caused by a reciprocal translocation of __

A

11, 14

219
Q

follicular lymphoma is caused by a reciprocal translocation of __

A

14, 18

220
Q

what translocation and cancer causes Bcl-2 activation

A

14, 18
follicular

221
Q

CML (philadelphia chromosome) is caused by a reciprocal translocation of __

A

9, 22

222
Q

what translocation and cancer causes c-myl activation

A

8, 14
burkitts

223
Q

what activates Ras

A

guanine exchange GDP->GTP

224
Q

methotrexate and 5-flurouricil target what process

A

thymidine synthesis

225
Q

etoposides and teniposide target what enzyme

A

topoisomerase II

226
Q

what enzyme converts dUMP to TMP

A

thymidylate synthase

227
Q

after how long of a fast does the brain begin to use ketone bodies

A

2-3 days

228
Q

when ketone bodies are being used, is BUN high or low

A

low

ketone body production spares protein so no proteins are being broken down. this means BUM will be low

229
Q

what enzyme does the liver lack that prevents it from using ketone bodies as a fuel source

A

SCOT (thiophorase)

230
Q

what are the 4 major sources of phosphate

A

oxidative phosphorylation
phosphoglycerate kinase (glycolysis)
pyruvate kinase (glycolysis)
succinate thiokinase (TCA)

231
Q

barbiturates (amytal) inhibit what complex of the ETC

A

I

232
Q

rotenone (fish poison/insecticide) acts on what complex of the ETC

A

I

233
Q

malonate inhibits what complex of the ETC

A

II

234
Q

antimycin A and dimercaprol (BAL) inhibit what complex of the ETC

A

III

235
Q

H2S, CO, and cyanide inhibit what complex of the ETC

A

IV

236
Q

cyanide binds Fe__
CO binds Fe__

A

cyanide binds Fe3+
CO binds Fe2+

237
Q

what is the presentation of cyanide poisoning

A

bitter almond smell
soot in nose/mouth
smoke

238
Q

what is the main inhibitor of PFK1 of glycolysis

A

citrate

239
Q

what activates acetyl CoA carboxylase of FA synthesis, while inhibiting PFK1 of glycolysis

A

citrate

240
Q

what vitamin is the precursor for FMN and FAD

A

B2 (riboflavin)

241
Q

FAD acts in what complex of the ETC
what enzyme does it act as an electron acceptor for

A

II
succinate dehydrogenase

242
Q

what is the only enzyme of the TCA cycle that is embedded in the inner mitochondrial membrane

A

succinate dehydrogenase