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BDS3 > PPQs > Flashcards

PPQs Flashcards

1
Q

Most important factor for long term success of a crown

A

Coronal seal 2-3mm from apex

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2
Q

What is the shape of the preparation for 21 endo treatment?

A

Triangular where the triangle base is closer to the incisal edge and the apex of triangle is at the cingulum

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3
Q

Best articulator for registering occlusion?

A

Fully adjustable articulator

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4
Q

What is the length of biological width?

A

Space that exists between the bottom of the gingival sulcus and the underlying bone
Connective tissue + junctional epithelium (2mm)

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5
Q

What is the most common child physical impairment?

A

Cerebral palsy 1 in 600

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6
Q

What is the angulation of the vertical beam in a panoramic radiograph?

A

Vertical beam up to 8 degrees

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7
Q

What is an irregular pulse called?

A

Atrial fibrillation

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8
Q

What should be recorded in a maxillary definitive denture?

A

Complete denture bearing area
Width and depth of sulcus
Make sure tori are included

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9
Q

What muscle is found medial to the zygomatic arch?

A

Temporalis

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10
Q

What is used for cleaning blood spillages?

A

Sodium hypochlorite
Dichloroisocyanurate

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11
Q

What is the concentration of chlorine for a blood spillage?

A

10,000ppm chlorine

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12
Q

How long should the label be kept for waste disposal and what is this called?

A

3 years consignment note

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13
Q

What are the products of glycolysis?

A

Glucose -> 2ATP, 2NADH, 2 pyruvate

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14
Q

What sugar produces most lactate?

A

Sucrose

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15
Q

Where do LAs bind to?

A

Voltage gated sodium channels and block the influx of sodium

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16
Q

Why decrease drug dosage in the elderly?

A

Reduced excretory capacity of kidneys

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17
Q

How much fluoride is in mouthwash?

A

225ppmF

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18
Q

What are fluoride tablets UK guidelines for high risk children?

A

6m-3yr 0.25mg
3-6yrs 0.5mg
>6yrs 1.0mg

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19
Q

Name the 6 steps of how a traditional film Xray image is produced

A

Developing
Rinsing
Fixation
Removing
Washing
Drying

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20
Q

What joints are most commonly affected by rheumatoid arthritis?

A

MCP metacarpophalangeal
PIP proximal interphalangeal

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21
Q

What does kVp refer to?

A

Kilovoltage peak
Also known as peak potential difference or voltage

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22
Q

What is the scatter effect responsible for on radiographic image?

A

Photons scattered backwards - do not affect image
Photons scattered obliquely may still reach the image but will interact with the wrong area, causes darkening of image in the wrong place, results in fogging of image which reduces image contrast/quality

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23
Q

Pt presents with poor OH and erythematous. How to treat?

A

OHI and chlorhexidine mouthwash

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24
Q

What is the function of a buccal canine retractor?

A

To retract buccally erupted canine palatally

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25
Q

Pt with OB and OJ of 7mm, would you give them an anterior or posterior occlusal bite plane and what width would it be?

A

Flat anterior bite plane with a width of OJ +3mm
7+3=10mm

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26
Q

Which occlusal bite plane would you use for an anterior cross bite?

A

Flat posterior bite plane

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27
Q

Greatest danger for elders with osteoporosis

A

Vertebral fracture 50% and most dangerous

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28
Q

What study design gives most reliable results?

A

Randomised control trial

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29
Q

What is the index tool for periodontal problems and what does it stand for?

A

CPITN probe
Community periodontal index of treatment needs

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30
Q

Which material has best mechanical properties, gold or porcelain?

A

Gold

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31
Q

In crown prep of anterior teeth, how many planes should be prepped?

A

2

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32
Q

What is it called when the mandible moves to the right and the posterior teeth on the left do not contact?

A

Canine guidance

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33
Q

What is it called when the mandibular condyles are in their most posterior position and the teeth are in contact?

A

Retruded contact position

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34
Q

What should the minimum thickness of the aluminium on the Xray filtration be?

A

<70kV = 1.5mm
70kV or more = 2.5mm

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35
Q

What medication/advice to give following an OAF?

A

No nose blowing, using straws, smoking or using a steam inhaler
Give antibiotics

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36
Q

In bacteria, phosphorus is used in the form of inorganic phosphate to produce what?

A

ATP through cellular respiration

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37
Q

25 year old comes with no gingivitis and
generalised loss of attachment, what could be the diagnosis?

A

Aggressive generalised periodontitis

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38
Q

Greater risk group for heart disease and hypertension?

A

Older people

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39
Q

Which of the following patients should always be referred to a specialist
- Organ transplant and severe haemophiliac
- Warfarin patient
- Prosthetic limb patient

A

Organ transplant and severe haemophiliac

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40
Q

Patients who have haemophilia A are deficient in which clotting factor?

A

Factor VIII

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41
Q

What is the line of reference for upper oblique occlusal radiographs? What is it for the lower?

A

Upper - ala tragus line
Lower - corner of mouth to tragus

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42
Q

What does curve of monson represent?

A

An imaginary curve that follows the occlusal plane of teeth and represents the relationship between the upper and lower arches

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43
Q

What does the quality of photons depend on?

A

Distance (fsd) 100mm for <60kV
200mm for 60kV or more

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44
Q

If a radiograph is too dark what could be the problem?

A

Overexposure, developer left on for too long

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45
Q

What colour is the holder for anterior periapical?

A

Blue

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46
Q

What colour is the holder for bitewings?

A

Red

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47
Q

What colour is the holder for posterior periapicals?

A

Yellow

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48
Q

What does the sphere of monson tell us about the inclination of upper and lower teeth?

A

Maxillary teeth tilt buccally
Mandibular teeth tilt lingually

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49
Q

Where is the dot on the edge of the xray film orientated for periapicals and for bitewings?

A

Periapical - dot on bottom of the film holder
Bitewings - dot on top of film holder

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50
Q

How often should the radiology equipment be tested?

A

Process test film daily

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50
Q

How often should the radiology equipment be tested?

A

Process test film daily

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51
Q

What is the indication on a radiograph of chronic occlusal trauma?

A

Widened PDL

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52
Q

What is a luxator used for

A

To sever PDL

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53
Q

What is the most important measurement for full denture design?

A

OVD

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54
Q

4 types of cerebral palsy

A

Spastic
Dyskinetic
Ataxic
Mixed

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55
Q

What is used for acid etch?

A

35% phosphoric acid

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56
Q

Deamination of amino acids gives off what?

A

Ketone acid and ammonia

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57
Q

How to make a veneer more adhesive?

A

Lab with 10% HF acid

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58
Q

What is usually used as a reference point in endo?

A

Posterior teeth - cusp tip
Anterior teeth - incisal edge

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59
Q

What material is used in canals between visits during endo treatment?

A

Non setting calcium hydroxide

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60
Q

How will you make sure the patient will adhere to OH after using cognitive theory?

A

Implementation intention

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61
Q

Which toothpaste concentration should be used for a high risk 2 year old?

A

1000ppmF

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62
Q

What is the primary aim of an audit?

A

Improve healthcare - ensure standards are being met

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63
Q

What is the first line blood test for anaemia?

A

Full blood count

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64
Q

Patient has oesophageal infection, which nodes will show on palpation?

A

Deep cervical

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65
Q

What method is used to spot novelty in microorganisms?

A

PCR and 16S rRNA amplification and cloning

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66
Q

Alcohol based hand rub is NOT useful against what particular bacteria?

A

Clostridium Difficile

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67
Q

Alcohol based hand rub is NOT useful against what particular bacteria?

A

Clostridium Difficile

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68
Q

What is the definition of viscoelasticity?

A

Ability to return to original shape after deformation

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69
Q

What is the definition of viscoelasticity?

A

Ability to return to original shape after deformation

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70
Q

Most useful voltage with a 60kV machine?

A

Lower the better

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71
Q

Oral features of down syndrome

A

Early onset of periodontitis

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72
Q

During facial growth, what structure encases the brain and what structure grows with the face?

A

Neurocranium
Viscerocranium

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73
Q

How much of the damage to nerves with lower 8 removal is temporary and how much is permanent?

A

Temporary 10-20%
Permanent <1%

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74
Q

What is it called when a patient experiences abnormal pain sensation as a result of damage to nerves?

A

Dysaesthesia

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75
Q

Are edentulous patients increasing or decreasing among age groups?

A

Decreasing across all age groups

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76
Q

What is the purpose of an LDU?

A

Decontaminate reusable instruments

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77
Q

Venous canula infection is caused by what bacteria?

A

Staphylococcus epidermis

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78
Q

Put the following in order to correspond with the decontamination cycle - pack, clean, sterilise, inspect

A

Clean
Inspect
Pack
Sterilise

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79
Q

What determines the kVp selection on an Xray unit?

A

Absorbed dose determines the kVp

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80
Q

What is the most important piece of information to tell the radiographer?

A

Clinical findings and radiographic view

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81
Q

What is cystic fibrosis?

A

Thick mucus which impedes cilias movement

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82
Q

Oral complication of cerebral palsy

A

Bruxism

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83
Q

What do patients with leukaemia often present with?

A

Gingival bleeding

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84
Q

What drug is often used as a first line to treat osteoarthritis?

A

NSAIDs

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85
Q

What drug is often used to treat candida albicans?

A

Caspofungin

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86
Q

What is an anteroposterior skeletal class III?

A

Mandible 2-3mm in front of maxilla

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86
Q

What is an anteroposterior skeletal class III?

A

Mandible 2-3mm in front of maxilla

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86
Q

What is an anteroposterior skeletal class III?

A

Mandible 2-3mm in front of maxilla

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87
Q

How can you reduce trauma to the pulp during a restorative procedure?

A

Use a coolant (such as water)

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88
Q

Following restoration of a single tooth under LA, how would you appropriately determine the occlusal contacts?

A

Use thin articulating paper

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89
Q

Dose reduction in intraoral radiography is best achieved by which collimation and by how much is the reduction?

A

Rectangular collimation
Reduces dose by 50%

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90
Q

What is the speed film that would give the patient a reduction in exposure time and dose and by how much?

A

F speed film
F is 20% faster than E (E is twice as fast as D)
This would result in 20% reduction in exposure time and dose

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91
Q

Prescribing medication for children requires alteration from an adult prescription, what is the most important change?

A

Dose of the drug

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92
Q

Diabetes is a common disorder in the elderly. Complications of this condition lead to difficulty being independent. What is the most likely complication?

A

Maculopathy

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93
Q

45 year old male with signification oral ulceration, may have underlying anaemia, what is a possible underlying medical condition which could cause this?

A

Peptic ulcer disease

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94
Q

In a patient with excellent plaque control, application of an intermittent non-axial occlusal force to a tooth gives rise to what?

A

Widening of the PDL and increased mobility

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95
Q

The retruded axis is (centric relation)

A

Dynamic relationship during with the mandible opens and closes on a reproducible hinge axis

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96
Q

What is chroma?

A

Intensity of colour

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97
Q

You perform an extraction on a patient, 3 hours later patient comes back bleeding. What is the preferential immediate treatment?

A

Bite on gauze with firm and even pressure

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98
Q

Under conditions of high sugar supply, what is formed under anaerobic conditions?

A

Lactate

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99
Q

What are facultative anaerobes?

A

Grow in the presence or absence of oxygen

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100
Q

Synthesis of extracellular polymeric substance in plaque formation is greatest when which sugar is present in the diet?

A

Sucrose

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101
Q

During root canal instrumentation of a sclerosed canal, what provides greatest benefit in making exploration easier?

A

EDTA 17%

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102
Q

Bilateral ankle swelling that worsens as the day progresses would suggest that the patient has what?

A

Congestive heart failure

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103
Q

Liver cirrhosis is best characterised by?

A

Disorganised liver repair

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104
Q

A fast irregular pulse in a patient who is suddenly acutely breathless would suggest the patient has?

A

Atrial fibrillation

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105
Q

Persistent lip swelling and recurrent oral ulceration could be a feature of what?

A

Crohn’s disease

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106
Q

What strength of daily fluoride mouthwash is recommended for a 9 year old?

A

225ppmF

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107
Q

Where are emergency airways located?

A

Between thyroid and cricoid cartilages

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108
Q

What pair of muscles retains dentures in their correct position?

A

Buccinator and orbicularis oris

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109
Q

When planning the construction of a bridge, a facebow is used, what is the function of a facebow?

A

Records the relationship of the maxillary arch to the mandibular condyles

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110
Q

In dental panoramic radiography, horizontal magnification of all anterior teeth will be caused by which patient positioning error?

A

The patient is too far back from the Xray source

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111
Q

With regard to intra oral xray film and film packet, where should the embossed dot or identification dot be?

A

The dot should always face towards the Xray beam

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112
Q

Why is a porcelain crown better than Ceromer crown, if retention preparation not good?

A

Better bond

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113
Q

Max root length safely left in an obturation?

A

2-3mm

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114
Q

What is wrong in cystic fibrosis?

A

Thick mucus that clogs the airways in the lungs and obstructs ducts in pancreas

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115
Q

What is the percentage of dry socket and osteonecrosis?

A

Dry socket 2-3%, 20-30% for lower 8s
Osteonecrosis - <1%

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116
Q

How can you affect crown forces?

A

Direction

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117
Q

When is bone regeneration best?
1 bony wall
2 walls
3 walls
Furcation

A

3 wall - the higher the better prognosis

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118
Q

What is the Christiansen phenomenon?

A

Refers to a phenomenon observed during the construction of occlusal rims
Patient is asked to maximally protrude mandible and a gap appears on the posterior teeth

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119
Q

Loss of sensation in left face and right upper limb could be caused by?

A

Multi-ischaemic event

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120
Q

Where is the lingual nerve positioned?

A

Between medial pterygoid and mandible

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121
Q

What does glycocalyx offer?

A

Microvilli in GIT
Adhesion for biofilm
Protection

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122
Q

What is a niche?

A

Role of an organism in an ecological environment

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123
Q

What is the maximum number of electrons that M can hold in its shell?

A

2n^2
K L M N O P
2(3)^2 = 18

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124
Q

What do you give for virus, bacteria and fungi?

A

Chlorhexidine

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125
Q

Is the rotation of the condyle on the working side in horizontal or vertical axis?

A

Vertical

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126
Q

What is a class I anteroposterior skeletal relationship?

A

Maxilla 2-3mm in front of mandible

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127
Q

What property do elastomers have that alginate does not?

A

Can store because of dimensional stability. Alginate absorbs/releases moisture which causes it to change dimensions
Elastomers have higher elastic recovery while alginate exhibits more permanent deformation

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128
Q

What acid etch is usually used for porcelain?

A

10% Hydrofluoric acid (HF)

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129
Q

Person with osteoarthritis has poor manual dexterity. Which of the bones are affected?

A

Metacarpals:DIP

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130
Q

What happens when caries is in dentine?

A

Beaded or tubular dentine formation

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131
Q

What is the difference between zinc phosphate cement and zinc polycarboxylate?

A

Zinc phosphate has higher modulus and compressive strength
In zinc polycarboxylate, phosphoric acid is replaced by polyacrylic acid

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132
Q

Patient had injury on left side of the mandible. Facial artery and submandibular are safe and intact, what test would be performed to test the area?

A

Test sensation of the face

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133
Q

65 year old has submandibular swelling, no pain, what kind of metastasis is this?

A

Posterior of the tongue

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134
Q

What happens at the anode and what type of spectrums does it produce?

A

Electrons from the filament of the cathode made of tungsten bombard the metal block made of tungsten of the anode to produce photons
Characteristic and continuous spectrum

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135
Q

Which act is to do with changing the practice layout to cater to disabled people?

A

Equality act 2010

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136
Q

Which bacteria is most likely found in periodontal disease?

A

Porphyromonas gingivalis

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137
Q

What are indications for periodontal surgery?

A

Excellent OH
Pockets of 5mm or greater

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138
Q

Which virulence factor has contribution with P. gingivalis to cause periodontal disease?

A

Gingipains and fimbriae

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139
Q

If the principles of flap design which one is appropriate?
Do not cut deep
Base is wider than apex
Do not cut the papilla and leave it intact
The flap must be small

A

Base is wider than the apex

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140
Q

Which tooth is likely to have an extra canal?

A

First mandibular molar

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141
Q

What is the colour of the rims you would use for endo radiograph?

A

Green

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142
Q

Which hepatitis must dentists be vaccinated against?

A

Hep A and B

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143
Q

If 60kVp what would the kV be?

A

60kV

144
Q

Which family member of the child can automatically consent for treatment under general anaesthetic?

A

Mother of the child

145
Q

Which of the following is true about investment materials
They should ideally be porous to allow gas to escape
They have a contraction of about 7%
They are heated at 1400C for 3 hours

A

They should ideally be porous to allow gas to escape

146
Q

Which of the following is considered dental neglect
Child attended first time at 7 years old
Fails to respond to recommended treatment plan
Sibling had multiple extractions under GA

A

Fails to respond to recommended treatment plan

147
Q

What is good diet advice for someone who enjoys the consumption of acidic drinks?

A

Consume acidic drinks at meal times

148
Q

Which syndrome is associated with maxillary hypoplasia, class III occlusion, AOB and parrot’s beak note?

A

Apert’s syndrome (acrosyndactyly)

149
Q

Which syndrome is characterised by unilateral mandibular hypoplasia and deafness on that side?

A

Hemifacial microsomia

150
Q

What is the probability of finding one viable microorganism in sterilised items?

A

1 1,000,000

151
Q

A patient attends with resistance to opening of mouth and sore right TMJ. What muscle is responsible?

A

Lateral pterygoid

152
Q

What concentration toothpaste would you give a high risk 12 year old?

A

2800ppmF

153
Q

How does Childsmile contribute to fluoride delivery?

A

Fluoride varnish in nurseries and school

154
Q

What is the best way to provide evidence of a study or treatment?

A

Randomised control trial

155
Q

Which splint-trauma is correct
4 weeks flexible splint for extrusion
2 weeks flexible splint for intrusion
2 weeks flexible splint for luxation
2 weeks flexible splint for avulsion

A

2 weeks flexible splint for avulsion

156
Q

What should pH for washer disinfector be?

A

High alkaline

157
Q

A prospective study where individuals were observed over period of time to measure frequency of occurrence of disease, what is this type of study known as?

A

Cohort study

158
Q

What drug would reduce morbidity of osteoarthritis?

A

Analgesics

159
Q

What are bisphosphonates that are administered intravenously?

A

Zoledronic acid

160
Q

Loss of sensation of lower face and upper limb on the same side

A

Transient ischaemic attack

161
Q

What is the individual behaviour that gives someone belief they can succeed in a task?

A

Self efficacy

162
Q

Which of the following is the most appropriate post-op advice to stop bleeding?
Rinse with saline
Bite on damp gauze for 30 min
Use mouthwash to clean the area
Take ibuprofen and paracetamol
Call the contact number as soon as bleeding occurs

A

Bite on damp gauze for 30 min

163
Q

Which post-op advice applies after extraction
Analgesia is always required and don’t eat until it wears off
Drink cold drinks to help with the pain
Do not smoke but you can consume alcohol in moderation
Smokie in moderation but limit alcohol to 14 units per week

A

Analgesia is always required and don’t eat until it wears off

164
Q

What BPE score is a depth of <3.5mm with BOP and no plaque retentive factors?

A

Score 1

165
Q

What is a flat anterior biteplane used for?

A

Correct OB

166
Q

Which one affects radiographic technique
Curve of monsoon tilts up posteriorly, affects vertical angulation
Curve of spee tilts down posteriorly, affects vertical angulation
Curve of spee and monsoon are synonyms

A

Curve of spee tilts down posteriorly, affects vertical angulation

167
Q

Which enzyme produces glucans?

A

Glucosyltransferylase

168
Q

What is a very important paediatric indication for RCT?

A

Good patient cooperation

169
Q

What is the intrinsic factor for staining?

A

Tetracycline

170
Q

What is the maximum concentration of carbamide peroxide that is legal?

A

16% Carbamide peroxide - equates to 6% hydrogen peroxide

171
Q

What sinus drains to the submandibular nodes?

A

Maxillary sinus

172
Q

What is the most powerful predictor of future caries?

A

Caries in the primary dentition

173
Q

Select the best option for incompetent lips
Can contribute to end of treatment instability following ortho treatment
Are lips that meet at rest with relaxed mentalis muscle
Are lips that do not have sufficient thickness
May procline upper incisors
May lead to relapse of OJ is persists at end of treatment

A

Can contribute to end of treatment instability

174
Q

Pterygoid hamulus is part of which bone?

A

Sphenoid bone

175
Q

Dental aspects of systemic sclerosis

A

Involvement of perioral tissues
Limited mouth opening and tongue movement

176
Q

For a lower molar, how do you retain core after endo treatment?

A

Adhesive

177
Q

Which film is the fastest?
D
E
F
Digital

A

Digital

178
Q

Which of the following increases fear/anxiety in a paediatric patient
-Not taking patients thoughts into consideration
-Using a high speed handpiece
-Doing an invasive procedure on the child
-Any procedure involving pain/discomfort
-Listening to the patients wishes

A

Not taking patients thoughts into consideration

179
Q

Frequency of BW radiographs for high risk adults?

A

6 monthly

180
Q

What are FGDP guidelines for taking radiographs for low, moderate and high risk adults and children?

A

High risk - 6 months for adults and children
Moderate - annually
Low risk - Primary 12-18months permanent 2 years

181
Q

What is the % of temporary damage to the IAN?

A

1-10%

182
Q

Calculate LOA for probing depth 7mm and ACJ being 2mm below the gingival margin

A

7mm + (-2mm) = 5mm

183
Q

In the reproducibility of elastomers what is the narrowest notch in the ISO standard test?

A

20 microns

184
Q

What is a risk factor for atherosclerosis?

A

Genetics

185
Q

What is a semi critical device?

A

A device which comes into contact with not intact skin or mucous membrane, but does not penetrate soft tissue or make contact with bloodstream, bone or normally sterile tissue
The device must be cleaned and subject to high-level disinfection
Steam sterilisation preferred

186
Q

How many maximum cartridges of lidocaine can you give a 70kg adult?

A

7

187
Q

For someone with learning difficulty who can make dental treatment decisions for them?

A

Welfare guardian

188
Q

Which of the following is a suspicious indicator of child abuse or neglect?
Delayed presentation of dental trauma
Parent shows interest in the treatment of child
All dental appts kept
Loving relationship between parent and child

A

Delayed presentation of dental trauma

189
Q

Your adult patient attends heavily under the influence of drugs or alcohol, you realise that they have a child in the waiting room. Which would not be an appropriate response?
Call the duty social worker at the local social services
Find out if another family member or friend can pick up the child and care for them until the parent is able to
Contact the local police station
Let the child leave with them as they are not your patient

A

Let the child leave with them

190
Q

From when should a parent be using a toothbrush with their child?

A

From eruption of first tooth

191
Q

For a 6 month old low risk of caries how should toothpaste be used?

A

Smear of 1000ppmF twice daily

192
Q

What age is a pea size amount of toothpaste recommended?

A

Children 3+

193
Q

Strength of duraphat varnish

A

22,600ppmF

194
Q

Which is not illegal in Scotland under the Criminal Justice Act
Hit a child with an object
Smack a child
Hit a child anywhere on the head
Shake a child

A

Smack a child

195
Q

Who are the main agency concerned with coordinating child protection procedures?

A

Social services

196
Q

Which would not be suspicious indicator of child abuse
Torn upper labial frenulum
Multiple injuries in different locations
Late presentation of an injury
Clearly dirty child

A

Torn upper labial frenulum

197
Q

When should topical fluorides (other that toothpaste) be used?

A

At a different time from toothbrushing

198
Q

What drug information should be written on a prescription for Duraphat 2,800ppmF toothpaste?

A

Sodium Fluoride 0.619% toothpaste

(5000ppmF is 1.1% Sodium Fluoride

199
Q

What is the lowest fluoride concentration toothpaste that should be recommended to a 2 year old?

A

1000ppm

200
Q

3 take home messages from the Marimho 2008 review for evidence for topical fluoride

A

The higher the caries rate, the greater the preventative effect of topical fluorides
Additional topical fluorides (mouthwash, varnish, tablets) used as well as toothpaste further reduce the occurrence of caries
Fluoride toothpaste prevents caries

201
Q

Which is unsuitable for a 10 year old?
22,600ppmF varnish
1450 ppmF toothpaste
5000ppmF toothpaste

A

5000ppmF toothpaste

202
Q

How much fluoride would provide a probable toxic dose?

A

5mg/kg

203
Q

One large glass (250ml) of white wine (12% strength) contains how many UK units of alcohol?

A

Vol x strength /1000 = units
250 x 12 / 1000 = 3

204
Q

Which of the the following is not a major factor in preventative treatment plan for a child
Fluoride therapy
Fissure sealing
OHI
Water fluoridation

A

Water fluoridation

205
Q

What should be the first component of any treatment plan?
Prevention
Diet advice and OHI
Restorative treatment
Relief of pain

A

Relief of pain

206
Q

Which does not need considered in the mixed dentition phase?
Developing malocclusion
Development of all permanent teeth
Growth of the child
Size of maxillary sinuses

A

Size of maxillary sinuses

207
Q

Which is not important in social history for a child?
Year at school
Age
Siblings
If they have a best friend

A

If they have a best friend

208
Q

Which should not alter your treatment plan?
Need for GA
Need for prevention
Child has congenital heart disease
Allergy to latex

A

Need for prevention

209
Q

Which does not need considered in a child treatment plan?
Plan made for child’s best friend
Caries risk
Medical history
Social background

A

Plan made for child’s best friend

210
Q

What is not wanted from parents of a small child when treatment planning?
Consent
Showing the child they are nervous
Motivation towards appropriate dietary improvements
Willingness to help aid good hygiene

A

Showing the child they are nervous

211
Q

When treatment planning which should be carried out first?
Simple rests in upper jaw requiring LA
Anterior tooth rest requiring LA
Pulpotomy in upper jaw
Simple rests in lower jaw requiring LA

A

Simple rests in upper jaw requiring LA

212
Q

Which is highest priority in treatment plan
Restoration of primary teeth
Relief of pain
Restoration of permanent teeth
OHI

A

Relief of pain

213
Q

What factor is more likely to improve the oral health of all pre-school children?
Use of 1450ppmF toothpaste
Water fluoridation
Use of 1000ppmF toothpaste
Fluoridation of fizzy drinks

A

Water fluoridation

214
Q

What proportion of injuries in abuse are found on the head and neck areas?

A

60%

215
Q

What proportion of serious head injuries in the first year of life are NOT accidental?

A

95%

216
Q

What 3 stages in managining dental neglect are suggested by “Child Protection and the Dental Team” website?
a. Preventive dental team management, referral to local dental hospital, preventive multi-agency management
b. Examination, diagnosis, review
c. Referral to local dental hospital, speak to child protection advisor, child protection referral
d. Preventive dental team management, preventive multi-agency management, child protection referral

A

d. Preventative dental team management, preventative multi-agency management, child protection referral

217
Q

Which of the following should be used to correct a buccally positioned canine on an orthodontic laboratory prescription?
A. Palatal finger spring HSSW 0.5 mm
B. Buccal canine retractor HSSW 0.5 mm in 0.5 mm tubing
C. Buccal canine retractor HSSW 0.5 mm in 0.7 mm tubing
D. Buccal canine retractor HSSW 0.7 mm in 0.7 mm tubing
E. Labial bow HSSW 0.7 mm tubing

A

B. Buccal canine retractor HSSW 0.5 mm in 0.5 mm tubing

218
Q

When positioning a patient for an upper anterior oblique occlusal radiograph, which external line or plane is used to assess the occlusal plane?
A. Frankfort Plane
B. Ala-tragus line
C. Corner of mouth-tragus line
D. Interpupillary line
E. Corner of mouth-angle of mandible

A

Ala tragus line

219
Q

Dose reduction in intra-oral radiography is best achieved by which combination?
A. Circular collimation, E speed film
B. Circular collimation, F speed film
C. Rectangular collimation, D speed film
D. Rectangular collimation, E speed film
E. Rectangular collimation, F speed film

A

Rectangular
F speed

220
Q

Diabetes is a common disorder in the elderly. Complications of this condition may lead to difficulty in independent living. The complication most likely to produce this issue is:
A. Glove and stocking sensory loss
B. Atherosclerosis
C. Renal failure
D. Poor wound healing
E. Maculopathy

A

Maculopathy

221
Q

Patients with significant oral ulceration may have an underlying anaemia. The medical problem most likely to produce this problem in a 45 year old male is:
A. Peptic ulcer disease
B. Asthma
C. Renal transplantation
D. Coeliac disease
E. Colon cancer

A

Peptic ulcer disease

222
Q

The retruded axis (centric relation):
A. Is dependent upon the relationship of the teeth
B. Occurs with the mandible in its most protruded position
C. Is a dynamic relationship during which the mandible opens and closes on a reproducible hinge axis
D. Is a non-border movement
E. Is a position that can always be achieved unaided by the patient

A

C. Is a dynamic relationship during which the mandible opens and closes on a reproducible hinge axis

223
Q

With relation to shade prescription for an indirect tooth-coloured restoration the term “Chroma” refers to which element of the restoration’s colour?
A. Lightness
B. The intensity of the colour
C. The actual colour
D. Tone

A

Intensity of colour

224
Q

You performed an extraction 3 hours earlier on a fit and healthy patient. The patient has returned to the surgery, complaining of bleeding from the extraction site. What is your preferred immediate management?
A. Lie the patient flat
B. Pack the socket with Alvogyl
C. Loosen the patient’s tight clothing
D. Get the patient to bite on a gauze pack
E. Take the patient’s blood pressure

A

Get the patient to bite on a gauze pack

225
Q

Under conditions of high sugar supply, which of the following are preferably formed under anaerobic conditions?
A. Acetate
B. Ethanol
C. Lactate
D. Acetaldehyde
E. Butyrate

A

Lactate

226
Q

Facultative anaerobes:
A. Grow in the presence of oxygen only
B. Grow in the presence of carbon dioxide only
C. Grow in the presence or absence of oxygen
D. Grow in the presence or absence of carbon dioxide
E. Grow under any atmospheric conditions

A

Grow in presence or absence of oxygen

227
Q

Following restoration of a single tooth under local anaesthesia, what is the most appropriate to determine suitable occlusal contacts?

A

Use thin articulating paper

228
Q

The zygomatic process of the maxilla is partly seen as a vertical radiopaque line on a panoramic radiograph. With which bony margin of the maxillary sinus can it be confused?

A

Posterior

229
Q

Synthesis of extracellular polysaccharide in plaque formation is greatest when which one of the following sugars is present within the diet?
A. Glucose
B. Mannose
C. Fructose
D. Sucrose
E. Xylitol

A

Sucrose

230
Q

Which of the following describes the endodontic file movement when performing “Balanced Force” instrumentation as described by Roane?
A. A 60o turn clockwise followed by a 60o turn anticlockwise, repeated
B. A 90o turn clockwise followed by a 180o turn anticlockwise, repeated
C. A 120o turn clockwise followed by a 180o turn anticlockwise, repeated
D. A 60o turn clockwise followed by a 120o turn anticlockwise, repeated
E. A 90o turn clockwise followed by a 90o turn anticlockwise, repeated

A

B a 90degree turn clockwise followed by a 180degree turn anticlockwise, repeated

231
Q

In root canal treatment, what is the recommended shape for the access cavity for maxillary and mandibular premolars?
A. Triangular
B. Ovoid
C. Round
D. Oblong
E. Trapezoid

A

Oblong

232
Q

Bilateral ankle swelling that worsens as the day progresses would suggest that the patient has:
A. Atrial fibrillation
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Left heart failure
D. Congestive heart failure
E. Hyperproteinaemia

A

Congestive heart failure

233
Q

Liver cirrhosis is best characterised by:
A. Hepatitis C infection
B. Liver cell destruction
C. Disorganised liver repair
D. Enhanced drug metabolism
E. Enhanced gall stone formation

A

Disorganised liver repair

234
Q

A fast irregular pulse in a patient who is suddenly acutely breathless would suggest:
A. Atrial fibrillation
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Left heart failure
D. Congestive heart failure
E. Hyperproteinaemia

A

Atrial fibrillation

235
Q

Persistent lip swelling and recurrent oral ulceration could be a feature of:
A. Peptic ulcer disease
B. Ulcerative colitis
C. Coeliac disease
D. Crohn’s disease
E. Diverticulitis

A

Crohn’s disease

236
Q

What strength of once daily Fluoride mouthwash would you recommend for a nine-year-old child?
A. 100 ppm
B. 225 ppm
C. 250 ppm
D. 500 ppm
E. 650 ppm

A

225ppm

237
Q

What would be the most appropriate post-surgical advice to give to a patient who has just had a tooth extraction?
A. Start rinsing as soon as possible with warm salty water
B. Smoking has no significant effect on the healing
C. Avoid eating until the effect of the anaesthetic has worn off
D. Pain killers will not be required
E. Heavy manual work can be performed on the day

A

Avoid eating until the anaesthetic has worn off

238
Q

Which of the following pairs of muscles is particularly important in retaining dentures in their correct position?
A. Buccinator and masseter
B. Buccinator and mylohyoid
C. Buccinator and orbicularis oris
D. Digastric and genioglossus
E. Hyoglossus and mylohyoid

A

Buccinator and orbicularis oris

239
Q

When planning the construction of a bridge, the purpose of a face-bow is?
A. To record the relationship of the upper arch to the lower arch
B. To record the relationship of the upper arch to the mandibular condyles
C. To record the relationship of the lower arch to the mandibular condyles
D. To enable lateral and protrusive movements to be visualised
E. To ensure that the cusp inclines on the restoration are correct

A

Relationship of the upper arch to the mandibular condyles

240
Q

Which if the following materials has the best mechanical properties for the restoration of occlusal surfaces?
A. Amalgam
B. Composite
C. Glass Ionomer
D. Porcelain
E. Gold

A

Gold

241
Q

In dental panoramic radiography horizontal magnification of all the anterior teeth will be caused by which patient positioning error:
A. The patient is too far forward in the machine (closer to the cassette)
B. The patient’s chin is tilted up
C. The patient’s chin is tilted down
D. The patient is rotated
E. The patient is too far back in the machine (closer to the X-ray source)

A

The patient is too far back in the machine

242
Q

With regard to the intra-oral X-ray film and film packet which of the following statements is true?:
A. The white side of the film packet always faces away from the x-ray tube-head
B. The film has an embossed dot on it which faces towards the X-ray source
C. Lead foil is present in the film packet to prevent x-rays exposing the film
D. The film has emulsion on one side only
E. The film packet contains black paper to protect the film from scattered x-rays

A

the film has an embossed dot which faces towards the Xray source

243
Q

Select the correct statement about facial development
-Neurocranium covers the vault and viscerum the face
-Vault is produced by endochondral ossification
-Meckels and nasal cartilage are secondary cartilages
-Mandible and maxilla produced by endochondral ossification
-Ossification of skull begins at week 8-9

A

Neurocranium covers the vault and viscerum the face

244
Q

How many number of buccal planes for an upper central crown
1
2
3
4

A

1 buccal plane

245
Q

Upper lateral incisor where does it drain
-Palatal
-Infraorbital
-Buccal

A

Palatal

246
Q

A cut to the deep part of the body of mandible has occurred. Which of the following tests would you carry out
-Whistle
-Protrude tongue
-Sensation of the face

A

Senation of the face

247
Q

Damage to Inferior alveolar nerve on extraction of lower 3rd molar is
<1%
1-10%
10-20%
20-30%

A

1-10%

248
Q

Vertical relationship of the teeth to the condyle and the movement of the condyle forward

A

Sagittal condylar guidance angle

249
Q

What is porcelains brittle strength
-0.1
-0.5
-1
-1.5
-2

A

0.1

250
Q

Which syndrome is characterised by shallow orbits, Class III malocclusion and vertical shortening of midface

A

Crouzon’s

251
Q

For extraoral radiographs, such as panoramic radiographs, the beam aiming device should be positioned
-Less than 1cm from skin
-1-2cm from skin
-More than 2cm from skin

A

1-2cm

252
Q

How much of a retained root can be left safely in the socket of a patient
1mm
2mm
3mm
5mm
7mm

A

3mm

253
Q

What fluoride tablet concentration would you give a 1 year old with high caries risk

A

0.25mg/day

254
Q

What is a denture bearing area in the mandible
Buccal shelf
Genial tubercle
Mandibular torus
Mylohyoid ridge
Retromolar pads

A

Buccal shelf
(and residual alveolar ridge are the only 2 denture bearing areas)

255
Q

Rate of edentulous people are
-increasing in all age groups
-decreasing in all age groups
-staying the same in all age groups
-are expected to rise in the elderly
-are expected to rise in the younger population

A

Decreasing in all age groups

256
Q

Pattern of caries risk in children is
-decreasing in all areas
-decreasing in some areas
-increasing in areas with poverty and lack of education
-decreasing in deprived areas
-increasing in areas where dental care is hard to access

A

Decreasing in all areas

257
Q

What is the best way to identify a patient arriving at radiology
-Get them to tell you their details
-Check their identification
-Ask them to confirm details that you read out loud

A

Get them to tell you their details

258
Q

What is the most appropriate study type to find the incidence in implant failure in smokers
-Case control
-Cohort
-Cross sectional
-RCT
-Systemic review RCT

A

Cohort

259
Q

What is the most appropriate study type to find the prevalence of disease in a population
-Case control
-Cohort
-Cross sectional
-RCT
-Systemic review RCT

A

Cross sectional

260
Q

What is the best way to provide evidence of the treatment of a disease
-Case control
-Cohort
-Cross sectional
-RCT
-Systemic review RCT

A

RCT

261
Q

Why do randomized controlled trials randomly assign patients to the different interventions rather than letting the patients choose which intervention they prefer also known as blinding?

A

To avoid bias

262
Q

While extracting a upper 8 the maxillary tuberosity fractures. What is the best course of action
-Surgically extract the 8 then splint for 8 weeks
-Splint for 4 weeks then surgically extract the 8
-Splint for 8 weeks then surgically extract the 8
-Surgically extract the 8 then splint for 4 weeks
-Remove the fractured tuberosity fragment and the 8

A

Splint for 8 weeks then surgically extract the 8

263
Q

Probing depth for BPE 3

A

3.5-5.5mm

264
Q

What pocket depth in teens can indicate early periodontitis
-1mm
-2mm
-0.5mm
-3mm

A

1mm

265
Q

How do you determine the anteroposterior skeletal relationship in a patient

A

Visual assessment
Palpate skeletal bases

266
Q

What type of etch is used for paediatric fissure sealant placement?

A

38% phosphoric acid

267
Q

What type of etch is used for paediatric fissure sealant placement?

A

38% phosphoric acid

268
Q

Which sugar produces glucans?

A

Sucrose

269
Q

What should be the minimum thickness of aluminium on Xray filtration for 70kV?

A

2.5mm

270
Q

When would you use micro abrasion as a form of tooth whitening
-tetracycline brown stain
-tetracycline grey stain
-Poryphyria
-To remove demineralisation once fixed orthodontic appliance removed

A

To remove demineralisation once fixed ortho appliance removed

271
Q

Trauma has occurred to primary central incisor, which of the following is NOT appropriate
-Replant and splint
-Soft diet advice
-Review monthly until permanent successor erupts
-Do not brush area until soft tissue heals

A

Replant and splint

272
Q

What does R in ARAB (ortho) stand for?

A

Retention

273
Q

Difference between alginate and elastomers

A

Contact angle is higher in alginate

274
Q

Which type of LA should be avoided for pregnant patients?

A

Citanest + felypressin
(octapressin)

275
Q

Where is the extra canal in upper first molar?

A

Mesiobuccal root

276
Q

What is the general virulence factor for all periodontal disease?

A

Endotoxin

277
Q

Lying patient back in the chair makes them lightheaded, what is the cause?

A

Decreased baroreceptor

278
Q

The term ‘Boxing-in’ refers to:
a. a method of preserving the outline and functional integrity of primary and definitive casts
b. a method of preserving the outline of definitive casts
c. a method of preserving the outline of primary casts
d. a method of preserving the functional width and depth of the vestibular sulcus using rubber moulds
e. a method of preserving the functional width and depth of the vestibular sulcus

A

A method of preserving the functional width and depth of the vestibular sulcus using rubber moulds

279
Q

Where should the post dam be cut for a maxillary denture
a. Approximately 2mm distal to the palatine fovea on the definitive cast
b. Approximately 2mm in anterior to the palatine fovea on the definitive cast
c. On the soft palate distal to the hard palate to provide compression of the soft tissue
d. On the compressible tissue at the distal of the hard palate indicated by the vibrating line
e. At the junction of the hard and soft palate indicated by the vibrating line on the definitive cast

A

At the junction of the hard and soft palate indicated by the vibrating line on the definitive cast

280
Q

The purpose of the split-cast technique used when mounting casts on an articulator is to check the occlusal vertical dimension following processing of the denture.
a. False, as this technique is only used when a facebow has not been used to mount casts
b. True, when casts have locations and the occlusal vertical dimension is recorded
c. . False, since the incisal post indicates the occlusal vertical dimension
d. True when the incisal post is located on the incisal table.
e. True, when casts have appropriate locations grooves cut in the base.

A

True, when casts have locations and the occlusal vertical dimension is recorded

281
Q

When prescribing special trays for complete dentures which statement is the most appropriate?
a. Edentulous trays with perforations for complete dentures enable a more through decontamination process.
b. Edentulous trays without perforations for complete dentures enable a more secure retention for the impression material.
c. Edentulous trays with perforations for complete dentures enable a more secure retention for the impression material.
d. Edentulous trays without perforations are stronger that perforated trays.
e. Edentulous trays without perforations for complete dentures assist in estimating a peripheral seal.

A

Edentulous trays without perforations for complete dentures enable a more secure retention for the impression material

282
Q

If the occlusal vertical dimension is reduced by 2mm, what effect might this have for the complete dentures?
a. It will reduce the free-way space
b. No effect if the teeth used are set in balanced occlusion
c. It will increase the free-way space
d. The resting face height will be increased
e. The resting face height will be decreased

A

It will increase free way space

283
Q

When considering the design of special trays which of the following statements is most applicable?
a. The depth of a special tray should be to the depth of the primary cast vestibular sulcus when an alginate impression or composition primary impression was used.
b. The width of special trays depends on the type of material used.
c. The width of a special tray is determined by the using greenstick impression compound when making a definitive impression.
d. The width of a special tray should be approximately 3mm from vestibular sulcus depth when making a definitive impression.
e. The depth of the tray should be approximately 3mm from the crest of the alveolar ridge.

A

The width of a special tray should be approximately 3mm from vestibular sulcus depth when making a definitive impression

284
Q

In a monoplane occlusal scheme the posterior teeth are set?
a. with a compensating curve in harmony with the condylar guidance angle
b. to eliminate the effect of Christensen’s phenomena
c. in a cusp to fossa relationship.
d. with a compensating curve in harmony with the cusp angle
e. in a cusp to marginal ridge relationship

A

In a cusp to fossa relationship

285
Q

The purpose of the stub tray handle is:
a. To enable the correct positioning of the tray on the alveolar ridges.
b. To enable manipulation of the soft tissues in the anterior region.
c. To enable the insertion and removal of the tray.
d. To enable the correct location of the incisive papilla in relation to the alveolar ridge.
e. To enable the handle to rest on the opposing alveolar ridge while the impression material sets

A

To enable insertion and removal of the tray

286
Q

When setting artificial teeth which cusp on the maxillary first molar occludes with the central fossa of the mandibular first molar in a class I relationship?
a. mesial - buccal
b. mesial - palatal
c. distal - buccal
d. The second premolar occludes with the mandibular first molar
e. distal - palatal

A

Mesial palatal

287
Q

What is the ‘Neutral Zone’?
a. The space between the OVD and resting face height
b. The space between the canine teeth and lips when smiling
c. The space between the anterior teeth in balanced occlusion
d. The space between the vestibular sulcus of the maxilla and mandible
e. The space between the muscles of the lips, cheeks and tongue

A

The space between the muscles of the lips cheeks and tongue

288
Q

When mounting casts using an arbitrary mounting technique, how should the casts be positioned on the articulator?
a. The occlusal plane is parallel to Camper’s plane.
b. The occlusal plane is set to an equilateral triangle with the condylar spheres
c. The occlusal plane is parallel to the Frankfurt plane.
d. The occlusal plane is set at 10 degrees to the condylar guidance angle.
e. The occlusal plane is set to a horizontal position

A

The occlusal plane is set to a horizontal position

289
Q

What nerves are anaesthetised when an upper canine tooth is extracted?
A. Inferior alveolar and long buccal nerve
B. Nasopalatine & greater palatine nerves, anterior & middle superior alveolar nerves, infraorbital nerve
C. Long buccal nerve and mental nerve
D. Nasopalatine nerve and infraorbital nerve
E. Lingual nerve and nerve to mylohyoid

A

Nasopalatine and greater palatine, anterior and middle superior alveolare nerves, infraorbital nerve

290
Q

In a patient with excellent plaque control, application of an intermittent non-axial occlusal force to a tooth may give rise to:
A. Gingivitis but no loss of attachment
B. Loss of attachment but no gingival inflammation
C. Both gingivitis and loss of attachment
D. Widening of the periodontal ligament and increased mobility
E. Narrowing of the periodontal ligament and decreased mobility

A

Widening of the PDL and increaed mobility

291
Q

Which of the following is not an oral biofilm infection?
A. Endodontic infection
B. Oesophageal candidosis
C. Thrush
D. Periodontal infection
E. Oral malodour

A

Oesophageal candidosis

292
Q

A patient in anaphylaxis has developed sudden obstruction of the upper larynx. At which of the following sites is an emergency airway needle best inserted?
A. At the level of the second, third and fourth tracheal rings
B. Between the cricoid cartilage and the first tracheal ring
C. Between the hyoid bone and the thyroid cartilage
D. Between the thyroid and cricoid cartilages
E. Superior to the hyoid bone

A

Between the thyroid and cricoid cartilages

293
Q

A facebow registration
-Transfers the relationship between the maxillary teeth and the axis of the mandibular rotation
-Transfers the relationship between the mandibular teeth and the axis of mandibular rotation
-Is used to mount the lower cast
-Registers the relationship between the upper and lower teeth
-Registers the position of the mandible in protrusion

A

Transfers the relationship between the maxillary teeth and the axis of mandibular rotation

294
Q

Which of the following is one function of a facebow
-Mounting of lower cast
-registration of the interocclusal relationship
-setting the condylar guidance angles
-setting the inter-condylar distance
-transferring the angle of the occlusal plane relative to a horizontal reference plane

A

Transferring the angle of the occlusal plane relative to a horizontal reference plane

295
Q

Through careful design of occlusal surfaces the property of occlusal forces the dentist is most able to influence is
-direction
-duration
-frequency
-velocity
-magnitude

A

Direction

296
Q

The principle radiographic sign of occlusal trauma is
-horizontal bone loss
-vertical bone loss
-root fracture
-generalised widening of the PDL space
-condensing osteitis

A

Generalised widening of the PDL

297
Q

When viewed from the lateral aspect, the downward movement of the condyle during protrusion forms an angle to the horizontal plane known as
-the horizontal condylar guidance angle
-the bennet angle
-the saggital condylar guidance angle
-side shift
-the frankfort angle

A

Saggital condylar guidance angle

298
Q

In relation to complete dentures, one of the principal objectives of the jaw registration is
-to determine the intermaxillary relationship in the retruded contact position
-to determine the intermaxillary relationship in the resting face height
-to transfer the mandibular plane
-to determine the intermaxillary relationship in the intercuspal position
-to record freeway space

A

To determine the intermaxillary relationship in the retruded contact position

299
Q

In the intercuspal position, ideally:
-the incisors should meet edge to edge
-the tips of the buccal cusps of the upper posterior teeth should occlude with the occlusal surfaces of the lower posterior teeth
-the tips of the palatal cusps of the upper posterior teeth should occlude with the occlusal surfaces of the lower posterior teeth
-the tips of the lingual cusps of the lower posterior teeth should occlude with the marginal ridges of the opposing teeth
-the tips of the lingual cusps of the lower posterior teeth should occlude with the fossae of the opposing teeth

A

the tips of the palatal cusps of the upper posterior teeth should occlude with the occlusal surfaces of the lower posterior teeth

300
Q

Why is it possible that ‘neglect of neglect’ might occur?
a. Because neglect is rare
b. Because neglect is less incident focused
c. Because children don’t die from neglect
d. Because neglect does not damage children

A

Because neglect is less incident focussed

301
Q

How many children in Scotland are killed by a parent/ parent substitute?
a. 80 per month
b. 10 per year
c. 1 - 2 per week
d. 52 per year

A

10 per year

302
Q

Which of the following are the biggest three parenting capacity concerns that are contributing factors in child abuse/neglect cases?
a. Poverty, mental health problems, unemployment
b. Domestic violence, drug/ alcohol misuse, poverty
c. Step parents, drug/ alcohol misuse, mental health problems
d. Domestic violence, drug/ alcohol misuse, mental health problems

A

Domestic violence, drug/alcohol misuse, mental health problems

303
Q

Which of the following is the accepted definition of child protection?
a. Activity undertaken to protect specific children who are suffering or are at risk of suffering significant harm
b. Ensuring children grow up in a safe and caring environment.
c. Measures taken to minimise the risk of harm to children
d. Preventing the impairment of children’s health

A

Activity undertaken to protect specific children who are suffering or are at risk of suffering significant harm

304
Q

Which of the following do dental professionals who are registered with the general dental Council NOT have a responsibility of doing?
a. Raise concerns about the possible abuse or neglect of children
b. Know how to refer concerns about abuse or neglect.
c. Know who to contact for further advice about abuse or neglect of children.
d. Diagnose abuse or neglect in children

A

Diagnose abuse or neglect in children

305
Q

Standard prevention for All children includes the following:
1. Sodium fluoride varnish (3%) twice a year to ALL children over 2 years of age
2. Sodium fluoride varnish (5%) twice a year to ALL children over 4 years of age
3. Sodium fluoride varnish (5%) twice a year to ALL children over 3 years of age
4. Sodium fluoride varnish (5%) twice a year to ALL children over 2 years of age

A

Sodium fluoride varnish (5%) twice a year to all children over 2 years of age

306
Q

Enhanced prevention includes fissure sealant of the following tooth and surface if assessed as likely to be beneficial:
a. Cs cusp tip
b. 2’s palatal pits
c. Third permanent molar
d. As & Bs palatal pit

A

2s palatal pits

307
Q

Enhanced prevention for children at increased risk of caries should include the following dietary actions:
1. Patients only may require more-in-depth support to change dietary habits, such as motivational interviewing
2. Carer only may require more-in-depth support to change dietary habits, such as motivational interviewing
3. Utilise community/home support for dietary change that is available locally
4. Patients and parent/carer only may require more-in-depth support to change dietary habits, such as motivational interviewing

A

Patients and parent/carer only may require more in depth support to change dietary habits such as motivational interviewing

308
Q

Standard prevention for all children should include the following at least once per year:
1. Restricting sugar containing food and drinks x4 per day and drink only flavoured water or milk between meals
2. Restricting sugar containing food and drinks x3 per day and drink only water or milk between meals
3. Snack on sugar free foods such as digestive biscuits and be aware of hidden sugars in foods
4. Snack on sugar free foods such as oatcakes and be aware if acid content of drinks

A

Snack on sugar free foods such as oatcakes and be aware of acid content in drinks

309
Q

Enhanced prevention for children at increased risk of caries should include the following at each recall visit:
1. Standard prevention and hands on toothbrushing to child only at each recall visit
2. Standard prevention and 1350-1500 ppmF advice for children up to 9 years old
3. Standard prevention and 2800 ppmF advice for children aged 9-16 years old
4. Standard prevention and hands on toothbrushing to child and parent/carer at each recall visit

A

Standard prevention and hands on toothbrushing to child and parent/carer at each recall visit

310
Q

When can a child carry out unsupervised toothbrushing?

A

6 years old

311
Q

Standard prevention for all children includes the following at least once a year:
1. Toothbrushing demonstration on the child and age appropriate toothpaste advice
2. Spit, don’t rinse and information on supervision of their brushing habits until age nine years old
3. Brush thoroughly twice daily, including first thing in the morning and appropriate amount of toothpaste
4. Information on supervision of their brushing habits until age nine years old and spit, don’t rinse

A

Toothbrushing demo on the child and age appropriate toothpaste advice

312
Q

Motivational Interviewing is used to translate knowledge into behaviour change, this process involves:
1. Seek permission, Open Questions, Affirmations, Reflective learning, Summarising
2. Self permission, Open Questions, Affirmations, Reflective listening, Summarising
3. Seek permission, Open Questions, Affirmations, Reflective listening, Summarising
4. Self permission, Open Questions, Affirmations, Reflective listening, Summarising

A

Seek permission, open questions, affirmations, reflective listening, summarising

313
Q

When assessing toothbrushing and recording visible plaque levels at each examination, a score of eight out of ten indicates:
Select one:
1. Perfectly clean tooth
2. Plaque line around the cervical margin
3. Cervical third of the crown covered
4. Middle third covered

A

Plaque line around the cervical margin

314
Q

At what age can mouthwash be used?

A

From 6

315
Q

The broad contact points of the primary dentition make diagnosis of proximal caries difficult using clinical examination alone.At what age should bitewing radiographs start to be taken as an adjunct to visual diagnosis?
Select one:
1. Age three and above
2. Age four and above
3. Age five and above
4. Age six and above

A

Age 4 and above

316
Q

An assessment of lesion activity is essential for providing the appropriate level of caries prevention this includes:
Select one:
1. On one occasion using clinical assessment
2. On one occasion using radiographic assessment
3. Progression over time using clinical photographs
4. Using lesion colour as an indicator

A

Progression over time using clinical photographs

317
Q

During mastication, whilst chewing on the left molar teeth:
-The left side is the non working side
-There is bilateral downwards and forwards movement of the condylar heads
-The right condylar head rotates about a vertical axis but does not move forwards onto the articular tubercle
-The right condylar head moves downwards, forwards and medially
-It is preferable for the mandible to be guided back into the intercuspal position by contact of as many teeth as possible

A

The right condylar head moves downwards, forwards and medially

318
Q

Which articulator is suitable for use when constructing complete dentures?
-simple hinge
-fixed condylar
-semi-adjustable
-fully adjustable
-all of the above

A

All of the above

319
Q

What is Christensen’s phenomenon?
-A gap that appears between posterior ends of opposing flat occlusal rims when mandible is protruded
-A gap that appears in the natural dentition between posterior teeth when the mandible is protruded
-A gap that appears between anterior ends of opposing flat occlusal rims when the mandible is protruded
-A gap that appears in the natural dentition between anterior teeth when the mandible is protruded
-A gap that appears in between posterior teeth in the retruded contact position

A

A gap that appears between posterior ends of opposing flat occlusal rims when mandible is protruded

320
Q

Which of the following is the most unlikely to be a consequence of adverse occlusal forces?
-Fractured cusp
-Attrition
-Dislodged restorations
-Chronic periodontitis
-Increase tooth mobility

A

Chronic periodontitis

321
Q

During closure along the retruded axis, the point at which the teeth contact is called
-the intercuspal position
-the retruded contact position
-centric relation
-the rest position
-the habitual position

A

The retruded contact position

322
Q

During lateral excursion the predominant movement of the working condyle is
-Forward translation
-Medial translation
-Rotation about a vertical axis
-Rotation about a horizontal axis
-Vertical movement away from the fossa

A

Rotation about a vertical axis

323
Q

The retruded axis is a mandibular position dependent on the presence of teeth
-True
-False

A

False

324
Q

The retruded axis is a border movement
-True
-False

A

T

325
Q

When the condylar heads are in their most superior position within the mandibular fossa the mandible is in protrusion
-True
-False

A

F

326
Q

At the end of the chewing cycle the mandible aims for the intercuspal position
-True
-False

A

T

327
Q

Forces on teeth are greater during parafunction than function
-True
-False

A

T

328
Q

In canine guidance there should be some contact between teeth on the non working side
-True
-False

A

F

329
Q

Anchorage may be reinforced by:
-Using thinner archwires on fixed appliances
-Using a transpalatal arch with a fixed appliance
-Using thicker wire to construct springs on a removable appliance
-Increasing the number of teeth which require tipping movements
-Decreasing the number of teeth in the anchor unit

A

Using a transpalatal arch with a fixed appliance

330
Q

Fixed appliances are efficient at
-Correcting vertical skeletal discrepancies
-Correcting anterior crossbites
-Correct multiple tooth malpositions
-Treating malocclusions in the early mixed dentition
-Treating moderate to severe sagittal skeletal discrepancies

A

Correcting multiple tooth malpositions

331
Q

Functional appliances are mainly used to
-Treat long face syndromes
-Correct the sagittal discrepancy in class II division 1 cases
-Correct multiple tooth malpositions
-Treat adults with no growth potential
-Correct the sagittal discrepancy in class I cases

A

Correct the sagittal discrepancy in class II div 1 cases

332
Q

Removeable appliances are effective at
-Torquing roots
-Extruding teeth
-Correcting rotations
-Moving teeth bodily
-Tipping teeth

A

Tipping teeth

333
Q

Removable appliances are useful for:
-Retraction of canines using bodily movement
-Correction of underbites
-Correction of rotations
-Maintaining space
-Increasing overbites

A

Maintaining space

334
Q

Which of the following may be used to assess the antero-posterior skeletal pattern clinically
-molar relationship
-mandibular unit length
-incisor relationship (BSI)
-maxillo-mandibular planes angle (MMPA)
-Palpation of the skeletal bases

A

Palpation of the skeletal bases

335
Q

Which of the following would represent moderate crowding
-4mm-8mm
-2mm-6mm
-8mm-10mm
-3mm-5mm
-0mm-4mm

A

4-8mm

336
Q

What is the definition of a class II division 1 incisor relationship
-The lower incisor edges lie posterior to the cingulum plateau of the upper incisors, there is an increased overjet and the incisors are usually proclined
-The lower incisor edges lie posterior to the cingulum plateau of the upper incisors, there is a decreased overjet and the incisors are usually retroclined
-The lower incisor edges lie posterior to the cingulum plateau of the upper incisors, there is a decreased overjet and the incisors are usually proclined
-The lower incisor edges lie posterior to the cingulum plateau of the upper incisors, there is a increased overjet and the incisors are usually retroclined

A

Lower incisor edges lie posterior to the cingulum plateau of the upper incisors, there is an increased overjet and the incisors are usually proclined

337
Q

Which of the following can be used to assess the vertical skeletal pattern clinically
-Frankfort-maxillary planes angle (FMxPA)
-Total anterior face height/upper anterior face height x 100
-Lower anterior face height/upper anterior face height x 100
-The Frankfort Mandibular Planes Angle (FMPA)
-Lower anterior face height + upper anterior face height x 100

A

Frankfort mandibular planes angle FMPA

338
Q

The histological response for ‘light forces’ generated during orthodontic treatment include which of the following
-Apposition of osteoid on pressure side (osteoblasts)
-Resorption of the lamina dura from tension side (osteoclasts)
-Frontal resorption
-Undermining resorption
-Occlusion of nerves of periodontal ligament on pressure side

A

Frontal resorption

339
Q

How much force is required to tip a tooth
90-120 grams (mN)
65-90 grams (mN)
120-135 grams (mN)
35-60 grams (mN)
10-35 grams (mN)

A

35-60grams (mN)

340
Q

Which conditions are thought to produce optimal orthodontic tooth movement
-Heavy continuous forces
-Light intermittent forces
-Light continuous forces
-Heavy alternating with light forces, duration doesn’t matter
-Heavy intermittent forces

A

Light continuous forces

341
Q

Which of the following are the deleterious effects of orthodontic treatment?
-Immediate pain
-Ankylosis
-Increased deposition of secondary dentine
-Root resorption
-Loss of sensitivity

A

Root resorption

342
Q

What is the average optimal rate of tooth movement
-1.5mm a month
-1.7mm a month
-2.0mm a month
-0.5mm a month
-1.0mm a month

A

1.0mm a month

343
Q

The meaning of the term ‘anchorage’ is
-resistance to removal of the appliance
-resistance to the force exerted by the retentive component
-resistance to unwanted mesial drift
-resistance to unwanted tooth movement
-resistance to over-eruption of the teeth in contact with an upper removable appliance

A

Resistance to unwanted tooth movement

344
Q

Anterior bite planes are used for
-Reducing overjet
-Reducing overbite
-Protecting brackets of fixed appliance on upper incisors from the occlusal force of lower incisors
-Can be used in adults
-Facilitating correction of an anterior crossbite

A

Reducing overbite

345
Q

An Adams clasp is formed of:
-0.6mm Hard SS wire
-0.5mm Hard SS wire
-0.7mm Hard SS wire
-0.8mm Hard SS wire
-0.9mm Hard SS wire

A

0.7 HSSW

346
Q

The standard temperature banding for steam sterilisation is
a. 115 - 118
b. 121- 124
c. 137 - 139
d. 134 - 137
e. 122 - 126

A

134-137

347
Q

If chemical residue was being removed from the instrumentation, what stage would the washer-disinfector be at
a. Rinse
b. Detergent wash
c. Prewash
d. Disinfection
e. Disinfection rinse
f. Flush
g. Wash
h. Drying

A

Rinse

348
Q

Put these in order
Wash
Disinfection
Rinse
Drying
Flush

A

Flush (lowest temp)
Wash (2nd lowest temp)
Rinse (lowest temp, most time)
Disinfection (highest temp)
Drying (high temp, least time)

349
Q

A Bowie-Dick is carried out a daily basis, What is it testing for
a. Steam penetration
b. Air removal
c. Temperature
d. Steam dryness
e. Presence of air

A

Steam penetration

350
Q

What colour does the transport box for contaminated instruments have to be
a. Red
b. Green
c. Blue
d. Doesn’t matter as long as it is easily distinguishable
e. Yellow

A

Doesn’t matter as long as it is easily distinguishable

351
Q

Any kind of instrumentation can be processed in a Type - N steriliser
True
False

A

F

352
Q

The first stage of a vacuum capable or Type - B steriliser is
a. Steam penetration
b. Heat up
c. Negative pulsing
d. Air removal
e. Positive pulsing
f. Equilibration

A

Air removal

353
Q

What chemical would I use within an Ultrasonic Bath
a. Low alkaline
b. Enzymatic
c. pH neutral
d. Detergent
e. High alkaline

A

Enzymatic

354
Q

What one of the following can I process wrapped instrumentation through
a. Type - S
b. Type - N
c. Type - D
d. Type - A
e. Type - B

A

Type B

355
Q

What is the recommended PPE for manually washing instruments
Select one:
a. gown, visor mask, gloves
b. apron, gown, heavy duty gloves, mask
c. apron, heavy duty gloves, visor
d. mask, gown, heavy duty gloves
e. apron, gloves, visor, mask

A

Apron, heavy duty gloves, visor

356
Q

The standard disinfection temperature banding within our washer-disinfector is
a. 85 - 90
b. 90 - 95
c. 80 - 85
d. 65 - 75
e. 75 - 85

A

90-95

357
Q

Which method of fluoride delivery does the patient not administer?
A. Fluoride toothpaste
B. Fluoride supplements
C. Fluoride varnish
D. Fluoride mouthrinse

A

FV

358
Q

When reading clinical guidelines what does the strength of a strong key recommendation convey?
Select one:
1. Based on available information, weighing up balance of benefit versus risk, almost all individuals would choose this option.
2. Based on available information, weighing up balance of benefit versus risk, the majority of individuals would choose this option.
3. Based on available information, weighing up a finer balance of benefit versus risk, not all individuals would choose this option.
4. Based on available information, weighing up a finer balance of benefit versus risk, some individuals would choose this option

A

. Based on available information, weighing up balance of benefit versus risk, almost all individuals would choose this option.

359
Q

Which of the following is an aim when providing dental care for children:
Select one:
1. To keep the permanent dentition mainly free from disease
2. To reduce the risk of the child experiencing pain, infection or treatment induced anxiety
3. For the child to grow up feeling positive about their oral health but for medical health to be a priority
4. To safeguard dental neglect only and not to consider wellbeing

A

To reduce the risk of the child experiencing pain, infection or treatment induced anxiety

360
Q

A comprehensive assessment of the child does not include the following element for an effective plan to improve oral health:
Select one:
a. Carer Motivation and Responsibility only
b. Patient history
c. Clinical examination
d. Caries Risk Assessment

A

Carer motivation and responsibility only

BDS3 (20 decks)

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