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Medical Laboratory Technician Exam > Tracy's Material Microbiology > Flashcards

Tracy's Material Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

What does beers law state?

A

That the concentration of a substance is directly proportional to the amount of light absorbed

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2
Q

In photometry what do we measure?

A

The amount of light transmitted through a solution in order to determine the concentration of the light absorbing molecules present within

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3
Q

Which of the following extensions enable the bacterial cell to attach to host cells

A

pili

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4
Q

The bacterial cell contains

A

contains DNA in the cytoplasm

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5
Q

The morphology of those bacteria that are round and arranged in pairs is known as:

A

diplococci

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6
Q

True or False: prokaryotes contain a nuclear membrane and 80s ribosomes

A

false

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7
Q

Those bacteria that can use aerobic respiration or fermentative processes for metabolism are categorized as:
a. microaerophiles
b. oblige aerobes
c. obligate anaerobes
d. facultative anaerobes

A

d. facultative anaerobes

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8
Q

Which of the following is a phenotypical characteristic used for classifying bacteria?
a. Staining characteristics
b. Macroscopic morphology
c. Nutritional needs
d. All of these

A

d. all of these

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9
Q

The _____ are important for motility of the bacterial cell

A

flagella

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10
Q

Exotoxins
a. Are only excreted by gram positive bacteria
b. Consist of LPS
c. Can induce fever upon cell lysis
d. May be extracellular enzymes

A

d. May be extracellular enzymes

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11
Q

Microorganisms that are of the same species, but have different physiologic characteristics are known as

A

biotypes

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12
Q

T or F? Gram negative bacteria contain an outer LPS layer of endotoxin, core polysaccharide and antigenic O polysaccharide.

A

True

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13
Q

The _____ is the bacterial component that is antiphagocytic

A

capsule

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14
Q

Those bacteria that are rod shaped are also known as _______.

A

bacilli

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15
Q

Gram-positive bacteria contain ______which are not found in gram-negative bacteria.

A

teichoic acids

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16
Q

T or F? Most cases of pharyngitis are caused by bacteria.

A

False

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17
Q

T or F? If possible, collect the specimen after antibiotics have been initiated.

A

False

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18
Q

A selective agar to isolate stool pathogens such as Salmonella and shigalla, which inhibits normal flora coliforms is

A

Hekton Enteric

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19
Q

what is an example of enriched media?

A

blood agar

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20
Q

The Gram stain of a sputum shows mucus, 30 neutrophils, and 10 squamous epithelial cells per low-power field. The total score using the Bartlett Classification is:
+2
+1
0
-1
None of these is correct

A

+2

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21
Q

During the early part of typhoid fever, the specimen that should be cultured is the___

A

Blood

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22
Q

In general, cotton swabs are preferred for specimen collection. T or F

A

false

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23
Q

_______ wound infections are those that are attributed to an individuals own microbiota.

A

endogenous from indigenous microbiotia

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24
Q

T or F. it is generally recommended to collect a single blood culture specimen to diagnose bacteremia.

A

false

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25
Q

macConkey agar

A

differential ; isolation of gram negative bacilli and identification of lactose fermentation

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26
Q

Sheep blood agar

A

Enriched, nonselective; determination of hemolytic patterns

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27
Q

Thioglycollate broth =

A

growth at different oxygen levels

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28
Q

Xylose-lysine-deoxycholate agar =

A

Isolation and differentiation of stool pathogens through inhibition of normal flora coliforms

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29
Q

Modified thayer martin =

A

isolation of Neisseria gonorrheae

30
Q

Chocolate agar =

A

enriched nonselective isolation of fastidious bacteria

31
Q

Selenite broth =

A

Enrichment broth used to isolate stool pathogens and suppress normal flora coliforms

32
Q

colistin nalidixic acid=

A

Isolation of gram positive bacteria

33
Q

Anaerobic blood agar =

A

Isolation of gram negative and gram positive anaerobes

34
Q

Which of the following is not recommended for the culture of urine because of contamination?
a. Clean catch midstream
b. Catheterized urine
c. Foley catheters
d. Suprapubic aspiration

A

c. foley catheters

35
Q

what is the purpose of crystal violet

A

primary stain

36
Q

what is the purpose of grams iodine

A

mordant

37
Q

what is the purpose of acid alcohol

A

decoloriser

38
Q

what is the purpose of safranin

A

secondary or counter stain

39
Q

While performing the quality control on a gram stain procedure using a control slide of staphylococcus and E. coli, the laboratory professional notices that all of the bacteria are staining pink. This may be due to:
a. Inadequate decolorization
b. Over decolorization
c. Failure to add acid alcohol
d. Failure to add safranin

A

b. over decolorization

40
Q

Neisseria microscopic arragement appears as

A

small diplococci that resemble kidney beans

41
Q

streptococcus pneumonia microscopic arrangement appears

A

diplococci that resemble lancets

42
Q

Which of the following is an example of a fluorescent stain used to stain mycobacteria?

A

Rhodamine-auramine

43
Q

Gram positive bacteria retain the primary stain because of the:
a. High content of peptidoglycan in the cell wall
b. Low content of peptidoglycan in the cell wall
c. High amount of lipopolysaccharide in the cell wall
d. Mycolic acid and waxy compounds in the cell wall

A

a. High content of peptidoglycan in the cell wall

44
Q

Purpose of catalase test

A

differentiate staphylococcus from streptococcus

45
Q

purpose of coagulase test

A

differentiates from staphylococcus aureus from other staphylococci

46
Q

cytochrome oxidase test purpose

A

produced by neisseria and pseudomonas and other oxidative bacilli

47
Q

purpose of spot indole

A

differentiates e coli from other lactose-positive members of enterobacteriacea

48
Q

purpose of PYR

A

differentiates group D enterococcus from non enterococcus

49
Q

Carbohydrate use in the absence of oxygen is known as:
Fermentation
Oxidation
Deamination
Reduction

A

fermentation

50
Q

Which of the following tests would be most helpful in working up gram-positive cocci isolated from a urine culture?
Catalase
Spot indole
Cytochrome oxidase
PYR hydrolysis

A

catalase

51
Q

Current versions of the BACTEC measure ________ to detect positive blood cultures.

A

Fluorometric changes from production of CO2

52
Q

Colonial characteristics that should be examined include:
Size
Pigment
Elevation
All of these are correct

A

all of these are correct

53
Q

True or False? A direct smear from a wound specimen with gram-negative bacilli and neutrophils would correlate with growth on blood agar and CNA

A

false

54
Q

True or False? Some automated identification systems, such as the microscan walkaway, incorporate antibiotic susceptibility testing along with identification of bacteria.

A

true

55
Q

True or False? All automated microbiology analyzers utilize the principle of colorimetry for measurement.

A

false

56
Q

The minimal _______ concentration is the minimal concentration of antibiotic that gives 99.9% killing of the inoculum.

A

bactericidal

57
Q

True or False? When measuring the zones around sulfonamides in disk diffusion susceptibility testing, measure the outer zone of heavy growth.

A

true

58
Q

All of the following antibiotics inhibit cell wall formation, except:
Penicillin
Cephalosporins
Chloramphenicol
Vancomycin

A

chloramphenicol

59
Q

___________ refers to those antibiotics that inhibit the bacterial growth, but require the host immune system to kill the microorganism.

A

bacteriostatic

60
Q

The sulfonamides inhibit bacterial growth by forming folic acid _________. Pg. 119

A

synthesis

61
Q

Because of narrow therapeutic index and toxicity concerns, peak and trough levels must be performed when administering: [hint: overview of antibiotic susceptibility testing]
Vancomycin and amoxicillin
Rifampin and chloramphenicol
Tetracycline and gentamycin
Tobramycin and gentamycin

A

Tobramycin and gentamycin pg. 141

62
Q

True or False? The second generation cephalosporins have primarily a gram-positive spectrum.

A

false

63
Q

Which of the following is correct regarding plasmids?
a. They are dependent on the bacterial chromosome
b. They are also known as transposons (not this one)
c. They can only be transferred between organisms in the same genus
d. They are extrachromosomal DNA associated with virulence and resistance.

A

d. They are extrachromosomal DNA associated with virulence and resistance.

64
Q

In which type of resistance is the antibiotic actively pumped out of the bacterial cell, such that sufficient levels cannot be attained?
Restrictive enzyme channels
Enzyme inactivation
Efflux
Modification of target sites

A

efflux

65
Q

Which of the following is an example of a narrow-spectrum antibiotic that inhibits cell wall formation? (overview of antibiotics susceptibility testing)
Erythromycin
Penicillin G
Tobramycin
Amoxicillin

A

Penicillin G

66
Q

Which of the following is correct regarding vancomycin?
a. It inhibits protein synthesis
b. It has a gram positive spectrum, including MRSA, coagulase-negative staphylococci infections, and Clostridiodes difficile colitis
c. It is effective against anaerobes and intracellular pathogens
d. It inhibits DNA gyrase activity

A

b. It has a gram positive spectrum, including MRSA, coagulase-negative staphylococci infections, and Clostridiodes difficile colitis

67
Q

True or False? An example of intrinsic resistance is the emergence of MRSA.

A

False

68
Q

All of the following antibiotics inhibit protein synthesis, except: (overview of antibiotic susceptibility testing)
Tetracycline
Erythromycin
Cefoxitin
Chloramphenicol

A

Cefoxitin

69
Q

Which of the following is used for systemic antifungal infections?
Isoniazid
Amphotericin B
Nystatin
Zidovudine

A

amphotericin B

70
Q

True or False? Staphylococcus saprophyticus does not grow on mannitol salt agar

A

false pg. 161

71
Q

All of the following virulence factors are associated with staphylococcus aureus EXCEPT:
Enterotoxins
Cytolytic toxins
Cellular components such as protein A
Endotoxins

A

endotoxins

72
Q

which of the following is an opportunistic staphylococcal pathogen that is the etiologic agent in aggressive infections such as bactermeia and endocarditis; produces smooth glossy colonies that may be pigmented cream to yellow-orange; and may be confused with S. aureus because of its production of bound coagulase.
S. saprophyticus
S. lugdunensis
S. schleiferi subsp. Coagulans
S. warneri

A

s. lugdunensis

Medical Laboratory Technician Exam (7 decks)

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