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2a Mocks > PTS Reading Week 2 > Flashcards

PTS Reading Week 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Which TLRs are intracellular?

A

TLR 3,7,8 and 9

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2
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Beta Lactams antibiotics?

A

Inhibit the synthesis of the peptidoglycan layer of bacterial cell walls by binding irreversibly to Penicillin Binding Proteins

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3
Q

Name 4 categories of beta lactam antibiotics

A
  1. Penicillins
  2. Cephalosporins
  3. Carbapenems
  4. Monobactams
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4
Q

Name some penicillins

A
  1. Penicillin
  2. Amoxacillin
  3. Flucloxacillin
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5
Q

Name some cephalosporins

A
  1. Cefotaxime
  2. Ceftriaxone
  3. Cefuroxime
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6
Q

Name some carbapenems

A
  1. Meropenem
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7
Q

What sorts of bacteria are more susceptible to beta lactam antibiotics?

A

Gram positive

Staph & Strep

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8
Q

What is responsible for differences in the spectrum and activity of beta lactams?

A

Their relative affinities for different Penicillin Binding Proteins

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9
Q

What can beta lactams not be used in?

A

Intracellular pathogens

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10
Q

What is the mechanism of action of glyopeptides?

A

Block bacterial cell wall synthesis

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11
Q

Name 2 glyopeptide antibiotics

A
  1. Vancomycin
  2. Teicoplanin
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12
Q

What is the mechanism of action of quinolones?

A

Block DNA replication by inhibiting DNA gyrase

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13
Q

Name some quinolones

A
  1. Ciprofloxacin
  2. Levofloxacin
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14
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Metronidazole?

A

Causes a loss of helical DNA structure and strand breakage, and disrupts protein synthesis

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15
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Rifampicin?

A

Inhibits RNA polymerase

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16
Q

What is the mechanism of action of macrolides?

A

Bind to the 50S subunit of the ribosome and inhibit protein transcription

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17
Q

Name some macrolides

A
  1. Clarithromycin
  2. Azithromycin
  3. Erythromycin
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18
Q

What is the mechanism of action of aminoglycosides?

A

Bind to the 30S subunit of the ribosome and inhibit protein transcription

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19
Q

Name an aminoglycoside

A
  1. Gentamicin
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20
Q

What is the mechanism of action of lincosamides?

A

Bind to the 50S subunit of the ribosome and inhibit protein transcription

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21
Q

Name a lincosamide

A
  1. Clindamycin
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22
Q

What is the mechanism of action of tetracyclines?

A

Bind to the 30S subunit of the ribosome and inhibit protein transcription

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23
Q

Name a tetracycline

A

Doxycycline

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24
Q

What is the mechanism of action of streptogramins?

A

Bind to the 50S subunit of the ribosome and inhibit protein transcription

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25
Q

Name a streptogramin

A
  1. Virginiamycin
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26
Q

What is the mechanism of action of sulphonamides?

A

Bind to the DHPS enzyme and inhibit folate synthesis

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27
Q

Name a sulphonamide

A

Sulfasalazine

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28
Q

What is the mechanism of Trimethoprim?

A

Inhibits folate synthesis

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29
Q

What is the purpose of clavulanic acid in Co-Amoxiclav?

A

Makes it harder for the bacteria to break down the amoxicillin

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30
Q

What is a key finding in the blood or CSF during bacterial infection?

A

Neutrophils!!

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31
Q

What is type 1 hypersensitivity?

A

Mass cell degranulation (basophils and mast cells) mediated by IgE linkage

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32
Q

What is type 2 hypersensitivity?

A

IgM and IgG linkage to surface cell antigens or tissue components

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33
Q

What is type 3 hypersensitivity?

A

Antibody-antigen complexes deposit into tissues

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34
Q

What is type 4 hypersensitivity?

A

T cell mediated response

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35
Q

What is type 5 hypersensitivity?

A

Stimulatory autoantibodies

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36
Q

Give examples of a type 1 hypersensitivity reaction

A
  1. Anaphylaxis
  2. Atopy
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37
Q

Give examples of a type 2 hypersensitivity reaction

A
  1. Goodpasture syndrome
  2. Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
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38
Q

Give examples of a type 3 hypersensitivity reaction

A
  1. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
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39
Q

Give examples of a type 4 hypersensitivity reaction

A
  1. Tuberculosis
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40
Q

Give examples of a type 5 hypersensitivity reaction

A
  1. Grave’s Disease
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41
Q

What is the test for delayed type 4 hypersensitivity reactions

A

Patch test

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42
Q

Which antibody is first released in the humoral response?

A

IgM

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43
Q

What is the most efficient and powerful antigen presenting cell?

A

Dendritic cells

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44
Q

What is the most common opportunistic infection and presentation of AIDS?

A

Pneumocystis Pneumonia

(caused by the pneumocystis jirovecii fungus)

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45
Q

What bacteria is the most common cause of UTI?

A

Escherichia Coli

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46
Q

What bacteria is the most common cause of Pyelonephritis?

A

Escherichia Coli

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47
Q

What pathogen is most commonly isolated in cases of chronic diarrhoea associated with HIV

A

Cryptosporidium

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48
Q

What is the mechanism of action of rivaroxaban (and other DOACs)

A

Directly inhibits activated clotting factor X to prevent conversion of prothrombin to thrombin

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49
Q

What is the mechanism of bisphosphonates?

A

Inhibit osteoclastic activity to decrease bone resorption, which reduces bone turnover and improves bone mass

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50
Q

What sort of drug is Diclofenac?

A

NSAID

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51
Q

What medicines can cause constipation?

A

Opiates! eg, Codeine

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52
Q

What can decrease the effects of warfarin?

A

Leafy green vegetables

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53
Q

What can increase the effects of warfarin?

A

Alcohol

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54
Q

What anti-emetic is contraindicated in Parkinson’s?

A

Metoclopramide - because it is a dopamine blocker

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55
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for DKA?

A
  1. Blood glucose > 11mmol/L
  2. Plasma ketones > 3mmol/L
  3. Blood pH < 7.3
  4. Bicarbonate < 15mmol/L
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56
Q

What is the most common subtype of thyroid cancer?

A

Papillary

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57
Q

What is the gold standard investigation for carcinoid syndrome?

A

Chromagranin-A + octreoscan

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58
Q

What are typical EKG findings in hyperkalaemia?

A
  1. Tall tented T waves
  2. Wide QRS
  3. Prolonged PR
  4. Absent P waves
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59
Q

What are some symptoms of polycystic ovarian syndrome?

A
  1. Oligomenorrhea
  2. Hirsutism
  3. Acne
  4. Ovarian cysts
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60
Q

What is the difference between Gigantism and Acromegaly?

A

Gigantism is the over secretion of GH PRIOR to the fusion of the epiphyses

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61
Q

What is the management for diabetic ketoacidosis?

A

IV Fluids immediately

Then insulin and potassium (as insulin can cause hypokalaemia_

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62
Q

What is the epithelium of the Vas Deferens?

A

Pseudostratified columnar epithelium with stereocilia

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63
Q

Where in the female reproductive tract does fertilisation usually occur?

A

Ampulla

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64
Q

What is cardiac tamponade?

A

The accumulation of fluid in the pericardial cavity that compresses the heart and reduce cardiac function

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65
Q

What are the four main features of Tetralogy of Fallot?

A
  1. Ventricular septal defect
  2. Pulmonary artery stenosis
  3. Right ventricular hypertrophy
  4. Overriding aorta
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66
Q

What is orthopnoea?

A

Difficulty breathing when lying down

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67
Q

What is a Mobitz type 1 second degree heart block?

A

Increasingly long PR intervals followed by a drop in a QRS complex

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68
Q

What is a Mobitz type 2 second degree heart block?

A

Constant length PR intervals but drops in QRS complexes (eg, 2 or 3 PRs for every QRS)

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69
Q

What are roth spots?

A

Retinal haemorrhage with pale centers

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70
Q

What are the signs of left sided heart failure on Xray?

A
  1. Alveolar oedema
  2. Kerley B lines
  3. Cardiomegaly
  4. Dilated upper lobe vessels
  5. Pleural effusion
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71
Q

What are the signs of right sided heart failure?

A
  1. Increased JVP
  2. Hepatomegaly
  3. Ascites
  4. Pitting oedema
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72
Q

What is primary prevention?

A

Methods taken to prevent the onset of disease

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73
Q

What is secondary prevention?

A

Methods to detect and address an existing disease prior to the appearance of symptoms

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74
Q

What is the most appropriate 1st line test in patients with symptoms for stable angina?

A

CT coronary angiography

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75
Q

What is taken for the prevention of angina attacks?

A

1st line treatment is beta blocker or a cardioselective CCB (eg, Verapamil)

  1. After that, combine beta blockers with a non-cardioselective CCB such as Nifedipine
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76
Q

What is the most appropriate initial treatment for STEMI?

A
  1. Dual antiplatelets (Aspirin + Clopidogrel & Ticagrelor)
  2. Anticoagulation (Heparin)
  3. Percutaneous Coronary Intervention
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77
Q

What is the 1st line treatment for hypertension in people aged 55+ or Afro Caribbeans?

A

Calcium Channel Blocker, eg. Amlodipine

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78
Q

What is the 1st line treatment for hypertension in people aged < 55 or ANY AGE with T2DM?

A

Ace-i

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79
Q

What is the treatment given in atrial fibrillation to prevent strokes?

A

Warfarin or DOAC

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80
Q

When is Warfarin more effective than a DOAC?

A

In a patient with metal heart valves

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81
Q

What is the treatment for pericarditis?

A

NSAIDs & Colchicine

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82
Q

What is the mechanism of action of colchicine

A

Tubulin disruption which reduces inflammatory pathways

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83
Q

What is the 1st line treatment for iron deficiency anaemia?

A

Ferrous sulphate

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84
Q

What is G6PD deficiency?

A

A deficiency in Glucose-6-phosphate-dehydrogenase which causes haemolytic anaemia

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85
Q

What drug is contra-indicated in G6PD deficiency?

A

Nitrofurantoin - as it can cause a drug induced oxidative crisis

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86
Q

What is a diagnostic test for DVT?

A

Doppler ultrasound

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87
Q

What are some causes of thrombocytopenia?

A
  1. HIV
  2. Myeloma
  3. Heparin
  4. Alcohol abuse
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88
Q

What leukaemia is most common in children?

A

Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

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89
Q

What is the diagnostic test for sickle cell anaemia?

A

Hb electrophoresis

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90
Q

What is the treatment for chronic myeloid leukaemia?

A

Chemotherapy and a tyrosine kinase inhibitor, eg. Imatinib

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91
Q

What is the pathology of hereditary spherocytosis?

A

Defects in the red cell membrane, resulting in them having increased permeability to sodium

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92
Q

What is the infective stage of the malaria parasite?

A

Sporozites

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93
Q

What are some hallmarks of Acute Myeloid Leukaemia?

A

Auer rods

94
Q

What are some hallmarks of Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia?

A

Most common type in children

Blast cells

95
Q

What are some hallmarks of Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia?

A

Association with the Philadelphia chromosome

96
Q

What are some hallmarks of Chronic Lymphoblastic Leukaemia?

A

Smudge cells

97
Q

What are some hallmarks of Multiple Myeloma?

A

RBCs in Rouleaux formation

Bence jones proteins

98
Q

How long would a patient be initially put on a DOAC for as a result of a provoked DVT?

A

3 months

99
Q

How long would a patient be initially put on a DOAC for as a result of an unprovoked DVT?

A

6 months

100
Q

What indicates a poor prognosis in a diagnosis of Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia?

A
  1. WCC of >20 at time of diagnosis
  2. Age < 2 or > 10
  3. Being male
101
Q

What are some of the long term complications of ABVD chemotherapy used to treat Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A
  1. Infertility
  2. Lung damage
  3. Cardiomyopathy
  4. Peripheral neuropathy
  5. Hair loss
102
Q

What gene is associated with a proportion of myeloma cases?

A

MGUS

103
Q

What is sideroblastic anaemia?

A

A type of anaemia where the body has enough iron, but is unable to turn it into haemoglobin

104
Q

What are some clinical features of sideroblastic anaemia?

A

Iron accumulates in the mitochondria of blood cells, causing “ringed sideroblasts”

105
Q

What foods are rich in B12

A

Meat, dairy and eggs

106
Q

What is beta-thalassaemia major?

A

Blood disorder that reduces the production of haemoglobin due to a lack of production of beta-globin

107
Q

What are reticulocytes?

A

Immature red blood cells

108
Q

What genetic mutation is associated with polycythaemia rubra vera?

A

JAK2

109
Q

What are some risk factors for DVT?

A
  1. Overweight
  2. Long haul travel
  3. Oral contraceptive
  4. Pregnancy
  5. Immobility
110
Q

What virus is associated with Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

Epstein-Barr virus

111
Q

What is Haemolytic Uraemic Syndrome?

A

A potential complication of E.Coli infection - endothelial damage to blood vessels that leads to thrombocytopenia and haemolytic anaemia

112
Q

What is the 1st line test for suspected coeliac?

A

Serology for IgA tTg antibodies

113
Q

What is the appropriate 1st line management of IBS?

A

Dietary advice

Then, anti-motility agents to help with diarrhoea (eg. Loperamide) / mild laxatives for help with constipation (eg. Lactulose)

114
Q

What is the 2nd line treatment for IBS?

A

Tri-cyclic antidepressant - amitriptyline

115
Q

What is Zenker’s diverticulum / Pharyngeal pouch?

A

A herniation of the upper oesophagus. Zenker’s is posteromedial.

116
Q

What are some symptoms of pharyngeal pouch?

A
  1. Dysphagia
  2. Chronic cough
  3. Bad breath
  4. Throat lymp that gurgles on palpatation
117
Q

What is the treatment for H.pylori?

A

7 day of triple therapy (2 antibiotics and a PPI)

eg, Omeprazole, Amoxicillin, Clarithromycin

118
Q

What is the difference between anal fissures and haemorrhoids?

A
  1. Anal fissures are associated with intense pain post defecation
  2. With haemorrhoids you may feel an outpouching
119
Q

Where is Virchow’s node located?

A

The left supraclavicular area

120
Q

What is a hallmark of IBS?

A

Symptoms improve upon opening bowels

121
Q

Where is iron absorbed?

A

Duodenum

122
Q

Where is vit B12 absorbed?

A

Terminal ileum

123
Q

Where is folate absorbed?

A

Duodenum and jejunum

124
Q

How do NSAIDS cause peptic ulcers?

A

NSAIDS inhibit COX enzymes which are needed to produce prostaglandins that stimulate mucus secretion

Less mucus > reduced mucosal defense > ulcer

125
Q

How does H.pylori cause peptic ulcers?

A

Secretes urease which splits urea in the stomach into CO2 and ammonia.

Ammonia combines with H+ in the stomach to make ammonium.

Ammonium causes an inflammatory response and reduces the mucosal defense

126
Q

How does bile regurgitation cause peptic ulcers?

A

Strips away the mucus layer in the stomach, reducing muscosal defense

127
Q

How does ischaemia cause peptic ulcers?

A

Reduced blood flow means gastric cells die off and don’t produce mucin, reducing mucosal defense

128
Q

Where is the most common place for colorectal cancers to develop in the large intestine?

A

Rectum

129
Q

What are main sources of ALP in the body?

A
  1. Bone
  2. Liver
130
Q

What is the diagnostic test for primary biliary cholangitis?

A

Blood test for Anti mitochondrial antibodies

131
Q

In the context of GI pathology, what would a raised ALP indicate?

A

Cholestasis

132
Q

What is the mechanism of action of N-acetyl cysteine in paracetamol overdose treatment?

A

Replenishes the supply of glutathione that conjugates NAPQI to non toxic compounds

133
Q

What is the best investigation to confirm a suggested diagnosis of ascending cholangitis?

A

ERCP

134
Q

What are some causes of chronic pancreatitis?

A
  1. Iatrogenic - ERCP
  2. Hypercalcaemia
135
Q

What hepatitis virus is a DNA virus?

A

Hepatitis B

136
Q

What are some symptoms of iron excess / haemochromatosis?

A
  1. Fatigue
  2. Weakness
  3. Abdominal problems
  4. Bronzing of skin
  5. Hepatomegaly
137
Q

What is the 1st line investigation for suspected haemochromatosis

A

Blood test for ferritin levels

138
Q

What is the 1st line antibiotic for uncomplicated UTI?

A

Nitrofurantoin

139
Q

What drug can also be used in UTI?

A

Trimethoprim - but it is teratogenic

140
Q

What is the gold standard investigation for kidney stones?

A

Non contrast CT - Kidney ureter bladder

141
Q

What are some symptoms of bladder cancer?

A
  1. Painless haematuria
  2. Polyuria
  3. Increased urgency
  4. Nocturia
142
Q

What are the treatments for chlamydia?

A

Doxycycline or Azithromycin

143
Q

What are some risk factors for testicular torsion?

A
  1. Young age, often just before puberty
  2. Cryptorchidism
  3. Trauma or exercise
144
Q

What are some signs of Wegener’s granulomatosis / granulomatosis with polyangiitis

A
  1. Nasopharynx symptoms
  2. Saddle nose
  3. Hypertension
145
Q

What is Henoch-Schoenlein purpura?

A

A disease where capillaries become inflamed and damaged

146
Q

What are the 4 main symptoms for Henoch-Schoenlein purpura?

A
  1. Non blanching purpura ash
  2. Abdominal pain
  3. Glomerulonephritis
  4. Arthralgia
147
Q

When does Henoch-Schoenlein purpura tend to occur?

A

Males age 3-15 after an upper respiratory tract infection

148
Q

What is Alport syndrome?

A

A defect in type IV collagen that causes problems in the kidneys, eyes and ears

149
Q

What is the most appropriate 1st line treatment for frequency and urgency?

A

Oxybutynin with bladder training

150
Q

What are the side effects of anticholinergics such as oxybutynin?

A
  1. Dizziness
  2. Dry mouth
  3. Constipation
151
Q

What are some symptoms of acute pyelonephritis?

A
  1. Fever
  2. Flank pain
  3. Frequency and urgency
  4. Pain on urination
152
Q

What is the 1st line antibiotic for pyelonephritis?

A

Ciprofloxacin
Cefalexin
Co-amoxiclav

153
Q

What are most renal calculi made of?

A

Calcium oxalate

154
Q

What is another cause of renal calculi?

A

Magnesium ammonium phosphate

155
Q

What is Chvostek’s sign?

A

Associated by hypocalcaemia - elicited by tapping CN7 resulting in momentary facial contraction

156
Q

What is Prehn’s sign positive?

A

Pain relief upon lifting the affected testicle

157
Q

What does a positive Prehn’s sign indicate?

A

Epididymitis

158
Q

What does a negative Prehn’s sign indicate?

A

Testicular torsion

159
Q

What is the most common cause of epididymitis?

A

STIs

160
Q

What does new onset proteinuria on a background of diabetes mellitus suggest?

A

Diabetic nephropathy

161
Q

What is the treatment for diabetic nephropathy?

A

Hypertensive control - Ace-i

162
Q

Where does the left testicular vein drain to?

A

The left renal vein

163
Q

Where does the right testicular vein drain into?

A

The IVC

164
Q

What drugs must be stopped in AKI?

A
  1. NSAIDs
  2. ACE-i & ARB
  3. Aminoglycosides
165
Q

What dietary advice should be followed in patients with chronic kidney disease?

A

Low protein, phosphate, potassium and sodium

166
Q

What genetic component is most associated with spondyloarthropathies?

A

HLA-B27

167
Q

What would the blood profile look like in a patient with Paget’s disease of bone?

A

Elevated ALP
Normal PTH, phosphate, calcium, vitD

168
Q

What medicines can cause gout?

A

Bendroflumethiazide

169
Q

What nerve covers the knee jerk reflex?

A

L4

170
Q

What STI is a common causative agent of reactive arthritis?

A

Chlamydia

171
Q

What STI can cause septic arthritis?

A

Gonorrhoea

172
Q

What is a risk for contracting a Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection?

A

IVDU

173
Q

What sort of bacteria is Haemophilus Influenzae

A

A gram negative coccobaccilus

174
Q

What forms of arthritis has distal interphalangeal joint (DIPJ) involvement?

A

Osteoarthritis and Psoriatic arthritis

175
Q

What is the 1st line medication for osteoarthritis?

A

Topical NSAIDs

176
Q

What is the 2nd line medication for osteoarthritis?

A

Oral NSAIDs & PPI

177
Q

What is the 3rd line medication for osteoarthritis?

A

Weak opioids eg. Codeine

178
Q

What is reserved for very severe osteoarthritis?

A

Intra articular steroid injection

179
Q

What antibodies are found in Sjogrens?

A

Anti-Ro (SS-A) and Anti-La (SS-B)

180
Q

What is the most specific antibody in Sjogrens?

A

Anti-La (SS-B)

181
Q

What is methotrexate?

A

A disease modifying anti-rheumatic (DMARD)

182
Q

Why must methotrexate be avoided in pregnancy?

A

It is a folic acid inhibitor

Folic acid is crucial in the neurodevelopment of the foetus

183
Q

What is severe osteoporosis?

A

A score of < -2.5 and a known pathological fracture

184
Q

What is the name of the descending painless loss of vision that can occur in patients with Giant Cell Arteritis?

A

Amaurosis Fugax

185
Q

What part of the brain is most affected in complex partial seizures?

A

Temporal lobe

186
Q

What is Wernicke encephalopathy?

A

Degenerative brain disorder that can present with changes in metal status, gait and oculomotor dysfunction

187
Q

What is Korsakoff syndrome?

A

A memory disorder

188
Q

What causes Wernicke encephalopathy and Korsakoff syndrome?

A

Vitamin B1 deficiency (associated with alcohol abuse)

189
Q

What is Myasthenia Gravis?

A

An autoimmune disorder where autoantibodies attack post synaptic nicotinic ACh receptors at the neuromuscular junction of skeletal muscles

190
Q

What is Guillain-Barre syndrome?

A

An autoimmune demyelination of the PNS

191
Q

Early on in GBS, Schwann cells can remyelinate nerves, but what happens as the disease progresses?

A

The Schwann cells fail to remyelinate properly leading to irreversible damage to the PNS

192
Q

What are some symptoms of Guillain Barre?

A
  1. Parasthesia
  2. Loss of ankle and arm reflexes
  3. Double vision and difficulty speaking
193
Q

What tests can be done to help confirm a diagnosis of Guillain Barre?

A
  1. Lumbar puncture, increased protein in CSF but not increased leukocytes
  2. Nerve conduction tests
194
Q

What is the treatment for Guillain Barre

A

Intravenous immunoglobulin

195
Q

What are the complications of Guillain Barre?

A

Respiratory failure

Pulmonary emboli

196
Q

What is Motor Neurone disease?

A

A neurodegenerative disease that causes destruction of the upper and lower motor neurones

197
Q

What are the symptoms of MND?

A
  1. Muscle weakness (with visible wasting)
  2. Spasticity & Fasciculations
  3. Problems swallowing
198
Q

What drug can be used in MND?

A

Riluzole

199
Q

What is Cauda Equina syndrome?

A

Compression of the cauda equina

200
Q

What are the symptoms of Cauda Equina?

A
  1. Lower back pain
  2. Loss of bowel or bladder control
  3. Pain that radiates bilaterally down the leg
201
Q

What is the difference in the CSF between viral and bacterial hepatitis?

A

Viral: Normal glucose, higher protein, lymphocytes

Bacteria: Lower glucose, higher protein, neutrophils

202
Q

What is Horner’s syndrome?

A

Disruption to the sympathetic nerve supply that presents with ptosis, facial anhydrosis, miosis

203
Q

What can cause Horner’s syndrome?

A

A Pancoast tumour in the upper part of lung can interfere with the sympathetic chain

204
Q

What is Brown Sequard syndrome?

A

Lesion to one half of the spinal cord

205
Q

What are the symptoms of Brown Sequard syndrome?

A
  1. Ipsilateral loss of position, vibration, sensation and motor control at the level of the lesion
  2. Contralateral pain and temperature loss 2 levels below the lesion
206
Q

What artery is commonly implicated in an extradural haematoma?

A

Middle meningeal artery

207
Q

What drug can be used to lower intercranial pressure?

A

Mannitol

208
Q

What drug should be given as soon as possible after sub arachnoid haemorrhage is confirmed?

A

Nimodipine

CCB to prevent vasospasm

209
Q

What bacteria is the most common cause of Guillain Barre?

A

Campylobacter jejuni

210
Q

What is the most common cause of bacterial gastroenteritis?

A

E.Coli
Salmonella
Campylobacter jejuni

211
Q

What are some symptoms of cluster headaches?

A
  1. Unilateral around the eye
  2. Bad pain
212
Q

What is the most appropriate 1st line investigation for suspected MS?

A

MRI head

213
Q

What can be used with an MRI to help confirm a diagnosis of MS?

A

Lumbar puncture

214
Q

What would a lumbar puncture show in MS?

A

Oligoclonal IgG bands

215
Q

What characterises an extradural haematoma?

A

A lucid interval

216
Q

If a patient is getting farily regular moderate level migraines, what treatment is appropriate?

A

Triptans eg. Sumatriptan

217
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Triptans?

A

A serotonin 5-HT1 receptor agonist, causes vasoconstriction

218
Q

What is Lambert Eaton Myasthenic syndrome?

A

A pre synaptic neuromuscular junction disorder

219
Q

What is the main difference between Lambert Eaton Myasthenic syndrome and Myasthenia Gravis symptoms?

A

LEMS improves after exercise but Myasthenia Gravis gets worse

220
Q

What are some characteristics of Frontotemporal dementia?

A

Can cause early personality changes, eg. aggression and disinhibition

221
Q

What are some non-motor symptoms of Parkinson’s?

A
  1. Depression
  2. Constipation
  3. REM sleep disorder
  4. Postural hypotension
222
Q

What is the only life prolonging medication in MND?

A

Riluzole

223
Q

How does Guillain Barre tend to present?

A

Weakness in the toes to nose fashion

224
Q

What is Charcot Marie Tooth?

A

Inherited condition that causes nerve damage

225
Q

What are some symptoms of Charcot Marie Tooth?

A
  1. Weakness / Numbness in the legs and arms
  2. Usually presents in children under 10
226
Q

What is 1st line treatment for tonic-clonic seizures?

A

Sodium Valproate

227
Q

What is the 1st line treatment for women of child bearing age for tonic-clonic seizures?

A

Lamotrigine

228
Q

What causes Alzheimer’s disease?

A

Beta amyloid plaques and Tau neurofibrillary tangles in the brain that disrupt the neural network and lead to memory issues

229
Q

What sort of dementia is Parkinson’s linked to?

A

Lewy-body

230
Q

What test can be used to test for Carpal Tunnel?

A

Phalen’s test

2a Mocks (5 decks)

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