Coding And Reimbursement/ E&M Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following scenarios qualifies for a consultation code?

a. An internal medicine physician is requested to take over the monitoring and management of a patient’s Coumadin regimen while he is hospitalized for a schizophrenic episode. The request was made by the patient’s psychiatrist.

b. A patient followed by her primary care physician for diabetes is referred to an endocrinologist in the same group practice to review the patient’s current regimen and offer suggestions for ongoing treatment. Her diabetes has been difficult to keep under control.

c. A patient presents to the emergency department with an open fracture following a motorcycle accident. It is determined the patient will need surgery. The patient is admitted by the orthopedic attending with planned surgery for the morning.

d. A patient presents to a rheumatologist for a second opinion regarding her lupus. She is not confident in her current physician.

A

b. A patient followed by her primary care physician for diabetes is referred to an endocrinologist in the same group practice to review the patient’s current regimen and offer suggestions for ongoing treatment. Her diabetes has been difficult to keep under control.

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2
Q

A 77-year-old Medicare beneficiary has a digital rectal examination for prostate cancer screening and the provider orders a PSA. How would this be reported?

A

G0102

Rationale: CMS has very specific guidelines on eligibility and coding of preventive services. There is no specific CPT® code for a digital rectal exam. Code 45990 is a diagnostic exam that includes a diagnostic anoscopy and rigid proctoscopy. Neither service is documented nor is it stated that the patient received an annual exam. The service provided is best represented by HCPCS code G0102.
(https://www.cms.gov/Medicare/Prevention/PrevntionGenInfo/medicare-preventive-services/MPS-QuickReferenceChart-1.html)

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3
Q

Dr. H sees Mrs. Jones in Clinic Eight for syncope while watching the Olympic Torch go by. He is a new provider to the neurology department. Dr. D is also in the neurology department and saw Mrs. Jones last month but is on medical leave for a couple months. Dr. H performs a medically appropriate history and exam. Dr. H orders a CT scan, comprehensive metabolic panel, and CBC panel test. The final diagnosis given is suspected psychogenic syncope. The patient makes a follow-up appointment to see Dr. R in one week. What diagnosis and E/M codes are reported for this visit?

A

99214, R55

Rationale: E/M Guidelines define an established patient as one who has received professional services from the provider – or another provider of the same specialty who belongs to the same group practice – within the past three years. The patient was seen the previous month by another member in the same group practice of the neurology department making this an established patient. MDM is moderate reporting 99214 for undiagnosed new problem with uncertain prognosis (Moderate), ordering of CT scan, metabolic panel and CBC lab tests (Moderate).
The psychogenic syncope is not reported because it suspected. Look in the ICD-10-CM Alphabetic Index for Syncope directing you to code R55.

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4
Q

A 75-year-old established patient sees his regular primary care provider for a physical screening prior to joining a group home. He has no new complaints. The patient has an established diagnosis of cerebral palsy and type 2 diabetes and is currently on his meds. A comprehensive history and examination are performed. The provider counsels the patient on the importance of taking his medication and gives him a prescription for refills. Blood work was ordered. PPD was done and flu vaccine given. Patient already had a vision exam. No abnormal historical facts or finding are noted. What CPT® code is reported?

A

99397

Rationale: According to CPT® guidelines Preventive Medicine Services codes provide a means to report a routine or periodic history and physical examination in asymptomatic individuals. They include only those evaluation and management services related to the age specific history and examination provided by the provider. The patient is here for a preventive service. He did not have any complaints and the provider did not identify any new problems. In the CPT® Index look for Preventive Medicine/Established Patient. You are referred to 99382-99397. The code selection is based on age. Code 99397 is the correct code for a patient who is older than 65 years.

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5
Q

Patient has a urinary tract infection and is given a prescription for ciprofloxacin by her primary care physician. What is level for risk of complications and/or morbidity or mortality of patient management?

A

Moderate

Rationale: Prescription of the ciprofloxacin is counted as prescription drug manamgent for a moderate level.

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6
Q

An established patient presents to the office with a recurrence of bursitis in both shoulders. Examination is limited only to the shoulders in which range of motion is good and full, but he has tenderness in the subdeltoid bursa. Both shoulders were injected in the deltoid bursa with 120mg Depo-Medrol. What CPT® code(s) is/are reported for this visit?

A

20610-50

Rationale: For this encounter, no additional work in evaluating the patient has been performed to support an E/M service with modifier 25 that is significant and separately identifiable from the procedure. Only the procedure is billed. To perform an arthrocentesis, the physician inserts a needle through the skin and into a joint or bursa. A fluid sample may be removed from the joint or fluid may be injected for lavage or drug therapy. In the CPT® Index look for Shoulder/Arthrocentesis. You are referred to codes 20610 and 20611. Review the code description to verify accuracy. Modifier 50 Bilateral Procedure is attached because both shoulders are injected. CPT ® code 20611 is not correct because it includes ultrasound guidance with permanent recording and reporting.

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7
Q

Dr. Inez discharges Mr. Blancos from the pulmonary service after a bout of pneumococcal pneumonia. She spends 45 minutes at the bedside explaining to Mr. Blancos and his wife the medications and IPPB therapy she ordered. Mr. Blancos is a resident of the Shady Valley Nursing Home due to his advanced Alzheimer’s disease and will return to the nursing home after discharge. On the same day Dr. Inez re-admits Mr. Blancos to the nursing facility. She obtains a history, examination, and the medical decision making is moderate complexity.
What is/are the appropriate evaluation and management code(s) for this visit?

A

99239, 99305

Rationale: Hospital discharge is a time-based code. The documentation states that the provider spent 45 minutes discharging the patient. In the CPT® Index look for Hospital Services/Discharge Services. Code 99239 is for 30 minutes or more. Upon discharge the patient was readmitted to a skilled nursing facility (SNF) where he is a resident. CPT® guidelines preceding the Initial Nursing Facility Care codes state when a patient is discharged from the hospital on the same day and readmitted to a nursing facility both the discharge and readmission is reported. Documentation tells us the physician provided a medically appropriate history and exam, with a medical decision making was of moderate complexity. Our documentation shows it to be of moderate complexity, which meets the requirements of 99305.

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8
Q

ICU - CC: Multi-system organ failure
INTERVAL HISTORY: Patient remains intubated and sedated. Overnight events reviewed. Tolerating tube feeds. Systolic pressures have been running in the low 90s on LEVOPHED. Cultures remain negative. Kidney function has worsened, but patient remains non-oliguric.

PHYSICAL EXAM: BP 96/60, Pulse 112, Temp 100.8. Lungs have anterior rhonchi. Heart RRR with no MRGs. Abdomen is soft with positive bowel sounds. Extremities show moderate edema.
LABS: BUN 89, creatinine 2.6, HGB 10.2, WBC 22,000. ABG: 7.34/100/42 on 50% FiO2. CXR shows RLL infiltrate.

IMPRESSION
Hypoxic respiratory failure
Community acquired pneumonia
Septic shock
Non-oliguric acute renal failure

PLAN: Continue NS at 75 cc/hr. Decrease ZOSYN to 2.25 grams IV Q 6H
Follow cultures. Continue tube feeds. Titrate LEVOPHED to maintain SBP > 90
Usual labs ordered for tomorrow.
Critical care time: 35 minutes

What CPT® code(s) is/are reported?

A

99291

Rationale: This patient meets the definition of a critically ill patient as defined by the E/M Guidelines for Critical Care services. A critical illness is one acutely impairing one or more vital organ system with a high probability of imminent or life threatening deterioration in the patient’s condition. The physician documents 35 minutes of critical care time. Critical care for 35 minutes is reported with 99291.

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9
Q

When tissue glue is only used to close a wound involving the epidermis layer how is it reported according to CPT® guidelines?

A

A simple closure

Rationale: The Guidelines for Repair (Closure) include tissue adhesive along with sutures and staples, either singly or in combination with each other can be reported with the repair codes. In this case the tissue glue (adhesive) is a one-layer closure and can be reported with a simple repair code. Wound closure utilizing adhesive strips as the sole repair material is coded using the appropriate E/M code.

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10
Q

According to the AMA E/M Guidelines, what level of MDM is given for the Amount and/or Complexity of Data to be Reviewed and Analyzed when 3 X-rays are ordered and 3 unique labs are ordered?

A

Moderate

Rationale: The ordering of three unique test satisfies category 1 under the table for the amount an or complexity of data to be reviewed and analyzed for a moderate.

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11
Q

An established patient presents to the clinic today for a follow-up of his pneumonia. He was hospitalized for 6 days on IV antibiotics. He was placed back on Singulair and has been doing well with his breathing since then. An expanded problem focused exam was performed. The provider reviewed the CBC from the hospital and personally viewed and interpreted a recent chest X-ray that shows the right lung with infiltrates. The patient was told to continue antibiotics for another two weeks to 20 days, and the prescription Keteck was replaced with Zithromax. Patient is to return to the clinic in two weeks for recheck of his breathing and new follow up X-ray. What CPT® code is reported?

A

99214

Rationale: The patient was seen in the clinic which is an outpatient service. MDM is moderate for acute illness with systemic symptoms (Moderate number/complexity of problems addressed. [The pneumonia is still being treated and is considered as acute]), review of lab test, independent interpretation of radiology test, and new order of a follow up X-ray (Moderate amount and/or complexity of data)Prescription drug management (Moderate risk). Code 99214 is the appropriate code for this visit.

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12
Q

A provider makes a home care visit to a 63-year-old hemiplegic patient who has been experiencing insomnia for the last two weeks. The patient has been home bound for the last year. The last visit from this provider was four months ago to manage his DM. The physician performs medically appropriate history and examination and low MDM. The provider speaks with the spouse about the possibility of placing the patient in a nursing facility. What CPT® code is reported?

A

99348

Rationale: According to CPT® E/M guidelines, Home Services codes (99341-99353) are used to report evaluation and management services provided in a private residence. This is an established patient to the provider. The provider performed medically appropriate history exam and low MDM selecting code 99348.

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13
Q

A 37-year-old female is seen in the clinic for follow-up of lower extremity swelling.
HPI: Patient is here today for follow-up of bilateral lower extremity swelling. The swelling responded to hydrochlorothiazide.

DATA REVIEW: I reviewed her lab and echocardiogram. The patient does have moderate pulmonary hypertension.

Exam: Patient is in no acute distress.
ASSESSMENT:
1. Bilateral lower extremity swelling. This has resolved with diuretics; it may be secondary to problem #2.
2. Pulmonary hypertension: Etiology is not clear at this time, will work up and possibly refer to a pulmonologist. Will start patient on Warfarin 2.0 dosage.

PLAN: Will evaluate the pulmonary hypertension. Patient will be scheduled for a sleep study.

A

99214

Rationale: This is a follow-up visit indicating an established patient seen in the clinic. In the CPT® Index look for Established Patient/Office Visit. The code range to select from is 99211-99215. Pulmonary hypertension can be a serious condition. Number and Complexity of Problems Addressed at the Encounter is based on the unclear etiology, this is a chronic and progressive disease (Moderate). Because this is a follow up patient and a follow up condition, and there is no indication the labs and echocardiogram were ordered by another provider, there is no credit given for these. The provider orders one unique test (the sleep study), making this minimal for the amount and complexity of data to be reviewed and analyzed. Further study (additional testing) is needed to determine the cause of the pulmonary hypertension. There is a moderate risk involved for starting the patient on Warfarin (prescription drug management). The overall MDM is moderate for the visit.

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14
Q

A provider admits Mrs. Smith to the hospital. She is there for five days. The provider sees her each day she’s in the hospital. What subcategory of E/M codes would be used for days two, three and four?

A

Subsequent Hospital Care

Rationale: Codes from the Subsequent Hospital Care subcategory would be used for days two, three and four. The code for the first day would be from the Initial Hospital Care subcategory. Day five could be reported with either subsequent hospital care or hospital care discharge depending on the role of the provider.

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15
Q

A 90-year-old female was admitted this morning from observation status for chest pain to r/o angina. A cardiologist performs a history and exam. Her chest pain has been relieved with the nitroglycerin drip given before admission and she would like to go home. Doctor has written prescriptions to add to her regimen. He had given her Isosorbide, and she is tolerating it well. After 10hrs of observation, he will go ahead and send her home. We will follow up with her in a week. Patient was admitted and discharged on the same date of service.
What CPT® code is reported?

A

99235

Rationale: This patient was admitted and discharged on the same date of service from observation status. According to CPT® guidelines for Observation or Inpatient Care Services (Including Admission and Discharge Services), services for a patient admitted and discharged on the same date of service is reported by one code. For a patient admitted and discharged from observation or inpatient status on the same date, codes 99234-99236 is reported as appropriate.” The provider performed a moderate MDM (undiagnosed new problem with uncertain prognosis, none for amount and/or complexity of data, and moderate risk). The correct code is 99235.

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16
Q

A 5-year-old is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance, He had been found floating in a pool for an unknown amount of time. EMS started CPR which was continued by the ED provider along with endotracheal intubation and placement of a CVC. The ER provider spent 1 hour with the critically ill patient. The ED provider makes a notation the 1 hour does not include the time for the other separate billable services. What CPT® codes are reported?

A

92950, 99291-25, 36556, 31500

Rationale: ED provider documents an amount of time spent with this critical patient. According to CPT® guidelines: “The critical care codes 99291 and 99292 are used to report the total duration of time spent by a provider providing critical care services to a critically ill or critically injured patient. Time spent with individual patient is recorded in the patient’s record.” According to CPT® guidelines: “Services such as endotracheal intubation (31500) and cardiopulmonary resuscitation (92950) are not included in the critical care codes. Therefore, they can be coded separately in addition to critical care services if the critical care is a significant, separately identifiable service, and is reported with modifier -25. The time spent performing these other services, for example endotracheal intubation, is excluded from the determination of the time spent providing critical care.” In the CPT® Index look for Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation (CPR). You are referred to 92950. Review code to verify accuracy. In the CPT® Index look for Catheterization/Central. You are referred to 36555-36566. 36556 is the correct code because the patient is 5 years of age and there is no indication the CVC was tunneled. In the CPT® Index look for Intubation/Endotracheal Tube. You are referred to 31500. Review code to verify accuracy.

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17
Q

A PCP transfers a patient to a cardiologist for management of the patient’s congestive heart failure. The cardiologist examines the patient, discusses treatment options and schedules a stress test for this new patient. A report is sent to the PCP detailing the findings of the office visit, results of the stress test and intent to manage and treat the congestive heart failure. An E/M code would be selected from what subcategory for the cardiologist?

A

New patient office visit

Rationale: The PCP transferred the patient to the cardiologist to manage/treat the congestive heart failure. The cardiologist accepted the transfer of care of the patient and sent a letter to the PCP with findings of the first visit and stress test. This would be coded as a new patient because the cardiologist accepted the patient and is taking over the care of a specific problem.

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18
Q

Referring to the MDM table which level is reported for a diagnosis that is an acute uncomplicated illness or injury?

A

Low

An acute uncomplicated illness or Injury will be a low level under the column Number and Complexity of Problems Addressed at the Encounter indicated on the MDM table.

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19
Q

Mary is referred to a general surgeon for treatment of a left breast mass. The surgeon reviews the visit records from Mary’s primary care provider and the results of a previous ultrasound. He orders a left breast MRI and schedules a follow-up appointment with Mary to go over treatment options. He calls the primary care provider to discuss his visit with Mary and possible options. Based on this information, what is the level for Amount and/or Complexity of Data to be Reviewed and Analyzed?

A

Extensive

Rationale: For an extensive level, any combination of 3 of the following must be met from Category 1: 1) Review of prior external notes; 2) Review results of a unique test; 3) order a unique test; 4) Assessment requiring an independent historian(s). Three of the four requirements were met: review of prior notes from PCP; review of ultrasound; ordering of MRI.

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20
Q

A 60-year-old woman is seeking help to quit smoking. She makes an appointment to see Dr. Lung for an initial visit. The patient has a constant cough due to smoking and some shortness of breath. No night sweats, weight loss, night fever, CP, headache or dizziness. She has tried patches and nicotine gum which has not helped. Patient has been smoking for 40 years and smokes 2 packs per day. She has a family history of emphysema. A limited three system exam was performed. Dr Lung discussed in detail the pros and cons of medications used to quit smoking. Total time of 30 minutes was spent on this visit today. Prescriptions for Chantix and Tetracycline were given. The patient to follow up in 1 month. A chest X-ray and cardiac work up was ordered. Select the appropriate CPT code(s) for this visit.

A

99203

Rationale: Patient is coming to the provider’s office for help to quit smoking. The patient is new. The provider documents that 20 minutes of the 30-minute visit was spent counseling the patient. E/M Guidelines identify when time is considered the key or controlling factor to qualify for an E/M service. Time E/M guidelines indicate that time alone can be used to select codes 99202-99215. The correct code is 99203 based on the total time of the visit which is 30 minutes.

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21
Q

A soccer player hits his head during an indoor game and is admitted to observation to watch for head trauma.
Admit date/time: 01/21/20XX 8:12 PM
Medically appropriate history and exam

Low MDM

Discharge date/time: 01/22/20XX 8:15 AM
Discharge time: 20 minutes

What CPT® code(s) is/are reported for the admission and discharge to Observation Care?

A

99221, 99238

Rationale: Although the patient was in observation for less than 24 hours, the service covered two dates of service. The low level of medical decision making support level 99221. Code 99238 is reported for Hospital care discharge of 30 minutes or less.

22
Q

What category of codes should be used to report an evaluation and management service provided to a patient in a psychiatric residential treatment center?

A

Nursing facility services

Rationale: The guidelines for Nursing Facility Services state, “These codes should also be used to report evaluation and management services provided to a patient in a psychiatric residential treatment center.”

23
Q

Subjective: 6-year-old girl twisted her arm on the playground. She is seen in the ED complaining of pain in her wrist.

Objective: Vital Signs: stable. Wrist: Significant tenderness laterally. Wrist X-ray reviewed and is normal

Assessment: Wrist sprain

Plan: Wrist was wrapped with elastic bandage. Use over the counter Anaprox. Give twice daily with hot packs. Recheck if no improvement.

What is the E/M code for this visit?

A

99283

Rationale: The provider performed a medically appropriate history and exam with a low MDM (acute uncomplicated injury, order of one unique test [X-ray], and low level of risk). A low complexity MDM supports a 99283.

24
Q

Mr. Flintstone is seen by his oncologist just two days after undergoing extensive testing for a sudden onset of petechiae, night sweats, swollen glands and weakness. After a brief review of history, Dr. B. Marrow re-examines Mr. Flintstone. The exam is documented and the medical decision making is of moderate complexity and takes 11 minutes. The oncologist spends an additional 45 minutes discussing Mr. Flintstone’s new diagnosis of Hodgkin’s lymphoma, treatment options and prognosis.
What CPT® coding is reported?

A

99215, 99417

Rationale: This is an established patient. Using Medical decision making of moderate complexity 99214 would be billed. However, the E/M Services Guidelines indicate time can also be used for the level of service, this service is billed with total time. 99215 has a time range of 40-54 minutes. The 11 minutes plus the additional 45 minutes gives a total time of 56 minutes. Each additional 15 minutes can be billed with 99417, prolonged office and other outpatient E/M services. An instructional note states to use 99417 with 99205, 99215. 99354 is not used with 99202-99205 or 99212-99215.

25
Q

Mr. Yates loses his yacht in a poker game and experiences a sudden onset of chest pain which radiates down his left arm. The paramedics are called to the casino he owns in Atlantic City to stabilize him and transport him to the hospital. Dr. H. Art is in the ER to direct the activities of the paramedics. He spends 30 minutes in two-way communication directing the care of Mr. Yates. When EMS reached the hospital Emergency Department, Mr. Yates is in full arrest with torsades de pointes (ventricular tachycardia). Dr. H. Art spends another hour in critical care stabilizing the patient and performing CPR. The time the provider spent on CPR was 15 minutes (the CPR time was included in the one-hour critical care time). What are the appropriate procedure codes for this encounter?

A

92950, 99291, 99288

Rationale: Documentation describes physician direction of the paramedics (99288) In the CPT® Index look for Physician Services/Direction, Advanced Life Support. He spends another hour stabilizing the patient. Refer to the CPT® guidelines under Critical Care Services. The time for the CPR must be deducted from the 1 hour of critical care, making the critical care time 45 minutes reported with critical care code 99291. CPR is not a service included in the critical care codes and may be reported separately with 92950. In the CPT® Index look for CPR (Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation).

26
Q

A 3-year-old critically ill child is admitted to the PICU with respiratory failure due to an exacerbation of asthma not manageable in the ER. The admitting provider starts continuous bronchodilator therapy and pharmacologic support along with cardiovascular monitoring and possible mechanical ventilation support. The provider documents a history and exam, and orders are written. What is the CPT ® code for this encounter?

A

99475

Rationale: This visit meets the criteria for Inpatient Neonatal and Pediatric Critical Care. Codes 99471 – 99476 are used to report the direction of the inpatient care of a critically ill infant or young child from 29 days through less than 6 years. Codes are further divided by initial and subsequent care. This is the initial care of a critically ill 3-year-old. Code 99475 is the correct code for this service.

27
Q

A 45-year-old established female patient is seen today at her provider’s office. She is complaining of severe dizziness and feels like the room is spinning. She has had palpitations on and off for the past 12 months. She reports chest tightness and dyspnea but denies nausea, edema, or arm pain. She drinks two cups of coffee per day. An exam is performed. An EKG is ordered. Metabolic panel and complete blood count labs are drawn. Final diagnosis is suspected benign paroxysmal positional vertigo. To purchase over the counter Dramamine for the dizziness.

What CPT® code is reported for this visit?

A

99214

Rationale: This is a follow-up visit indicating an established patient seen in the clinic. In the CPT® Index look for Established Patient/Office Visit. Medical decision making is the determining factor for selecting the E/M level using E/M services guidelines. Undiagnosed problem with uncertain prognosis (Moderate), three unique tests ordered (EKG, metabolic panel, and complete blood count) (Moderate), low level of risk for over-the-counter medication (Minimal). MDM is moderate reporting 99214 supported for this visit.

28
Q

Which statement is TRUE in reporting a consultation code?

a. A consultation code cannot be reported when a patient is in observation level.

b. A service that constitutes transfer of care is reported with a consultation code.

c. When a consultation is mandated by a third-party report modifier 24.

d. When a patient initiates a consultation a consultation code is not reported.

A

D. When a patient initiates a consultation a consultation code is not reported.

29
Q

A 28-year-old female patient is returning to her provider’s office with complaints of RLQ pain, diarrhea, and headache. The provider performs a history and exam/ The patient has colitis. The provider prescribes antibiotics. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported for this encounter?

A

99214, K52.9, R51.9

Rationale: This is an established patient E/M level of service due to the indication she returning to her provider for the visit. Code 99214 is reported for a moderate MDM for acute illness with systemic symptoms (Moderate) and prescription drug management (Moderate risk). According to the ICD-10-CM guidelines I.B.4., a definitive diagnosis is reported when it has been established. Look in the ICD-10-CM Alphabetic Index for Colitis which directs you to K52.9. Guideline I.B.5 indicates any signs or symptoms that would be an integral part of that definitive diagnosis/disease process would not be separately reported. Headache is not a symptom commonly seen with colitis so we can report this as an additional code, refer to guideline I.B.6. Look in the Alphabetic Index for Headache, which directs you to R51.9. Verification in the Tabular List confirms code selections.

30
Q

After moving across country, Ms. Robbins took her 2-year-old daughter to a new pediatric clinic for an annual physical. The provider completed an age / gender appropriate history, exam, and provided anticipatory guidance. He ordered no additional tests or immunizations. What CPT® code is reported?

A

99382

Rationale: This is a new patient to the pediatric clinic. Look in the CPT® Index for Preventive Medicine/New Patient and you are directed to code range 99381-99387. The code selection is based on age. Code 99382 is for ages 1-4 making it the correct code choice.

31
Q

Mr. Larson sees his primary care provider for a 6-month follow-up on hypertension. Mr. Larson’s blood pressure has been stable on Losartan 100mg once a day. He’s been compliant with his medication.
His BP at the visit is 128/68. Examination: Heart, Regular, Rate, Rhythm. Lungs are clear.
Labs are ordered and to be completed by his next visit in 6-months. Continue to eat a low-sodium diet.
What is the overall level of MDM for this visit?

A

Low

Number/Complexity of Problems Addressed – Low: One stable, chronic illness
Amount and/or Complexity of Data to be Reviewed and Analyzed – Minimal: Labs ordered (Did not indicate the type of labs that were ordered)
Risk of complication of Morbidity or Mortality - Low
Overall MDM is Low.

32
Q

Which of the following scenarios will result in an audit finding?

a. A comprehensive metabolic panel performed on the date of a preventive exam.

b. The lab results were not reviewed by the provider after the tests were performed.

c. Reporting codes 82435 and 82947 together on the same date of service.

d. Performing a laboratory test without the patients written consent.

A

b. The lab results were not reviewed by the provider after the tests were performed

Rationale: When labs are performed, there must be an order indicating the test(s) and diagnoses to support medical necessity, there must be a report, and there must be a review of the results. If the provider orders tests but does not review them, the labs will not be considered medically necessary if they were not used to treat or assess the patient.

33
Q

A CRNA performs anesthesia for a tubal ligation on a healthy 35-year-old. The CRNA is working independently. What is the correct code and modifier?

a. 00860-QX-P1
b. 00851-QZ-P1
c. 00860-QZ-P1
d. 00840-QX-P1

A

b. 00851-QZ-P1

34
Q

In February 2023, an auditor is asked to review 10 records for date of service 12/1/2022 to make sure the claims were paid correctly. The claims included code 49652, which was denied on all the claims. The denial was for an invalid code. What should the auditor advise the provider?

A

If documentation supports the service, have the staff contact the carrier to reprocess the claims. Code 49652 was valid for the date of service billed.

35
Q

Which statement below best supports the use of modifier 22?

a. A large mass was excised along with a large amount of scar tissue.

b. The procedure lasted one hour.

c. The patient lost an increased amount blood during the procedure.

d. Additional two hours were spent in lysis of adhesions and to identify the point of obstruction

A

d. Additional two hours were spent in lysis of adhesions and to identify the point of obstruction

36
Q

Which one of the following code combinations is an example of unbundling if performed on the same anatomic site?

a. 11602, 12031-51

b. 38505, 76942-26

c. 14000, 11402-51

d. 20225, 77002-26

A

c. 14000, 11402-51

37
Q

A patient with sickle cell anemia with painful sickle crisis received normal saline IV 100 cc per hour to run over 5 hours for hydration in the provider’s office. She will be given Morphine & Phenergan, prn (as needed). What codes are reported?

A

96360, 96361 x 4, J7050 x 2, D57.00

Rationale: In the CPT® Index look for Hydration/Intravenous referring you to codes 96360-96361. The hydration will run 5 hours at 100 cc per hour. Codes are time based. Code the hydration therapy as 96360 for the first hour, and 96361 x 4 for a total infusion time of 5 hours. In the HCPCS Level II look for Saline Solution referring you to codes J7030-J7050. Code for the normal saline with J7050 x 2 units for 500 cc.

The type of sickle cell anemia is not identified, but the patient has painful sickle crisis. In the ICD-10-CM Alphabetic Index, look for Disease, diseased/sickle-cell/with crisis directing you to D57.00. Verification in the Tabular List confirms code selection.

38
Q

Which scenario qualifies for modifier 58?

a. Removal of adhesions caused by a previous surgery

b. Debridement of an infected surgical wound

c. Delayed surgical wound closure to promote healing

d. A re-excision due to infection

A

c. Delayed surgical wound closure to promote healing

39
Q

The provider performs three, trigger point injection into the trapezius muscle. What is the correct CPT® coding to report?

A

20552

Rationale: Trigger point injections are reported based on the number of muscles injected, not the number of injections. Multiple units are not reported for multiple trigger point injections.

40
Q

What modifier is appended to indicate a service is provided under the primary care exception without the presence of a teaching physician?

A

Modifier GE

Rationale: If approved for the primary care exception, the resident can see patients on their own and discuss the case with the teaching physician. The physician is not required to perform a face-to-face encounter unless it is medically necessary. The highest E/M level that can be billed is a level III. A GE modifier is appended to the code to indicate the service was provided without the presence of the teaching physician.

41
Q

A three-year-old presents to the office with his mother for an MMR vaccine. The nurse confirms the order; administers the subcutaneous vaccine; and documents the site, vaccine, lot number, dosage, and date and time. What are the codes to report?

A

90471, 90707

Rationale: There is no indication the nurse performed the counseling for the vaccine. The correct administration code is 90471. The vaccine includes measles, mumps, and rubella, reported with 90707.

42
Q

CT images were taken on the abdomen and pelvis with administration of oral contrast. What CPT® codingis reported?

A

74176

43
Q

When auditing CBC tests for a primary care physician, you review the record and verify the tests were performed, but there is no order. When you question the provider, he indicates there is a standing order to perform a CBC on every patient. What do you advise the provider?

A

This is an audit finding. Standing orders cannot be used in this manner.

44
Q

Which of the following code combinations are NOT subject to a multiple procedure payment reduction?

a. 48150, 49440
b. 21433, 21401
c. 32666, 32674
d. 31254, 31287

A

C. 32666, 32674

45
Q

A patient has a cholecystectomy and a soft tissue lipoma removed during the same operative session. Both specimens were sent to pathology in separate containers are examined by the pathologist. What CPT® coding is reported?

A

88304 x 2

46
Q

Which modifier begins a new global period for unrelated procedure?

A

Modifier 79

47
Q

A 4-year-old child received a mumps, measles, rubella and varicella (MMRV) injection at a neighborhood clinic with provider counseling. What CPT® codes are reported?

A

90710, 90460, 90461 x 3

48
Q

A patient at 14 weeks gestation is coming back to her obstetrician’s office for a repeat transabdominal ultrasound to measure fetal size and to confirm abnormalities seen in a previous scan. The obstetrician documented the ultrasound results in the medical record. What CPT® code is reported by the obstetrician?

A

76816

49
Q

A 60-year-old female has pancreatic carcinoma. She is taken to the outpatient surgical center and undergoes placement of Infuse-A-Port for chemotherapy. Fluoroscopic guidance was used to help the physician with the placement of the port. What CPT® codingis reported?

A

36561, 77001-26

Rationale: The surgical procedure of the insertion of the port is being performed on a patient that is age 5 years or older. The Infuse-A-Port is a central venous access device. Guidance can be reported separately with modifier 26 because the provider performs only the professional component.

50
Q

Choosing the overall MDM level is based on three factors:

A
  • The number of diagnoses and/or management options;
  • The amount and/or complexity of data to be reviewed; and
  • The risk of complications and morbidity or mortality.