Prostate Cancer (2) Flashcards

1
Q

Risk factors for developing prostate cancer

A

Age (over 65)
-65% of men over 65 develop prostate cancer

Race
-highest in African Americans (followed by white, then Asian)

Genetics
-BRCA 1 or 2 +

Family history
-immediate family (brother/father) = 2x risk

Diet
-high red meat consumption (red meat increases testosterone)

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2
Q

What is the most common type of cancer to occur in the prostate

A

Adenocarcinoma (95% of prostate cancers) - arises in the cells of glands

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3
Q

2 Screening Methods for Prostate Cancer

A
  1. Digital Rectal Exam
    -done annually during physical - physician places finger in rectum and feels to see if the prostate is enlarged
    -but just because the rectum is enlarged doesn’t mean its cancer, there could be other reasons - BPH, age, high levels of red meat, bike or horse riding, recent sexual intercourse, etc.
  2. PSA
    -prostate specific antigen - this is produced only from the prostate gland, and more of it is produced if the prostate is enlarged
    -if PSA is greater than 10 ng/mL - patient should undergo further testing, or if patient is younger (age 40-60) and PSA is greater than 4 ng/mL- they should undergo further testing

Again, there could be other reasons for enlarged prostate (and therefore elevated PSA) - but just a good reason to do further screening (MRI/biopsy)

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4
Q

Prostate cancer presentation/symptoms

A

Sexual dysfunction
Bladder habit changes (prostate is around the urethra- so when it is larger it makes is harder to expel urine)
^but these are just symptoms of an enlarged prostate, not necessarily cancer …

These are symptoms that suggest cancer…
-blood in the urine
-pain
-weakness or numbness of legs (because it metastasizes to the bone)

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5
Q

Metastatic sites of prostate cancer

A

Most common: bone
Also - liver and lung

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6
Q

Prostate cancer staging

A

Previously - Gleason’s scale was used
-score from 1-5 based on cell differentiation
-biopsy was done, cells were looked at under the microscope and the worst 2 were chosen and the score were added up (so the total score could range from 2-10)

This scoring tool didn’t work well, so there is a new prostate grading system
-based on the traditional Gleason’s scale, but is overall rated 1-5 grades

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7
Q

Prostate cancer treatment approach

A

Treatment isn’t necessarily based on stage, it is based on if it is early or advanced disease or recurrent disease

If early stage - curative therapy ….
-observation (if prostate is enlarged/PSA high, but MRI/biopsy are normal)
-radiation
-radical prostatectomy (remove prostate)

If advanced stage…
-androgen ablation (deprivation of testosterone)
-orchiectomy (removal of testis to decrease testosterone)

If recurrent disease (despite other treatments) …
-chemotherapy
-more radiation

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8
Q

Early stage treatment differs slightly based on what?

A

How high risk the patient is
(early stage is observation, radiation, and surgery - there are differences in the radiation and surgery based on if the patient is “very low risk” or “intermediate risk”)

Very low risk…
-grade 1
-PSA < 10 ng/mL

Intermediate risk…
-grade 2-3
-PSA 10-20 ng/mL

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9
Q

Early stage treatment

A

Observation, radiation, surgery

Radiation
-for very low risk: conventional beam radiation (from external source)
-for intermediate risk: brachytherapy (radiation occurs from the inside, something is placed inside and becomes radioactive)

Surgery
-for very low risk: TURP (transurethral resection of the prostate) - go up the urethra to remove the piece of the prostate that is cancerous
-for intermediate risk: prostatectomy - complete removal of the prostate through the rectum (many complications)

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10
Q

What are side effects of early stage radiation?

A

For external beam radiation (low risk patients)…
-dysuria, diarrhea, hematuria (blood in urine), cystitis, erectile dysfunction

For brachytherapy (intermediate risk patients)…
-obstructive urinary problems

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11
Q

What are complications of prostatectomy?

A

(removal of the prostate - done through the rectum so there are more complications than TURP)

Incontinence
Cystitis
Erectile dysfunction

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12
Q

Advanced stage treatment

A

Orchiectomy
-removal of the testis to decrease testosterone
-this has psychological and cosmetic consequences - so patients often opt to try other therapies

GnRH agonist + antiandrogen
or
GnRH antagonist
-but these treatments also have ADRs including impotence, bone density loss, weakness, and hot flashes

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13
Q

How do GnRH agonists vs antagonists work?

A

Antagonists will directly block GnRH receptors -causing a decrease in LH and therefore testosterone production
-immediate action
-can be used alone

Agonists - work through the negative feedback loop… they first cause an increase in testosterone, but eventually will result in downregulation of GnRH receptors due to the negative feedback
-because they take time to do this and because of the initial surge in testosterone, they must be used with a antiandrogen

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14
Q

Which 2 drugs are GnRH AGONISTS

A

Leuprolide (IM injection)
Goserelin (SC injection)

(REMEMBER - these need to be used with an antiandrogen)

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15
Q

GnRH agonist ADRs and management

A

Initial tumor flare - (due to testosterone surge) - this is why they need to be used with an antiandrogen to prevent this

Decreased bone density (they also decrease estrogen production) - supplement with calcium/vitamin D

QT prolongation (check for DDIs)

Hot flashes, impotence, gynecomastia, bone pain

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16
Q

Which 2 drugs are GnRH ANTAGONISTS

A

Degarelix (SC injection)
Relugolix (oral)

17
Q

GnRH antagonist ADRs

A

NO tumor flare (don’t need to use with antiandrogen)

Osteoporosis risk
-calcium/vitamin D supplementation, weight bearing exercises, DEXA screening

Hypersensitivity reactions with degarelix (monitor after first dose)

18
Q

Which drugs are first generation antiandrogens (3)

A

Bicalutamide
Flutamide
Nilutamide

all oral, bicalutamide is used the most

19
Q

1st generation antiandrogen MOA and use

A

Competitively inhibit testosterone from binding to its receptors on prostate cancer cells

Used for several weeks with GnRH agonists to prevent the tumor flare (from the testosterone surge)
They are NOT used alone

20
Q

1st generation antiandrogen ADRs

A

Flutamide - most diarrhea out of the 3

Nilutamide - night blindness and disulfuram reaction (with alcohol)

(because of this bicalutamide is usually used the most)

All: hot flashes, gynecomastia

21
Q

Which drugs are 2nd generation antiandrogens? (3)

A

Apalutamide
Darolutamide
Enzalutamide (most popular)

All oral agents

22
Q

How do second generation antiandrogens differ from first generation?

A

Unlike first generation, second generation antiandrogens do NOT cause upregulation of the androgen receptors

And they can be used ALONE as single treatment

But they can also be used with GnRH agonists to prevent the tumor flare from the testosterone surge

23
Q

2nd generation antiandrogen ADRs

A

QT prolongation
Hot flashes
Fatigue