Atrial fibrillation Flashcards

1
Q

What is a significance of the P wave?

A

Atrial contraction

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2
Q

what is the significance of the QRS complex?

A

Ventricular contraction

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3
Q

what is the significance of the T wave?

A

Ventricular repolarizations

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4
Q

what is the significance of the PR interval?

A

it is the impulse through the atria and AV node

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5
Q

what is the significance of the QTc interval? What is the equation?

A

it is the time between the ventricle polarization and depolarization
prolonged QT interval precedes torsades de pointes
QTc= QT interval/sqrt(RR interval)
RR interval is the duration of one cardia cycle

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6
Q

which drugs can cause proarrhythmias

A
Class 1A /III antiarrhytmics
Macrolides
Quinolones
Famotidine
TCAs, ziprasidone, haloperidol
etc
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7
Q

which factors may contirbute to arrhythmias

A

MI
HF
Medications

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8
Q

what are the class 1 A antiarrhytmics

A

disopyramide (double)
quinidine (quarter)
Procainamide (pounder)

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9
Q

what are the class 1B antiarrhythmics

A

lidocaine (lettuce)
tocainide (tomato)
mexiletine (mayo)
Phenytoin (pickles)

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10
Q

what are the 1C antiarrhytmics

A

moricizine (more)
flecainide (fries)
propafenone (please)

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11
Q

what are the class 2 antiarrhythmics

A

beta blockers (propronolol, esmolol)

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12
Q

what are the class 3 antiarrhytmics

A
amiodarone
dronaderone
sotalol
ibutilide
dofetilide
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13
Q

what are the class IV antiarrhytmics?

A

Verapamil and diltiazem

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14
Q

quinidine

A
class 1A Qunidex, quinaglute
MOA=stabilize the membrae channel by interfering with sodium channel influx 
I=Supraventricular Tachy, Ventricular tachycardia
EKG= prolong QT, prolong QRS because block potassium channels also in phase 3
PK= strong cyp3a4 inhibitor/substrate
CI= patients taking quinolines that prolong QT
Se= Diarrhea* hypotension, syncope, QT prolongation, cinchonism (HA, diz, tinitus)
Other: different salt forms gluconate and sulfate not interchangeable, take with food or milk, keep constant Na intake cuz dec Na inc qunidine levels
DDI=digoxin(inc d) warfarin (inc INR), grapefruit juice, verapamil, diltiazem, amiodarone, erythromycin
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15
Q

procainamide

A

class 1A Pronestyl (SR)
MOA=stabilize the membrae channel by interfering with sodium channel influx
I= Supraventricular Tachy, Ventricular tachycardia
EKG= prolong QT, prolong QRS because block potassium channels also in phase 3
has metabolite NAPA that is renally cleared
SE=hypotension, bradycardia, can cause blood dyscrasias , can become ANA+
Other: take on an empty stomach, monitor x 3months for blood dyscrasia

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16
Q

disopyramide

A
class 1A Norpace
MOA=interfering with sodium channel influx, negative inotrope 
I= Supraventricular Tachy, Ventricular tachycardia
EKG=prolong QT, prolong QRS because block potassium channels also in phase 3
PK=major cyp3a4 substrate
SE= strong anticholinergic
CI=do not use in BPH, urinary retention, glaucoma, myasthenia gravis
Other: take on an empty stomach
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17
Q

lidocaine

A
class 1B - xylocaine
MOA=block sodium ion channels
I=ventricular tachy, especially faolowing an MI (ischemic tissue)
EKG= decrease the QT
PK=hepatically eliminated
SE=hypotension, hallucinations, diorientation, 
Other:can give in endotrachial tube but need higher dose
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18
Q

mexiletine

A
class 1B- Mexitil
MOA=block sodium ion channels
I= ventricular tachy
EKG= shorten QT
PK=
SE=GI Side effects*, hypotension, hallucinations, diorientation, 
Other:can give in endotrachial tube but need higher dose
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19
Q

flecainide

A
class 1 c - Tambocor
MOA=block sodium channels, negative inotrope
I=SVT, (VT)
EKG=really increase QRS
PK=kidney and liver clearance
CI=do not use if Structural changes to the heart like LVH, HF, CAD
SE=dizziness, visual disturbance
Other: not commonly used cuz pro arrhythmia, amiodarone DDI dec dose F 50%
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20
Q

beta blockers

A

esmolol, propranolol, metoprolol, atenolol
MOA= esmolol is b1 selective, propranolol is not
I=SVT, VT
EKG=increase PR segment, can cause AV block
PK=decrease the heart rate
SE=do not use propranolol with patients who hae problem breathing copd asthma
metoprolol/timolon in long-term prophylaxis in pat with an MI, esmolol short acting IV used for acute surgical arrhythmias

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21
Q

amiodarone

A

class III -Cordarone
MOA=increase refractory period, block potassium channels, Na channels, beta blocker
I=SVT, VT, most arrhythmias
EKG=prolong QT
PK=VERY LONG half-life and Vd
CI=
SE=HYPOTHYROID*/hyperthyroid, hypotension, inc LFTs, photosensitivity/blue skin discoloration if extended sun, <3% Pulmonary fibrosis (5-15%)
BBW: lung damage, liver toxicity, exacerbate arrythmias, corneal micro deposits
Other: most popular, preg cat D, dec IV50% of PO,

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22
Q

dronaderone

A
MOA=increase refractory period, block potassium channels
I=SVT, VT
EKG=prolong QT
PK=cyp3a4 substrate, 
CI=class 4 HF, recent decompensated HF, QTc > 500msec, bradycardia < 50, strong cyp inhibitor, severe heaptic impairment, 400mg po 
SE=GI side effects
Other:pregnancy category X
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23
Q

sotalol

A
class III
MOA=increase refractory period, block potassium channels, non selective beta blocke
I=SVT, VT
Dose 80-160mg BID, adjust by CrCL
EKG=prolong QT
CI= If baseline QTc > 450 , betapace AF in CrCl =160mg/day, Magnesium can be given to reverse torsades de pointes w/ these agents
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24
Q

ibutilide

A

Class 3-Corvert
MOA=increase refractory period, block potassium channels
I=SVT, VT
EKG=prolong QT
PK=
SE=
Other: class 1A or 3 should be avoided withing 4 hours after infusion

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25
Q

dofetilide

A
class 3 Tikosyn
MOA=increase refractory period, block potassium channels
I=SVT, VT
EKG=prolong QT
PK=metabolized by CYP3A4
CI=baseling QTc > 440 msec, CrCl <20, cimetidine, TMP, prochlorparezine, megestrol, ketoconazole, verapamil
SE=
Other:mandatory 3 day hospitalization for initiation, MD must be certified to prescribe, Pharmacy msut be enrolled in TIPS to dispense
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26
Q

verapamil

A
class IV
MOA=calcium channel blocker
I=supraventricular arrhytmias invovling AV nodal reentry
EKG=
PK=
CI=
SE=can worsen AV block and ventricular failure
Other:
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27
Q

diltiazem

A
MOA=
I=
EKG=
PK=
CI=
SE=
Other:
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28
Q

propafenone

A
MOA=
I=
EKG=
PK=
CI=
SE=
Other:
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29
Q

digoxin

A
MOA=enhances vagal tone
I=
EKG=increase PR
PK=
CI=
SE=
Other:
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30
Q

adenosine

A
MOA=activates adenosine receptor, activating the potassium Kach receptor, hyper polarization, decrease HR
I=
EKG=increases PR
PK=
CI=
SE=
Other:
31
Q

atropine

A
MOA=
I=
EKG=
PK=
CI=
SE=
Other:
32
Q

what are the pathophysiologic consequnces of atrial fibrillation/atrial flutter?

A
  1. hemodyanmic symptoms: palpiations, can induce tachyardia-mediated cardiomyopathy, angina, fatigue, syncope
  2. Thromboembolic complications like stroke
    3
33
Q

compare rate and rhythm control strattegies in atrial fibrillation/flutter

A

Rate
attempts to control only the ventricular response rate (heart rate=pulse)
can releive hemodynamic symptoms
prevents tachycardia mediated Cardiomyopathy
no use of antiarrhythmics
requires long term anticoagulation

Rhythm control
attempts otresotre and maintain normal sinus rhythm
prevents hemodynamic symtpos and prevents tachycardiamediated CMP
reduces thromboembolic risk

34
Q

what is the stroke provention theraphy for a patient with atrila fibrillation/flutter

A

warfarin
dabigatran
rivaroxaban
ASA+/- clopidogrel

35
Q

which drugs can cause bradycardia?

A

beta blockers

calcium channel blockers non dihydropyridines

36
Q

what are the primary and secondary preventions of sudden cardiac death?

A

1

37
Q

how do you identify a patient that requires and implantable cardioverter defibrillator?

A

1

38
Q

develop an appropriate treatment and monitoring plan for a patient with a fib/atrial flutter

A

Mx: electrolytes

39
Q

develop an appropriate treatment and monitoring plan for a patient with a bradyarrhytmia

A

Mx: electrolytes

40
Q

develop an appropriate treatment and monitoring plan for a patient with a ventricular tachycardia/fibrillation

A

Mx: electrolytes

41
Q

calculate the dose for an antiarrhytmic agent using appropriate pahrmacokinetic parameters

A

1

42
Q

which medications lead to QT prolongation

A

Class I, Class III : amiodarone, disopyramide, dronaderone, procainamide, sotalol
quinolone antibiotics
macrolide antibiotics
azole antifungals
TCAs
antipsychotics:chlorpromazine, thioridazine, pimozide, ziprasidone, haloperidol
droperidol, apomorphine, foscarnet, methadone, pentamidine

43
Q

what is the black box for all antiarrhythmics

A

antiarrhythmic drugs have not been shown to enhance survival in non-life threatening ventricular arrhythmias and may increase mortality, greatest risk in pts with structural heart disease.

44
Q

which electrolytes can affect arrhythmias?

A

Na K

Ca Mg

45
Q

how does potassium affect digoxin?

A

hypokalemia can increase risk of digoxin toxicity

46
Q

what risk factors contribute to torsades de pointes

A
bradycardia
cardiac hypertrophy
baseline long qt
hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia
renal failure
47
Q

which medications prolong the qt

A

K channel blockers like class 1A/3 antiarrhythmics, macrolides, quinolines, famotiidine, TCAs

48
Q

what should you monitor for amiodarone?

A

Chest X ray and pulmonary function test baseline
Thyroid & liver function test & ECG baseline and every 3-6 months
Eye exam baseline and every year

49
Q

what are the difference between dronaderone and amiodarone

A
lower efficacy 
better side effect profile
more GI side effects
shorter half life = 30hr
no interaction with warfarin
50
Q

what defines atrial fibrillaiton

A

supraventricular tachycardia with rapid atrial rate of 400-600bpm and disorganized. Ventricualr rate can be normal to rapid 100-160bpm and irreguarly irregular

51
Q

what define atrial flutter

A

rapid but organized atrial activation 270-330bpm with regular to irrgular ventriacular response

52
Q

in evaluating patients with possible atrial fibrialltion, what should you evaluate?

A

ECG
Thyroid, renal, hepatic function
history and physical
triggers: alcohol, caffeine, exercise, sleep depvation, emothinal stress

53
Q

what are the three categories of atrial fibriallation

A

Paroxysmal 7 days

Permanent > 1 year or cardioversion failed

54
Q

what three stages of acuity for atrial fibrillation

A

acute: new episode < 48 hours
recurrent >= 2 episodes
lone afib : > 60yo without cardiopulmonary dz inc hypertension

55
Q

what is the goal for HR for Rate control?

A

60-80bpm at rest and 90-115 for exercise

56
Q

what agents do you use for rate control?

A

beta blockers
non-dyhydropyridine CCB
digoxin
amiodarone

57
Q

what is the CHADS2 score

A
prior stroke or TIA 2
Age >75 1
hypertension 1
diabetes Mellitus 1 
HF 1
58
Q

what is recommended if they have a chads 0

A

ASA 81-325 daily + clopidogrel 75mg daily

59
Q

what is recommended for stroke prevention if they have a CHADS1

A
ASA 81-325mg daily + clopidogrel 75mg daily 
OR 
Warfarin INR 2-3
OR
 Dabigatran
60
Q

what is reccommended for stroke prevention in CHADS 2 or more

A

warfarin INR 2-3
OR
Dabigatran

61
Q

dabigatran

A

pradaxa
MOA= direct thrombin inhibitor (factor II)
PK= rapid onset and short half life (12-17 hours) twice daily dosing
Dosing: ClCr: > 30 150mg BID, 15-30 75mg bid, < 15 not recommended

62
Q

what are the differences between Electrical shock vs pharmacological cardioversion

A

EC
more effective but causes myocardial injury and requires sedation

PC
convenient and may facilitate EC but less effective and varries with the agents. Can put patients at risk for proarrhytmias and durg interactions.

63
Q

what should you check before performing a cardioversion

A

electrolytes K, MG and digoxin levels

64
Q

who should get cardioversion

A

if hemodyanmically unstable based on low CO, hypotension, acute MI, shock, angina, pulmonary edema= USE EC

If hemodyanmically stable, you can used EC, EC + PC , or PC

65
Q

Should you use anticoagulation if a patient is undergoing cardioversion?

A

yes need it before and after cardioversion if patient has had Afib > 48 hours because at risk for developing atrial thrombi

66
Q

what is the anticoagulation therapy for elective cardioversion?

A

before cardioversion warfarin for 3 weeks or more INR 2-3, TEE w/o anticoagulation
After cardioversion warfarin for >= 4 weeks INR 2-3

67
Q

what is the anticoagulation therapy for immediate cardioversion?

A

Before cardioversion: heparin bolus and infusion

After cardiversion Warfarin 4 weeks or more INR 2-3

68
Q

What are the non-pharm treatments for atrial fibrillation

A
  1. radioffrequency catheter ablation: ablate ectopic foci
  2. pulmonary vein isolation ablation : ablation of av node
  3. surgical maze procetur
69
Q

what is AV block

A

partial or ocmplete of interpution of impulse transmission of the atrial to theventricles

70
Q

how do you treate AV block?

A
atropine
dopamine, epinephrine, isoproterenol
transcutaneous pacing (external pacing)

If it’s chronic : permanent pacemaker

71
Q

what is a PVC

A

premature ventricular contraction

ventricles contract without the presence of a P wave

72
Q

define ventricular tachycardia

A

series of PVCs at > 100bpm

non-sustained is <30 seconds, after 30 seconds is sustained

73
Q

how to treat VT

A

If hemodynamically unstable: electric shock

long term suppression dependend on SCD sudden cardiac death risk

74
Q

ventricular fibrrilaltion tx

A

electric shock
IV epinephrine
amiodarone