Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Review > Review > Flashcards

Review Flashcards

1
Q

Discussion of code status with pt admitted to hospital is what type of preventive care

A

Quaternary prevention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What’s a type of primary prevention

A

Immunizations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What type of prevention is a Pap smear screening

A

Secondary prevention- strategies to promote early detection of disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What type of prevention is mastectomy

A

Tertiary - aim to limit impact of established disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the components of an intervention for treating tobacco use

A

Ask,advise,assess,assist,arrange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

An immuno-compromised pt would like the pneumonia vaccine what is recommended

A

pCV 13 now and revaccinate with PPSV23 in 8 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Screening of a hepatitis panel results with negative HBsAg, positive anti-HBs,negative anti-HBc what does this mean

A

Pt had hep B in the past and has passive immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Who should be screened for lung cancer

A

Adults 55-80 who have 30pk smoking history and currently smoke or quit with in past 15 years

Order Low dose CT chest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Women 50-74 should get screened how often for breast cancer

A

Biennial mammogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Elevation in lead II, III and aVF indicate what type of MI

A

Inferior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Elevation in lead v3&v4 what type of MI

A

Anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Elevation in lead v1 V2and V3indicate MI where

A

Anteroseptal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Hgb levels

A

14-18 males
12-16 femals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

HCT levels

A

Males: 40-54
Female 37-47

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

TIBC what is it and levels

A

Binding capacity of iron- increased means higher need for iron
Normal 250-450

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Serum iron

A

50-150

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

MCV

A

Volume and size of erythrocyte
80-100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

MCV

A

Mean corpuscular volume - average amount/weight of Hgb in a single erythrocyte
Normal 26-34

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

MCHC

A

Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration-average Hgb concentration of each RBC more accurate then MCH
Normal 32-36%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Low MCV anemias

A

Iron deficiency
Thalassemia

Microcytoc anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

High MCV anemia

A

Macrocytic anemia
B12 or folate deficiency,alcoholism,liver failure and drug effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Normocytic anemia

A

Anemia of chronic disease
Sickle cell
Renal failure
Blood loss
Hemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The most common cause of anemia

A

Iron deficiency anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Causes of iron deficiency anemia

A

Blood loss
Inadequate iron intake
Impaired absorption of iron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What anemia may cause Pica

A

Iron deficiency anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Labs: low h/h, low serum ferritin, high TIBC and low MCV - what type of anemia

A

Iron deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Labs: low h/h, low MCV, low MCHC, normal TIBC and decreased a Hgb chain

A

Thalassemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Genetically inherited disorder in abnormal Hgb and microcytic and hypochromic anemia

A

Thalassemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Who gets thalassemia

A

Mediterranean African middle eastern Indian and Asian

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Most common type of thalassemia

A

Beta thalassemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

An adult with thalassemia has which type most likely

A

Thalassemia minor
One copy of beta chain
Mild anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

A child has what type of thalassemia that is progressively severe

A

Thalassemia major/Cooleys Anemia
2 genes for beta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Can you administer iron in thalassemia

A

No contraindicated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Tx for thalassemia

A

No treatment for mild/moderate, RBC transfusion/splenectomy for severe forms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Pt with fatigue, tachycardia and glossitis with out neuro changes has anemia what type do you expect

A

Folic acid deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Labs: low h/h, elevated MCV, normal MCHC, decreased serum folate
Anemia?

A

Folic acid deficient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Tx for folic acid deficiency anemia

A

Folate acid 1mg every day
High folate food/ bananas, peanut butter,fish, green leafy vegetables iron fortified breads and cereals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Anemia caused by deficiency of intrinsic factor

A

Pernicious anemia (b12)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Labs: low h:h, MCV increased, decreased b12
Anemia?

A

Pernicious anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What type of anemia is pernicious anemia

A

Macrocyctic normochromic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Tx for pernicious anemia

A

B12 100mcg IM daily x1 eeek (front load) then lifelong monthly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Most common anemia in elderly and hospitalized patients

A

Anemia of chronic disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Labs: low h/h, MCV normal, MCHC normal, serum iron and TIBC low, high serum ferritin

A

Anemia chronic disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Pt reports pain in chest and aching joints, upon assessment appears dehydrated you suspect sickle cell what is the treatment

A

Fluids
Analgesics
Oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Genetic disorder results in deficiency of clotting factor VIII

A

Von willebrand disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Tx for von willebrand disease

A

Desmopreasin
Recombinant von Willebrand factor/factor VIII concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Acute leukemia in adults with long term survival of 40%

A

Acute myelogenous leukemia (AML)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

90% remission rate in children hallmark of disease is Pancytopenia with circulation of blasts

A

Acute Lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Most common leukemia in adults

A

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Hallmark of this leukemia is lymphocytosis

A

CLL - chronic lymphocytic leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What leukemia is Philadelphia chromosome seen in

A

Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Pt with fatigue weight loss and generalized lymphadenopathy - what do you suspect

A

Leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Pt presents with low h/h, fatigue, glossitis and parenthesis - what anemia do you suspect
How do you treat

A

Pernicious anemia

B12 IM daily x 1week then monthly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

How is leukemia confirmed

A

Bone marrow biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Why give allopurinol to a pt undergoing chemotherapy

A

To reduce tumor lysis syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Management of leukemia

A

Chemo
Bone marrow transplant
Control symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What stage is lymphoma if you have enlarged lymph in neck and groin

A

Stage III- lymph involved on both sides of diphragm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Stage II lymphoma involves what

A

More than one lymph node group- confined to one side of diaphragm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Stage I lymphoma is dx how

A

Disease localized to one single lymph node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Pt has lymphoma that has spread to neck lymph nodes, the spleen and the liver - what stage is this

A

Stage III- involves liver or bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

20 year old male presents with advanced stage lymphoma - what type is this most likely

A

Non-hodgkins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What finding would differentiate Hodgkin’s disease from non-hodgkins

A

Reed-stern berg cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Manager of lymphoma

A

Radiation
Chemo
Bone marrow transplant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Management of ITP( idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura)

A

May not need till PLT <20000
High dose corticosteroids
IV gamma globulin (preferred for HIV pt)
PLT transfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Mtg if DIC

A

Treat underlying cause
PLT Tx for thrombocytopenia, FFP to replace clotting factors, cryo for fibrinogen
Use heparin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Labs associated with DIC

A

Thrombocytopenia PLT <150000
Hypofibrinogenemia /fibrin <170
Decreased RBC
Increased fibrin degradation products. (FDP) >45 mcg/ml
Prolonged PT >19 seconds
Prolonged PTT >42 seconds
DDimer +

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Difference in acute vs chronic pain

A

Acute <6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What to consider to treat bone pain with Mets

A

Biophosphonates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A

Toxic on antipsychotic or antidepressant like SSRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Pt presents to ED with possible overdose he is vomiting with hyperthermia elevated LFTs and tinnitus what substance do you suspect

A

Aspirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Pt presents to Ed with possible overdose s/s include nausea excessive salivation blurred vision with kiosks and bradycardia. What substance do you suspect

A

Organophsphate insecticide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Tx for insecticide (organophosphate) poisoning

A

Wash skin
Activated charcoal if swallowed
Atropine is drug of choice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Tx for serotonin syndrome

A

Dantrolene sodium
Clonazepan to treat rigor
Cooling blankets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What condition do you need to worry about developing with antidepressant toxicity

A

Seizures- treat with benzodiazepines IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

S/s antidepressant toxicity

A

Confused
Hallucinations
Urinary retention
Hypothermia
Hypotension
Tachycardia
Seizure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Tx for beta blocker overdose

A

Glucagon
Atropine as needed
Stabilize airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Tx of ethylene glycol overs OPO se

A

Fomepizole (antizol)
Ethanol if fomepizole not AV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What indicates compartment syndrome and what is treatment

A

Pressure >30 mmHG
Delta pressure <=30
Fasciotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is delta pressure

A

Difference in Diastolic BP and the intra-compartmental pressure - if less then 30 need fasciotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Pathogen and drug for endocarditis

A

Staphylococcus aureus
Vanco + ceftriaxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Drug choice for peritonitis

A

Metronidazole plus 3rd gen. Cephalosporin or zosyn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Common pathogen cause acute otitis media sinusitis and bronchitis

A

S. Pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Common pathogen of cellulitis and Tx

A

Staph. Aureus , group A strep
Cefazolim, Vanco, clindamycin, linezolid and dapto

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Tx for transplant Pt that you think is rejecting organ

A

Immediate biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is most effective anti-rejection regimen

A

Triple therapy
Steriod- methyprednisolone or prednisone
Antimetabolite
Calcimeurin inhibitor or mTOR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Who gets shingrix

A

Shingles vaccine
Adults >=50- 2 doses with 2nd dose given 2-6 months after first

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Rough flesh colored pink patches in sun exposed parts of body

A

Actinic keratoses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Firm irregular pPule or nodule that is keratitis and scaly bleedinh

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Benign non painful beige or black plaques that are “stuck on”

A

Sevorrheic kerToses
No treatment or nitrogen removal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Most common skin cancer

A

Basal cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Tx of basal cell carcinoma

A

Shave/punch biopsy and surgical excision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Highest mortality rate of all skin cancers

A

Malignant melanoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Most common type of headache

A

Tension headache

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Headache effecting middle age men and often at night and unilateral

A

Cluster headache

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Tx of cluster headache

A

100% oxygen
Sumatriptan 6mg SQ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Normal urine sodium

A

10-20 mEq/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Normal serum osmolality

A

275/285 (2x Na)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What does high urine sodium usually indicate

A

Renal salt wasting a problem with kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What sodium defect usually occurs with extreme hyperlipidemia or hyperproteinemia

A

Isotonic hyponatremia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

normal CVP

A

0-6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Normal PAP

A

15-25/5-15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

normal PCWP

A

6-12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

normal CO

A

4-8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

normal CI

A

2.5-4

105
Q

normal SVR

A

800-1200

106
Q

normal CV02

A

60-80%

107
Q

Shock state with low CO, LOW CVP and high SVR

A

hypovolemic

108
Q

type of shock with low CO, high CVP and high PCWP

A

cardiogennic

109
Q

shock state with high CO, low CVP, low PCWP and low SVR

A

septic shock

110
Q

shock with low CO, high CVP, high SVR and high SV02

A

obstructive shock

111
Q

shock with low CO, low CVP, low PCWP, low SVR

A

anaphylatctic
neurogenic

112
Q

side effect of st johns wort

A

increase blood clotting
serotonin syndrome wiht SSRI

113
Q

two herbs that help with premenstrual and menopausal discomfort

A

black cohosh
evening primrose

114
Q

what is side effect of kava kava

A

hypertension long term
alcohol increased toxic effects

115
Q

first drug to administer for anaphylactic shock

A

diphenhydramine (Benadryl) 25-75mg IV or IM

116
Q

elements of aSOFA

A

SBP <100 - 1 point
RR >=22 - 1 point
GCS <15, AMS - 1 point

2 or more points greater risk of death or prolonged ICU

117
Q

what is serum osmolality of hypotonic hyponatremia

A

<280

118
Q

Causes of hypovolomeic with urine NS <10

A

dehydration
diarrhea (C-Diff)
Vomiting / NGT suctioning

119
Q

causes of hypovolemic w/ urine Na > 20

A

-Low volume and kidneys cannot conserve Na
Diuretics
ACE inhibitors
Mineralocorticoid deficiency

120
Q

causes of hypervolemic hypotonic hyponatremia

A
  • Need to restrict water-most common

edematous states
CHF
liver disease
advance renal failure

121
Q

state of body wat´r excess diluting all body fluids , clinical signs arise from water excess

A

hypotonic hyponatremia

122
Q

usually due to excess water loss; always indicates hyperosmolality

A

hypernatremia - serum osmolality >295

123
Q

Mtg of hypernatremia

A

hypovolemic- NS IV followed by 1/2 NS
euvolemia- free water (D5W)
hypervolemia- free water and loop diuretic; may need dialysis

124
Q

pt has muscular weakness, fatigue and muscle cramps as well as prominentU waves and broad T waves - what do you suspect

A

hypokalemia -

125
Q

MTG of hypokalemia

A

oral replacement if >2.5 and EKG normal
IV replacement if <2.5 or severe s/s - 40mEq/hour
Check Mg!!!!

126
Q

common drug cause of hyperkalemia

A

NSAID

127
Q

tx of K >6.5 with muscle paralysis (emergent treatment )

A

10 units insulin plus one amp D50

128
Q

what does total calcium vary with

A

albumin

129
Q

causes of hypocalcemia

A

hypoparathyroidism, hypomagnesemia, pancreatitis, renal failure, severe trauma and multiple blood transfusions

130
Q

ds/s of hypocalcemia

A

Trousseau’s sign (carpopedal spasm)
Chvostek’s sign (increased irritability of the facial nerve, twitching with percussion of facial nerve)
Prolonged Qt

131
Q

Mtg of hypocalcemia

A

if acute IV calcium gluconate

132
Q

pt presents with fatigue, muscle weakness, constipation and anorexia what electrolyte disturbance do you expect

A

hypercalcemia

133
Q

Tx of hypercalcemia

A

calcitonin if impaired cario/renal function
NS with loop diuretic
dialysis in severe cases

134
Q

what is the first ABG abnormality when in pt in distress

A

respiratory alkalosis - hyperventilation

135
Q

what do you usually see ketones with

A

Type I DM

136
Q

glutamic acid decarboxylase is associated with what

A

80% of Type I DM patients
glutamic acid decarboxylase
GAD -65

137
Q

what serum fasting blood glucose diagnostic of DM

A

8 hour blood glucose >=126 mg/Dl on more than one occasion

138
Q

A1C diagnostic of DM

A

glycated hemoglobin >= 6.5

139
Q

somogyi effect

A

nocturnal hypoglycemia
pt is hypoglycemic at 0300 but rebounds with elevated BS at 0700

140
Q

tx of somogyi effect

A

reduce or omit the bedtime dose of insulin

141
Q

dawn phenomenon

A

BS becomes progressively elevated throughout night resutling in elevated BS at 0700

142
Q

tx of dawn phenomenon

A

add or increase bedtime dose of insulin

143
Q

criteria of metabolic syndrome

A

waist circumference >=40” men, >=35”women
BP >= 130/85
Triglycerides >= 150
FBG >=100
HDL < 40 in men <50 in women

Must have 3 to dx

144
Q

pt has had a frequent recurrent vaginitis as well as pruritus and now complains of blurred vision - what should you work her up for

A

DM II

145
Q

started drug for type II DM

A

biguanide- Metformin

BLACK box : lactic acidosis c/o muscle pain

146
Q

types of GLP-1 and black box warning

A

trulicity
byetta
Victoza
Ozemic

Thyroid Ca
REMS program-pancreatitis

147
Q

pt presents with increased appetite, weight loss, exophthalmos and tachycardia what do you suspect and associated labs

A

hyperthyroidism (overdrive)

TSH low
Elevated T3 T4 free thyroxine index

148
Q

pt presents with cold intolerance, puffy eyes, and edema of hands and face
what do you expect and associated labs

A

hypothyroidism (sluggish)
TSH elevated, low T4

149
Q

labs associated with hashimotos

A

elevated TSH
low T4

150
Q

labs with Graves disease

A

decreased TSH
elevated t3 & y4

151
Q

what med do you avoid in thyroid crisis

A

Acetylsalicylic acid

152
Q

pt presents with tachycardia and severe anxiety, tremors and has elevated T3
what do you worry about and how do you treat

A

thyroid crisis
propylthiouracil 150-250 q 6 OR
methimazole 15-25 mg every 6 hours

153
Q

pt presents hypothermic, unable to maintain airway and bradycardia
TSH is elevated
what do you suspect and how to treat

A

myxedema coma
intubate if needed
fluid replacment
Synthroid 400mcg IV
slow rewarming

154
Q

what is most common presentation of hyperthyroidism

A

Graves’ disease

155
Q

Medication tx for hyperthyroidism

A

propranolol for s/s relief
Thioruea drugs for patients with small goiters or fear of isotopes-
- Methimazole every day in 3 doses
- Propylthiourcia daily in 4 doses

156
Q

TX for thyroid storm

A

propylthiouracil every 6 hours OR methimaozle every 6 hours plus other tx
avoid ASA

157
Q

what is the reason most people are non compliant with taking levothyroxine

A

initial hair loss

158
Q

management of myxedema coma *hypothyroidism crisis

A

protect airway
fluid replacement
levothyroxine 400mcg IV then daily
slow rewarming with blankets

159
Q

Cushing syndroom is caused by what

A

to much steroid
ACTH hyper secretion
adrenal tumor
chronic admin of glucocorticoids

160
Q

s/s of Cushing

A

central obesity
moon face buffalo hump
hypertension (vasoconstriction)

Hyperglycemia
Hypernatremia
Hypokalemia
elevated AM cortisol

161
Q

test for Cushing disease

A

dexamethasone suppression test

162
Q

Addisons disease caused by what

A

to little steroid , androgen and aldosterone

deficient cortisol
autoimmune
metastatic cancer
bilateral adrenal hemorrhage
pituitary failure

163
Q

s/s of Addisons

A

hyperpigmentation of buccal mucosa and skin creases
hypotension
scant axially and pubic hair

hypoglycemia
hyponatremia
hyperkalemia

AM cortisoll <5mcg/dl

164
Q

test for Addison

A

cosyntropin stimulation test

165
Q

mtg of Addison

A

glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid replacement
- hydrocortisone
-fludrocortisone acetate

166
Q

s/s of SIADH

A

neurologic changes from hyponatremia (mild headache, seizure, coma )
decreased DTRs
hypothermia

167
Q

labs r/t SIADH

A

hyponatremia
decreased serum osmolality <280
increased urine osmolality >100
increased urine sodium >20

increased urine specific gravity because urine osmosis is increased

168
Q

what is DI

A

diabetes inspires
excessive urination and extreme thirst from to much vasopressin

169
Q

s/s of DI

A

thirst/cravings for water
polyuria (2-20 L/day)
hypotension
weight loss, fatigue
elevated temp

170
Q

labs r/t DI

A

hypernatremia
increased serum osmolality >290
decreased urine osmolality <100
elevated BUN/creatinine
low urine specific gravity

171
Q

how do you test for DI

A

Vasopressin challenge test (Desmopressin) - positive in central DI negative in nephrogenic DI

172
Q

management of DI

A

if NA >150 - give D5W to replace 1/2 volume deficit in 12-24 hours
if Na <150 substitute 1/2 NS or 0.9
DDAVP IV or Sq in acute situations
DDAVP maintenance intranasally

173
Q

management of SIADH

A

if Na <120 restrict fluids to 1000ml/24hours
if Na <110 or neuro s/s replace with isotonic or hypertonic saline and Lasix at 1-2mEq/h

174
Q

a pt presents with liable BP, diaphoresis and severe headaches also notice postural hypotension TSH is normal what do you suspect

A

pheochromocytoma

tumor of adrenal medulla

175
Q

how do you dx pheochromocytoma

A

plasma-free metanehines (blood_
Assay of urine catecholamines, metanephrines, vanillylmandelic acid (VMA) and creatine
24 hours urine >2.2 ug metanephrine per mg creatine and >5.5 VMA

176
Q

how do you CONFRIM pheochromocytoma

A

CT of adrenals

177
Q

what do you monitor post operatively in pheochromocytoma

A

hypotension
adrenal insufficiency
hemorrhage

178
Q

Younger people have what type of ulcer

A

Duodenal ulcer

179
Q

What type of ulcer typically occurs between 55-65

A

Gastric ulcer

180
Q

Who are ulcers more common in

A

Men

181
Q

This type of stomach pain feels better after eating

A

Duodenal ulcer

182
Q

This type of stomach pain gets worse after eating

A

Gastric ulcer

183
Q

Pt presents with severe epigastric pain, rigidity and quiet bowel sounds what do you suspect

A

Acute abdomen- perforation

184
Q

Treatment for suspected PUD

A

pPI
-prazole

185
Q

What is the treatment for H Pylori

A

Two antibiotics + PPI with or with out bismuth x 10-14 days

186
Q

What is a precursor for esophageal cancer

A

Barrett’s esophagus

187
Q

How do you dx Barrett’s esophagus

A

EGD

188
Q

Hepatitis related to IV drug use

A

Hep C

189
Q

Pt has anti-HAV and IgM what do you suspect

A

Active Hep A

iGm-immediate

190
Q

Pt has HBsAg, anti-HBc, HBeAG and IgM what it’s this

A

Active hep b

191
Q

Pt has HBsAg, anti HBc, anti HBe IGM IGH what is this

A

Chronic Hep B

192
Q

Pt has anti-HBc, antiHBs what is this

A

Recovered hep B

193
Q

Pt presents with LLQ tenders ness and pain along with loose stools and nause what do you suspect

A

Diverticulitis

194
Q

Dietary risk for diverticulitis

A

Low dietary fiber

195
Q

Pt presents with abdominal pain and has deep pain while breathing in when fingers placed under right rib cage
What do you suspect

A

Murphy sign
Cholecystitis

196
Q

How dx cholecystitis

A

US is gold standard

197
Q

Most common complication of ERCP

A

Pancreatitis

198
Q

Causes of acute pancreatitis

A

Gallbladder disease -#1 cause cholelythisis
HEAVY alcohol use

199
Q

Pt presents with upper abdomen tenderness severe epigastric pain that is improved by sitting forward you note flank discoloration what do you suspect

A

Grey turner sign
Hemorrhagic pancreatitis

200
Q

Ransom criteria

A

Greater than 55
W- WBC >16000
G- glucose >200
L- LDH > 350
A- AST >250

George Washington Got Lazy After

201
Q

Treatment for autonomic dysreflexia

A

Remove stimulus
- cath cause bladder full
- straighten sheet
- move fan

202
Q

Parkinson’s is deficient of what

A

Dopamine

203
Q

What is Murphys sign

A

Deep pain on inspiration while fingers are placed under right rib cage - indicates cholecystitis

204
Q

How do you dx cholecystitis

A

Ultrasound - gold standard

205
Q

Major complication associated with ERCP

A

Pancreatitis

206
Q

What is ransoms criteria used for

A

Evaluate prognosis with pancreatitis

207
Q

Pt presents with cramping periumbilical pain , afebrile, unable to pass stool and high pitched tinkling BS what test do you order

A

KUB- dilated loops of bowel and air fluid levels with bowel obstruction

208
Q

Pt had pain with right thigh extension what do you suspect

A

Appendicitis
-psoas sign

209
Q

Pt had RLQ pain with pressure applied to LLQ what do you suspect

A

Appendicitis
Positive rovsings sign

210
Q

How do you dx appy

A

CT or US

211
Q

RIFLE is used for what

A

Assess AKI
R- risk
I- injury
F-failure
L- loss
E- end stage

212
Q

Pt has AKI with BUN ratio of 20:1 FENa <1 and urine sodium <20, what type of renal cause do you suspect and how to Tx

A

Prerenal
Expand intravascular volume

213
Q

Most common cause of intrarenal AKI that effects renal cortex

A

Nephrotoxic agents

214
Q

Initial Tx of nephroliyhiasis

A

Morphine
Toradol
Metoclopramide

215
Q

Pt has a “Kentucky” sound upon assessment what is this and what does it indicate

A

S3
Fluid overload- CHF, pregnant

216
Q

Pt has developed. New heart sound after an MI what is this

A

S4 “ten-ne-ssee “

217
Q

Murmur that is loud with thrill

A

IV/VI

218
Q

Murmur heard at 5th ICD and in diastole

A

Mitral stenosis

219
Q

Murmur heard at base and in systolic

A

Aortic stenosis

220
Q

Where are mitral murmurs

A

5th ICS, apex

221
Q

Where are aortic murmurs

A

2nd or 3rd ICS, base

222
Q

Stage I HTN

A

130-139 or 80-89

223
Q

Stage 2 HTN

A

> =140 or >=90

224
Q

Elevated Bp

A

120–129 and <80

225
Q

Typical first line Tx for HTN

A

Thiazide diuretic

226
Q

Tx for HTN in DM

A

Acei or Arb

227
Q

Normal cholesteroL
Normal LDL
Normal HDL
Normal VLDL/triglycerides

A

<200
<100
>40
<150

228
Q

Goals for lipids for DM or CAD

A

LDL <70
hDL >40
triglycerides <150

229
Q

Elevation in lead I and aVl is MI where

A

Lateral

230
Q

Elevation on leads II,III and aVF

A

Inferior MI

231
Q

Elevation in V leads

A

Anterior MI

232
Q

Pt had PRI that gets longer then drops qrs is what type of heart block

A

Type I second degree /mobitz type I

233
Q

Atrial rate is regular PRI is constant but ventricular rhythm is irregular and has dropped QRS

A

Type 2 Heart block

234
Q

No relationship between P wave and QRS complex

A

Type 3 block

235
Q

Normal INR

A

0.8-1.2

236
Q

Normal PT

A

11-16 seconds

237
Q

Who enforces HIPAA

A

Office of civilian rights

238
Q

What dx must be reported

A

Gonorrhea
Chlamydia
Syphilis
HIV
TB
Covid

239
Q

Nonmaleficence

A

Duty to do no harm

240
Q

Utilitarianism

A

Right act is one thag produces the greatest good for the greatest number

241
Q

Beneficence

A

Duty to prevent harm and promote good

242
Q

Justice

A

Duty to be fair

243
Q

Fidelity’s

A

Duty to be faithful

244
Q

Veracity

A

Duty to be truthful

245
Q

Autonomy

A

Duty to respect individual thoughts and actions

246
Q

Cross sectional research

A

Type of observational study, designed to find relationships between variable at specific point in time or “surveys”
Examines population with similar attributes but differ in specific variable such as age

247
Q

Cohort

A

Nonexperemtal
Compares particularl outcome in groups that are alike but differ by certain characteristic

248
Q

Longitudinal study

A

Nonexperimental
Taking multiple measures of group over attended period of time to find relationship between variables

249
Q

Useful frame work to answer clinical based question

A

P-patient
I- intervention
C- comparison
O- outcome
T- timing

250
Q

What is a type 1 error

A

False positive
Incorrectly rejecting the true null hypothesis

251
Q

Type 2 error

A

False negative
Failing to reject a null hypothesis which if false

252
Q

What does CN XII do

A

Move the tongue

253
Q

What nerve shrugs the shoulders

A

CN XI spinal accessory

254
Q

What is function of CN VIII

A

Acoustic- hearing

255
Q

What does CN VI do

A

Abducens - lateral eye movement

256
Q

CN that does pupillary construction

A

CN III ovulomotor

257
Q

Pneumonic for CN

A

Oh- olfactory
Oh- optic
Oh- oculomotor
To- trochlear
Touch- trigeminal
And- abducens
Feel- facial
A- acoustic
Girls- glossopharyngeal
Vagina - vagus
So - spinal accessory
Heavenly -hypoglossal

258
Q

heart sounds in S1

A

aortic/pulmonic open - mitral/tricuspic close

259
Q

heart sounds in S2

A

aortic/pulmonic close- mitral/tricuspid open

Review (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions